Answer:
It depends on what your considering antibiotics to be. If you are referring to anything that kills bacteria then technically yes that’s the point of your immune system which releases many types of white blood cells to fight bacteria/bacterial infections. Just so I don't confuse you the immune system fights all forms of pathogens not just bacteria.
Which of the following intermediary metabolites enters the Krebs cycle and is formed, in part, by the removal of CO2 from a molecule of pyruvate?
A) lactate
B) glyceraldehyde phosphate
C) oxaloacetic acid
D) acetyl CoA
E) citric acid
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-D.
Explanation:
Before Citric acid cycle or Krebs cycle, an intermediate reaction takes place which converts the pyruvate into Acetyl CoA. This reaction is known as pyruvate decarboxylation as it produces Carbon dioxide.
Coenzyme A reacts with pyruvate which causes the release of two oxygen atoms and one carbon to form CO₂ along with the reduction of NAD+ to NADH and produce "Acetyl CoA."
Thus, option-D is the correct answer.
The intermediary metabolite formed by the removal of CO2 from pyruvate and that enters the Krebs cycle is acetyl CoA. This occurs in the phase of cellular respiration known as decarboxylation.
Explanation:The intermediary metabolite that enters the Krebs cycle and is formed, in part, by the removal of a CO2 molecule from a molecule of pyruvate is acetyl CoA (option D).
The process occurs during cellular respiration. Specifically, one carbon atom from pyruvate is released as one molecule of CO2 in a step called decarboxylation, facilitated by an enzyme complex in the mitochondrial matrix. This remaining two-carbon molecule then combines with Coenzyme A to form Acetyl CoA, which enters the Krebs cycle.
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The largest mass of nervous tissues is found in __________
a. stomach
b. brain and spinal cord
c. pancreas
d. liver
The correct answer is B. Brain and spinal cord
Explanation:
In biology, the nervous tissue is one of the main tissues in the nervous system that is responsible for movement, communication between different parts of the body and perception/processing of information. This tissue can be found mainly in the brain, the spinal cord and the nerves which are also the most important structures in the Nervous system. Also. this tissue includes different types of specialized cells such as the neuroglia cells and neurons. According to this, the largest mass of nervous tissues is found in the brain and spinal cord, because it is in these structures most nervous tissues can be found.
Answer:
Largest mass of Nervous tissue is found in the brain, spinal cord, and nerves.
Explanation:
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Why does it make sense that the sensors and controller of body temperature reside in the brain?
A. Because the brain enables the body's response to temperature changes
B. Because deep inside the brain is considered the body's core
C. Because temperature changes happen most quickly in the brain
D. Because the brain works best at the correct temperature
E. Because temperature changes affect the brain first
List a few terms that are unique for regulation of transcription in eukaryotic cells?
Answer:
Eukaryotic transcription refers to an elaborate procedure, which is used by the eukaryotic cells to duplicate the genetic information present in DNA into the units of RNA replica. The transcription of the gene takes place in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. The expression of eukaryotic genes is mainly monitored at the level of the beginning of transcription, though in certain cases, transcription may be monitored and attenuated at subsequent steps.
Like in bacteria, the transcription in eukaryotic cells is monitored by the proteins, which combines with the unique regulatory sequences and modulate the activity of RNA polymerase. The intricate task of monitoring the expression of gene in various kinds of cells of multicellular species is achieved mainly by the combined activities of various different transcriptional regulatory proteins.
In supplementation, the packaging of DNA into chromatin and its variation by methylation produce further levels of complexity to the control of eukaryotic gene expression. The transcription in bacteria is monitored by the combination of proteins to the cis-acting sequences, which regulate the transcription of adjacent genes.
The same kind of cis-acting sequence monitors the expression of eukaryotic genes. These sequences have been determined in mammalian cells mainly by the application of gene transfer assays to examine the activity of suspected regulatory regions of cloned genes.
Describe the route blood takes as it flows through the body, starting with the heart receiving oxygen-poor blood from the body.
Answer:
the blood enters into the right atrium by inferior and superior vena cava--- left ventricle---pulmonary artery ---- lungs----left atrium----left ventricle---aorta----different body tissues.
Explanation:
The circulation in man is called the double circulation. Because in the heart the two types of blood circulate separately i.e. oxygenated blood/oxygen-poor blood and deoxygenated blood/oxygen-rich blood and they never mix.
The route of deoxygenated blood:
In the heart, the deoxygenated blood enters by the superior and inferior vena cava. Then this oxygen-poor blood stores in the right atrium and from there it passes into the left ventricle. The flow of blood from the right atrium to left ventricle occurs by the tricuspid valve.
When the blood enters into the right ventricle the valves closed to stop the backflow of the blood.
The blood from the right ventricle goes to the pulmonary artery by the pulmonary valve. From the pulmonary valve, the deoxygenated blood passes to the lungs. In the lungs, the deoxygenated blood/oxygen-poor blood gets purified.
The rout of oxygenated blood:
Now the blood becomes rich in oxygen and called oxygenated blood. This oxygenated blood enters into the left atrium by pulmonary vein. From the left atrium, the oxygen-rich blood moves into the left ventricle. Then the oxygenated blood reaches to the different parts of the body by the aorta.
In this way, the right half of the heart circulates the deoxygenated blood and the left half of the heart provides deoxygenated blood.
List all the ways in which CO2 is transported in the blood. Of these, how is the majority of the CO2, transported in the blood?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide is the prime waste component of aerobic respiration. Too little or too much carbon dioxide in the blood can result in extreme issues. In order to make this safe and sound, carbon dioxide is transported in the blood in three ways. That is, in the form of carbamino compounds, hydrogen carbonate, and in the form of a dissolved state.
Approximately 30 percent of all the carbon dioxide is mediated in the form of carbamino compounds. At high quantity, carbon dioxide binds directly with amino acids and the amine groups of hemoglobin to produce carbaminohaemoglobin.
Almost 60 percent, that is, the majority of the carbon dioxide is transported in the blood in the form of bicarbonate ions or hydrogen carbonate. The diffusion of carbon dioxide takes place in the RBCs and gets transformed into bicarbonate ions and hydrogen ions with the help of an enzyme known as carbonic anhydrase.
Approximately 10 percent of all the carbon dioxide is transported in the form of a dissolved state in plasma. The concentration of gas dissolved in a liquid relies upon its partial pressure and its solubility. In spite of its solubility, only some of the carbon dioxide in the blood is in reality transported in the form of dissolved state in plasma.
Answer:
CO2 is transported in three forms from tissues to the alveoli: a) In dissolved form through plasma; b) As bicarbonate ions; c) by RBC as HbCO2.
Explanation:
When oxygen reaches the body cells, oxidation of glucose takes place during which CO2 is released along with H2O and energy. CO2 diffuses out of the tissues into the blood capillaries where it is transported to the lungs in three forms:
1. In dissolves form in plasma: About 7% of CO2 gets transported in dissolved form. It gets dissolved in the blood plasma and is carried to the lungs.
2. As bicarbonate ions: about 70% of CO2 is converted into bicarbonate ion and transported in plasma. Within the RBC there is an enzyme called carbonic anhydrase. When CO2 enters the RBC, it reacts with water to form carbonic acid which further dissociates into bicarbonate and hydrogen ion. Both these reactions occur in the presence of carbonic anhydrase enzyme. The HCO3- ion formed in the RBC quickly diffuses into the plasma, where they are carried to the lung.
3. By RBCs as carbaminohemoglobin: About 20-25% of CO2 is transported as HBCO2. CO2 binds with the amino group of globin protein which is a part of Hb.
How many different types of phenotypes are possible when working various pea seed-color problems?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
e. 2
Answer:
e. 2
Explanation:
The seed color in a pea plant is a discontinuous trait and is regulated by two alleles of a gene. The dominant allele imparts "yellow" color to the seeds while the recessive allele imparts them "green" color.
If the dominant allele is represented by letter "Y" and the recessive allele is written as the lower case letter "y"; the homozygous dominant and heterozygous dominant genotypes exhibit "yellow" phenotype with respect to seed color while the homozygous recessive genotype express "green" seed color.
The following enzymes or processes are known to regulate eukaryotic gene expression. In the blank provided by each enzyme or process, enter the number 1 if the enzyme or process increases gene expression or the number 2 if the enzyme or process decreases gene expression.
(a) histone acetyltransferases (HATs) ____
(b) histone deacetylases (HDACs) ____
(c) acetylation ____
(d) deacetylation ____
(e) decreased attaraction between DNA and histones ____
(f) increased attraction between DNA and histones ____
Answer:
a) 1 b) 2 c) 1 d) 2 e) 1 f) 2
Explanation:
a) A coactivator CBP contains a subunit that has histone acetyltransferase (HAT) activity. These enzymes transfer acetyl groups from an acetyl CoA donor to the amino groups of specific lysine residues on histone proteins.
-Gradually this leads to activation of several other coactivators and as a result initiation of transcription takes place.
b) HDACs are associated with transcriptional repression. HDACs are present as subunits of larger complexes described as corepressors.
-Corepressors are similar to coactivators, except that they are recruited to specific genetic loci by transcriptional factors (repressors) that cause the targeted gene to be silenced rather than activated.
c) Acetylation of histone residues is thought to prevent chromatin fibers from folding into compact structures, which helps to maintain active, euchromatic regions.
-On a finer scale, histone acetylation increases access of specific regions of the DNA template to interacting proteins, which promotes transcriptional activation.
d) Deacetylation of the the histone tails makes the DNA more tightly wrapped around the histone cores, making it difficult for transcription factors to bind to the DNA. This leads to decreased levels of gene expression.
e) Decreased attraction is directly proportional to loosening of the DNA from histone core hence accessible to the transcriptional factors which further leads to transcription and gene expression
f) Increased attraction means DNA gets tightly wound around the histone core and inaccessible to the transcription factor hence decreased gene expression.
Cell differentiation always involves
a. transcription of the myoD gene.
b. the movement of cells.
c. the production of tissue-specific proteins.
d. the selective loss of certain genes from the genome.
Answer: (C) The production of tissue-specific proteins.
Explanation:
The cell differentiation is the process in which the cell change from one cell place to another place. It basically occur due to the process of gene expression.
The cell differentiation involve the production of the specific tissue protein known as muscle actin. In cell differentiation, the pluripotent stem cell basically go in the specific differentiation level and then reach in the state of fully differentiation.
The fully differentiation produced a specific function that the production of the protein. Therefore, option (C) is correct.
Cell differentiation involves the production of tissue-specific proteins. The correct option is C.
Thus, the process through which cells develop specialized properties and functions is referred to as cell differentiation. Cells go through a variety of alterations during this process that equip them to carry out certain tasks in a particular tissue or organ.
The creation of tissue-specific proteins is one of the crucial components of cell differentiation. These proteins, which are frequently unique to a given cell type or tissue, carry out the specialised duties of differentiated cells. They are essential in determining the differentiated cell's identity and purpose.
Thus, the ideal selection is option C.
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Which of the following statements about excision repair is correct?
a. base excision repair is initiated by DNA glycosylases that recognize abnormal deoxyriboses in DNA.
b. nucleotide excision repair removes large regions of DNA via an excinuclease which cuts on either side of the damaged bases.
c. e. coli exonuclease activity is carried out by uvrA, uvrB and uvrC, and the resulting gap is filled in by DNA Pol III
d. DNA glycosylases cleave the altered nucleoside (base and sugar) from the DNA backbone creating an apurinic or apyrimidinic site
e. in humans, a mechanism similar to E.coli is carried out where the protein XPA acts as the exonuclease.
Answer:
a. True, b. False, c.True, d. True
Explanation:
a. Base excision repair is started by a DNA glycosylase that recognizes the changes and removes the altered base by cleavage of the glycosidic bond binding the base and the deoxyribose sugar together.
b. Nucleotide excision repair works by a cut-and patch mechanism that removes their heavy lesions, including pyrimidine dimers and nucleotides . Endonucleases are responsible for the lesion of the damaged strand.
c. Nucleotide excision repair is initiated by the proteins namely UvrA, UvrC, and UvrB in Escherichia coli.
-UvrD (helicase II) later removes the damaged strand
-DNA polymerase I (PolI) fills in the resulting gap.
d. DNA glycolases removes the damaged nitrogenous base.
-It leaves the sugar-phosphate backbone intact and thus creating an apurinic/apyrimidinic site, which is commonly referred to as an AP site.
e. Xeroderma pigmentosum complementation group A(XPA)
-This is an essential protein in the nucleotide excision repair pathway.
- It helps to make a pre-incision complex along with other proteins.
In which direction does RNA synthesis proceed?
a. left to right
b. 3' to 5'
c. top to bottom
d. 5' to 3'
Answer:
5' to 3'.
Explanation:
Transcription may be defined as the process of formation of RNA molecule from the template DNA with the help of enzymes and the various transcriptional factors.
The process of RNA synthesis occur in the 5' to 3' direction. The RNA polymerase reads in the 3' to 5' direction and leads to the synthesis in 5' to 3' direction. The transcription factors binds to the DNA promoter during RNA synthesis.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
Between glycolysis and the citric acid cycle (also known as
theKrebs cycle), there are two molecules of ATP and two molecule
ofGTP generated directly. Most of the energy derived from
theoxidation of glucose comes from the oxidation of
FADH2generated from the citric acid cycle.
NADPH generatedfrom the citric acid cycle.
NADH generatedfrom the citric acid cycle.
NADH generatedfrom glycolysis.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-NADH generated from the citric acid cycle.
Explanation:
During cellular respiration, few ATP molecules are synthesized by substrate-level phosphorylation in glycolysis and citric acid cycle.
The process also produces high energy equivalents which are NADH and FADH₂ during the citric acid cycle. Two pyruvate molecules generate 6 NADH and FADH₂ molecules. These molecules release electron and hydrogen during the electron transport chain which is utilized to generate the ATP.
Each NADH produces 3 ATP molecule whereas FADH₂ molecule produces 2 ATP molecules. Since 6 NADH (6x3=18 ATP) produced and 2 FADH₂ (2x2).
Thus, NADH provides the highest amount of ATP molecules.
Cocaine acts in the nervous system by blocking
a. the dopamine transporter.
b. the serotonin transporter.
c. the norepinephrine transporter.
d. voltage-gated sodium channels in axons.
e. All of the above
Answer:
The correct option is: e. All of the above
Explanation:
Cocaine is a habit-forming illegal recreational drug and a very strong nervous system stimulant. The effects of this drug include euphoria, hallucinations, paranoid delusions, increased heart rate, large pupils, perspiration, itching and high body temperature.
Cocaine acts on the nervous systems of the human beings by blocking the reuptake of dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine neurotransmitters in the brain.
It also interferes with the action potential propagation by blocking the voltage-gated sodium channels.
Which of the following tools of DNA technology is incorrectly paired with its use?
a. electrophoresis—separation of DNA fragments
b. DNA ligase—cutting DNA, creating sticky ends of restriction fragments
c. DNA polymerase—polymerase chain reaction to amplify sections of DNA
d. reverse transcriptase—production of cDNA from mRNA
The one that is incorrectly paired is DNA ligase—cutting DNA, creating sticky ends of restriction fragments. The correct option is B.
What is DNA ligase?DNA ligase is a ligase enzyme that facilitates the joining of DNA strands by catalyzing the formation of a phosphodiester bond.
It aids living life forms repair single-strand cuts in duplex DNA, but some forms may specifically repair double-strand breaks.
By connecting cuts in the phosphodiester backbone of DNA that occur during replication and recombination, as well as as a result of DNA damage and repair, DNA ligases play an important role in maintaining genomic integrity.
Electrophoresis is used to separate DNA fragments, DNA polymerase is used to amplify sections of DNA, and reverse transcriptase is used to produce cDNA from mRNA.
Thus, the correct option is B.
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Which DNA segment is not required specifically for an expression vector (for use in E. coli)?
a. origin of replication
b. operator
c. ribosome binding site
d. promoter
e. transcription termination sequence
Answer:
b. operator
Explanation:
An expression vector is usually a plasmid or a virus designed for gene expression in cells, it's designed to act as an enhancer and promoter to efficient transcription of the gene that it carries, meaning it is used for protein production.
As any other vector expression vector may have an origin of replication, a selectable marker, and multiple cloning sites, it also needs elements that are necessary for gene expression, a promoter, a ribosomal binding site, and a start, terminal codon and a transcription termination sequence.
An operator contains the code to begin the process of transcribing the DNA message of one or more structural genes into mRNA, it works as a repressor to regulate the gene expression, since the function of an expression vector is the protein production an operator is not specifically required.
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Which position on the anticodon is the wobble position?
a. 5' end
b. 3' end
c. middle of the anticodon
d. 5' end or 3' end
e. any position can be the wobble position
Answer:
A. 5' end
Explanation:
Wobble base refers to the specific base of some tRNA anticodons that have the ability to pair with more than one kind of base in codon. There is a total of 61 codons for 20 amino acids but only 20 different tRNAs.
A wobble base allows a specific tRNA anticodon to recognize and pair with more than one mRNA codon. The 5' base of the anticodon (the third nucleotide in an anticodon) can form hydrogen bonds with more than one type of 3' base of mRNA codon.
For example, Inosinate present at the 5' end of anticodon can pair with as many as three different nucleotides (U, C, and A).
A fruit fly population has a gene with two alleles, A1 and A2. Tests show that 70% of the gametes produced in the population contain the A1 allele. If the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what proportion of the flies carry both A1 and A2?
a. 0.7 b. 0.49 c. 0.42 d. 0.21
Answer:
Option C
Explanation:
Given ,
A1 allele is carried by [tex]70[/tex] % people
Let us assume A1 s dominant genotype
This means [tex]p= \frac{70}{100} = 0.7[/tex]
Thus, frequency of allele in the given population is [tex]0.7[/tex]
It is also given that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium thus
[tex]p+q=1\\0.7+q=1\\q = 1-0.7\\q= 0.3[/tex]
Frequency of fruit fly with genotype A2A2 will be
[tex]q^2\\= (0.3)^2\\= 0.09[/tex]
As per Hardy-Weinberg's second equation of equilibrium
[tex]p^{2} + q^{2} + 2pq = 1\\0.49+0.09+2pq = 1\\2pq = 1-0.49-0.09\\2pq= 0.42[/tex]
Hence, option C is correct
From the bacteria's perspective, why is it helpful that it produce diarrhea in people?
A. Because it gets the bacteria out of the person and, likely, into the next one
B. It's not helpful really. That's just what that toxin causes.
C. Because that quickly kills the person
D. Because it makes the patient too unpleasant to be around
E. Because there is no real treatment for that
Answer:
A
Explanation:
The vast majority of bacteria that produce gastrointestinal symptoms are transmitted via fecal-oral transmission. This means that when sub-optimal hygiene is present, bacteria from the hands of the infected person that got there from contact with its own feces (after going to the bathroom, for example) is passed to the next person. This happens a lot in the food business, and it's the mode of transmission of the much famous Salmonella.
What fibers surround the xylem and phloem? Give their functions.
Answer:
The xylem fiber surround xylem and phloem fiber surround the phloem.
Explanation:
The fibers surround the xylem are xylem fibers. This is a complex plant tissue. These cells are the dead cells.
Some of the xylem fibers have cross walls and some don't have. The xylem fibers have a protoplast in it. These fibers have thick cell walls. The xylem fibers provide mechanical support to the plant.
The phloem is surrounded by phloem fibers. The phloem fibers are associated with sclerenchyma fibers. These have thick cell walls. They become dead at maturity.
These fibers also provide mechanical support to the plants and protect the phloem. Because phloem tissues have thin walls. The phloem fibers of jute, flax plants used for making ropes.
Bark fibers surround the xylem and phloem and provide structural support and protection to the plant. They are part of the scleraenchym cells and are primarily composed of cellulose, hemicellulose, and lignin.
Explanation:The fibers that surround the xylem and phloem are known as bark fibers. They essentially form a part of the peripheral bark of the tree and fall into the category of sclerenchyma cells, meaning they are hardened and thickened. These fibers, being composed primarily of cellulose, hemicellulose, and lignin, provide critical structural support to the plant. In addition to providing support, bark fibers also play a role in protecting the plant from physical damage and invasion by pathogens.
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Which of the following is a hydrophobic material?
a. paper c. wax
b. table salt d. sugar
Answer:
Wax.
Explanation:
Hydrophobic material may be defined as the material that contains the non polar molecule and hydrophobic interaction in their structure. The hydrophobic molecule are soluble in non polar solvents.
Wax is made of lipids. The lipids are non polar molecule and are hydrophobic in nature. Wax are made of large hydrocarbon part that are insoluble in water and can be easily soluble in non polar solvents.
Thus, the correct answer is option (c).
The term hydrophobic refers to substances that repel water. Out of the mentioned options, wax best fits this description as it doesn't mix with water. Paper, table salt, and sugar dissolve in or absorb water and are thus hydrophilic, or attracted to water.
Explanation:In the context of the question, which asks for the material that is hydrophobic, the correct answer is c. wax. Hydrophobic substances are those that don't mix with or repel water. For instance, wax is a hydrophobic substance you commonly encounter. When you pour water on wax, it simply rolls off or forms beads and doesn't mix, this is due to its hydrophobic characteristic. Materials like table salt, paper, and sugar, are all hydrophilic, they tend to dissolve in and interact with water.
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What gives DNA its acid property?
a. the parts that make up the steps
b. the sugar
c. the part that alternates with sugars in a strand
d. the hydroxyl group attached to the 4' carbon
e. the covalent bonds that connect the steps to the strands
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-C.
Explanation:
Each DNA molecule exists in helical shape made by two strands of nucleotides. Each nucleotide is composed of a five-carbon sugar, a phosphate group and nitrogenous bases.
The sugar-phosphate unit bond via the phospho-diester bond and form the backbone of the DNA. The phosphate functional group is acidic in nature as it donates the proton while the formation of the phosphodiester bond which provides DNA with the acidic nature.
Thus, Option-C is the correct answer.
Match the function or location to the correct connective tissue. Allows the growth of long bones Intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis External ear, epiglottis, and auditory tubes Outer portion of all bones Inside skull bones, vertebrae, and sternum Transports oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other substances Produces new blood cells and stores lipids Capable of strength with stretching and recoil in several directions Tensile strength capable of withstanding stretch in all directions Vocal folds and ligaments between vertebrae Tendons and ligaments Provides superstructure for lymphatic tissues Energy storage Epithelial basement membrane sits on this Precursor to adult connective tissues Umbilical cord of the newborn
1. Allows the growth of long bones - Periosteum
2. Intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis - Fibrocartilage
3. External ear, epiglottis, and auditory tubes - Elastic cartilage
4. Outer portion of all bones - Dense (compact) bone
5. Inside skull bones, vertebrae, and sternum - Spongy (cancellous) bone
6. Transports oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other substances - Blood
7. Produces new blood cells and stores lipids - Bone marrow
8. Capable of strength with stretching and recoil in several directions - Elastic connective tissue
9. Tensile strength capable of withstanding stretch in all directions - Areolar (loose) connective tissue
10. Vocal folds and ligaments between vertebrae - Dense (regular) connective tissue
11. Tendons and ligaments - Dense (regular) connective tissue
12. Provides superstructure for lymphatic tissues - Reticular connective tissue
13. Energy storage - Adipose tissue
14. Epithelial basement membrane sits on this - Areolar (loose) connective tissue
15. Precursor to adult connective tissues - Mesenchyme
16. Umbilical cord of the newborn - Wharton's jelly
Here's the matching of functions or locations to the correct connective tissues:
1. **Allows the growth of long bones:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Hyaline Cartilage**
2. **Intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Fibrocartilage**
3. **External ear, epiglottis, and auditory tubes:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Elastic Cartilage**
4. **Outer portion of all bones:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Periosteum**
5. **Inside skull bones, vertebrae, and sternum:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Endosteum**
6. **Transports oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other substances:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Blood (Connective Tissue Proper)**
7. **Produces new blood cells and stores lipids:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Bone Marrow**
8. **Capable of strength with stretching and recoil in several directions:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Elastic Connective Tissue**
9. **Tensile strength capable of withstanding stretch in all directions:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Collagenous (Dense) Connective Tissue**
10. **Vocal folds and ligaments between vertebrae:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Elastic Ligaments**
11. **Tendons and ligaments:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Dense Regular Connective Tissue**
12. **Provides superstructure for lymphatic tissues:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Reticular Connective Tissue**
13. **Energy storage:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Adipose Tissue**
14. **Epithelial basement membrane sits on this:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Basement Membrane (a form of Areolar Connective Tissue)**
15. **Precursor to adult connective tissues:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Mesenchyme**
16. **Umbilical cord of the newborn:**
- *Connective Tissue:* **Wharton's Jelly**
Each of these connective tissues serves specific functions or is located in particular areas of the body to support and maintain the structure and function of various organs and tissues.
How does complement connect the innate and adaptive immune responses?
Answer:
Innate immunity: first line of defense against infectious agents; Most pathogens can be controlled before a declared infection occurs.
Adaptive immunity: takes action when innate immunity fails. Make a specific response for each infectious agent and keep memory of it (it can prevent reinfection).
Explanation:
The immune system has evolved to be able to identify the strangers and develop a protective response to the latter (cognitive and destructive processes).
Innate or natural immunity: it is present at birth, being the first line against invasive microorganisms. Its characteristics are: it is present for life, it is not specific, it lacks memory and does not change intensity with exposure. It is useful against pyogenic microorganisms, fungi and multicellular parasites and includes three components: 1) physicochemical: skin, mucous membranes, secretions and cilia, which perform a washing and continuous cleaning, 2) humoral: complement, lectin binding to mannan and opsonins additional as C-reactive protein and proteolytic enzymes and 3) cellular: neutrophils, eosinophils, mast cells and natural killer lymphocytes.
Complement: it includes a high number of serum proteins that are produced mainly in the liver, form cascades so that each activated component catalyzes the activation of several molecules of the next component, amplifying the response. The consequences are cell lysis, the production of proinflammatory mediators and the solubilization of antigen-antibody complexes. Activation of the complement system occurs through three different pathways (alternating, classical and mannan-binding lectin) that converge in the final common pathway that provides most of the biological activity.
Cellular mechanisms: Neutrophils participate in the destruction of bacteria and fungi. Upon activation, adhesion molecules facilitate their entry into tissues, moving to chemical attractants and phagocytizing microorganisms. Destruction is mediated by oxygen dependent and independent pathways.
acquired immunity: acquired as part of development, increases with age and with repeated exposures, has specificity and memory for what is called adaptive. Its components are antibodies and cells (lymphocytes) and protects against bacteria (including those that produce intracellular infections), viruses and protozoa. In general, innate and acquired immune responses are not activated independently but complement each other.
Antigen-Antibodies: Antigens are structures that generate an anti-response from the immune system that has 3 elements of union and recognition of these;
1) antibodies that are soluble glycoproteins belonging to the group of immunoglobulins produced by B lymphocytes and plasma cells,
2) T-cell receptors that are large glycoproteins that interact with the peptide epitope preserved and presented by the third element
3) which are the major histocompatibility complex (CMH) molecules.
Antibodies perform many functions and have numerous uses as biological and clinical instruments
How many different proteins composed of 100 amino acids could possibly exist?
The number of possible proteins in humans is twenty.
The number of amino acids you can use it's called n, and the number of possible proteins then will be P=20^n.
In this case, you have 100 amino acids if you replace the n in the equation P=20^100 possible proteins.
During the light dependent reaction, the hydrogen ions go down their concentration from __________ producing ATP in the process.
a. The stroma into the thylakoid lumen
b. The thylakoid lumen into the stroma
c. Across the inner membrane into the stroma
d. The stroma across the inner membrane
Answer:
b. The thylakoid lumen into the stroma
Explanation:
During light reaction of photosynthesis, when electrons which have high energy travel across electron transport chain some energy is released by them. This energy causes some H+ from stroma to move into thylakoid lumen. Due to this, H+ concentration becomes more in lumen as compared to stroma. Soon after that because of concentration gradient, these H+ then start moving from high concentration to low concentration i.e. from thylakoid lumen to stroma. There are some reverse pumps i.e. ATP synthase located in the thylakoid membrane which are responsible for generating energy in the form of ATP from the movement of H+. From the movement of 3 H+ , 1 ATP is generated.
Compare the chemical structures of DNA and proteins.
Answer:
DNA:
Dexoyribonucleic acid is present as a genetic material in all organism except some virus. DNA is made up of polymers of nucleotides. They are made up of nitrogenous base (adenine, guanine, thymine and cytosine) , deoxyribose pentose sugar and phosphate group. The nitrogenous bases are linked with each other with hydrogen bonds and nucleotides are linked together with phosphodiester bond.
Protein:
Proteins are the main building block of the body. Proteins are made of the polymers of amino acids. The amino acid consist of amine group, carboxylic group, hydrogen and R group attached with the carbon. The amino acids are linked together through the peptide bond.
A woman, Penelope, has a sister with polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD), which is inherited in an autosomal recessive mode. Penelope does not have the disease, and both of her parents do not have ARPKD. Penelope marries a man from Europe who does not have ARPKD. There is no information about whether this disease runs in his family, but 96% of the population does not have ARPKD (assume the disease is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium).
What is the probability that they will have a child with ARPKD?
A) 0.25
B) 0.15
C) 0.05
D) 0.04
E) there is not enough information to answer this question
Answer:
D) 0.04
Explanation:
Assuming that a is the recessive allele when homozygous that causes the polycystic kidney disease and A is the dominant one:
Since Penelope's sisters has the disease, she must be homozygous recessive (aa). Her parents must both be Aa (otherwise her sister wouldn't have inherit the disease). So, the probability of Penelope of being heterozygous (Aa) is 0.5.
On the other hand, the probability of having the disease in the population is 0.04 (1 minus the probability of not having the disease which is 0.96). This, according the Hardy–Weinberg principle, in the population would represent the genotype frequency [tex]q^{2}[/tex]. So, the allele a would have a frequency [tex]\sqrt{q}[/tex] = [tex]\sqrt{0.04}[/tex] = 0.2. Since the gene has only two alleles, all alleles must be either A or a , therefore p + q = 1. So, the A population's frequency is p = 1 - q = 1 - 0.2 = 0.8.
The European man's probability of being Aa (doesn't have the disease but can carry the disease allele) is 2pq = 2 x 0.8 x 0.2 = 0.32.
The probability of Penelope and the European man of having an ill kid (assuming they both are Aa) is 0.25.
Finally, given the Penelope's probability of being Aa (0.5), the European man's 's probability of being Aa (0.32) and the probability of having a kid homozygous recessive aa (0.25) = 0.5 x 0.32 x 0.25 = 0.4 is the probability that they will have a child with ARPKD.
If an enzyme in solution is saturated with substrate, the most effective way to obtain a faster yield of products is to
a. add more of the enzyme.
b. heat the solution to 90°C.
c. add more substrate.
d. add a noncompetitive inhibitor.
Answer:
a. add more of the enzyme.
Explanation:
Enzymes speed up the rate of reaction by lowering the activation energy for the reaction. They are not used themselves in the reaction. They are specific to substrate molecule. Substrate molecule binds to enzyme's active site and they undergo the reaction to form the product and release back the enzyme.
Rate of reaction depends on both substrate and enzyme concentration. Maximum rate of reaction is reached when all the active sites of enzyme molecules have been occupied by the substrate molecules which means that they are saturated. If more substrate is added at this point it wont have any effect on rate of reaction since there are no free active sites. Hence more enzyme is required to be added so that extra substrate can be utilized and rate of reaction can further be increased.
Cellular Respiration (there is more than one correct answer)
a. produces oxygen
b. uses carbon dioxide
c. uses glucose
d. produces carbon dioxide
Answer: Uses glucose ;produces carbon dioxide
Explanation:
Cellular respiration can be defined as the process by which the chemical energy in the body is transferred into ATP and some of it is released in the form of heat.
During this process the glucose that is broken down and the energy released is converted into ATP.
Carbon dioxide is released as a by-product of this process.
Hence, the correct answer is option C and D
Which of the following is true of spermatogenesis?
a. occurs before puberty
b. involves the differentiation of spermatids leading to the formation of mature spermatozoa
c. the process of spermatozoa production
d. results in the production of primary spermatocytes
e. involves the production and secretion of testosterone
Answer:
The correct answer is c. the process of spermatozoa production
Explanation:
Spermatogenesis is the process of formation of sperms in the seminiferous tubules present in the testes. The process of spermatogenesis starts when germ cells present in the seminiferous tubule starts dividing mitotically.
Some of these cells become primary spermatocytes after mitosis and enters meiosis I. After completion of meiosis I they become secondary spermatocytes.
Each secondary spermatocytes converts into two haploid spermatids after completion of meiosis II. Spermatids then differentiate into mature sperms called spermatozoa.
Thus, the correct answer is c. the process of spermatozoa production