Answer:
The answer to the question: Another name for urinary tract infection is:___, would be: cystitis.
Explanation:
Urinary tract infections (UTIs), are also known as cystitis. These infections are most commonly caused by colonization of the urinary tract by bacteria from the GI tract due to wrong hygiene procedures, certain sexual activities, among other reasons, and sometimes, they can be repetitive and very difficult to treat. Cystitis, or unrinary tract infections are most common in women, given the closeness to the anus, and also, because of the use of tight clothing, and certain pads that enhance heat, humidity and also access from the anus to the urethra. Once the bacteria are inside the urethra, they ascend, invade and colonize mostly the urethra and bladder, and thus cause this form of infection. A more complicated form is a renal infection, in which, the bacteria that originally colonized the lower urinary tract, ascend so far as to reach the kidneys themselves.
To stop arterial bleeding, pressure must be applied between the damaged artery and the heart.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option A. True
Explanation:
Arterial bleeding is a blood flow in an artery in which blood exits the wound in spurts with the heartbeat.
To stop arterial bleeding, direct pressure is applied between the damaged artery and the heart.
Placing the pressure on the wound helps in narrowing the blood vessels manually that results to stem blood flow and stops arterial bleeding.
There are several primary tools used for direct pressure including pressure bandages, commercial tourniquets, and hemostatic dressings.
Hence, the given statement is true.
The correct answer is True.
Explanation
In the case of arterial bleeding, it is important to provide first aid to prevent the person from bleeding to death.
The procedure that we can perform while the help arrives is to forcefully exert pressure on the wound and try to raise it above the height of the heart (if it is an upper limb). However, when we see that this procedure does not have any effect and the blood continues to flow, we must put pressure in the middle area between the artery or wound and the heart, in this way bleeding should stop due to the force applied to the artery. So, the correct answer is True.
Generally speaking, power exercises should be performed before strength exercises.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The best answer to the question: Generally speaking, power exercises should be performed before strength exercises, would be, A: true.
Explanation:
In terms of general training, the idea is always go from broader to specific. In that sense, power exercises will allow the body to start mobilizing large groups of muscles, and not focus on only one region, or one specific muscle. According to all the research on proper training, and the correct order in which these two types of exercises: power training and strength training, should be, it says that power training comes first, because power training allows for large groups of muscles to mobilize and thus will maximize the capabilities of the muscles. Then, strength exercises will be initiated to work on specific muscles, or much smaller groups of muscles. This is why the answer is A.
when does the tricuspid valve open?
Answer:As the right ventricle contracts, the tricuspid valve closes and the pulmonary valve opens. The closure of the tricuspid valve prevents blood from backing into the right atrium and the opening of the pulmonary valve allows the blood to flow into the pulmonary artery toward the lungs.
Explanation:
Visual perception is greatly dependent on experience.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
TRUE
Explanation:
Visual perception or vision is described as the ability of the brain of an individual to elucidate or interpret the light reflected from the objects in the surrounding environment.
According to the German physician and physicist, Hermann von Helmholtz, the vision or the visual perception is the result of the ability of an individual to make conclusions and assumptions from the incomplete insufficient information which is based upon past experiences.
Oral communications class
The difference between a thesis statement and the general
purpose of the speech is....
A. The thesis statement identifies the main idea of the speech
where the general purpose statement explains you want to achieve
with the speech.
B. The general purpose statement offers your opinion of the
speech, the thesis statement provides the facts.
C. The thesis statement is longer and more detailed than the
general purpose statement.
D. The thesis statement and the general purpose statement are
the same thing.
Answer: A. The thesis statement identifies the main idea of the speech where the general purpose statement explains you want to achieve with the speech.
Explanation:
The general purpose of the speed includes the statement(s) which is a declarative sentence. It gives the introduction of the topic of the interest. It gives a brief understanding about the topic to the audience. The thesis statement is the main notion and objective of the topic and it is basically the entire conclusion of the topic.
Final answer:
The thesis statement identifies the main idea of the speech, stating the topic, angle, and aspects covered, while the general purpose statement outlines the overall objective of the speech, such as to inform or persuade the audience. So the correct option is A.
Explanation:
The difference between a thesis statement and the general purpose of a speech lies in the objectives within a presentation. Option A is the accurate answer. The thesis statement identifies the main idea or the central claim of the speech, often summarizing the speaker's position and the key points that will be addressed throughout. It typically appears at the end of the introduction and precisely states the topic, angle, and the aspects of the topic that will be covered. Conversely, the general purpose statement delineates the speaker's overall objective with the speech, such as to inform, persuade, entertain, or inspire the audience. This statement helps to guide the speaker in keeping the audience at the center of the presentation, establishing a central theme, and setting a realistic goal for the speech's intent, but it is not usually shared verbatim with the audience.
It’s important to note that while the thesis statement provides a clear focus for the speech, the general purpose statement is more about the speaker's intention and the effect they hope to have on the audience. Therefore, although both are crucial for planning and delivering an effective speech, they serve different functions in the preparation and execution of the presentation.
Organization, metabolism, responsiveness, movement, development, growth and reproduction all together are called __________ of a human body.
This i weird to me because I know of these things to be summarized to be called the definitive of human life, not as a single word but that wouldn't fit in your sentence there so I don't know what it could possibly be? Comment if you could give me a little bit more of information about this. Hope u figure it out ^^.
ANSWER:
Organization, responsiveness, metabolism, movement, reproduction development and growth all together are called life processes of a human body.
EXPLANATION:
These life processes are the basic functions that the human body needs to carry out to survive. All these functions are interdependent and unique. Metabolism for instance is a process that provides energy to the body to do its work. Movement for instance can refer to the 'movement of substances' in the body; blood movement in the body is essential to provide oxygen to all parts of the body.What are the tiny functioning units found within the cytoplasm called?
A. Organisms
B. Organ systems
C. Organelles
D. Organs
Answer:
C. Organelles
Explanation:
A cell is the structural and functional unit of all the living organisms. Every eukaryotic cell contains the tiny units located in the cytoplasm of a cell is called organelles. Examples of organelles are the nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplast, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus.
These organelles are bounded by a unit membrane, they perform a specific function for the cell.
For example, the nucleus controls the activities of the cell, mitochondria works as a powerhouse of the cell, chloroplast present in green plants that performs the function of photosynthesis.
Boyle's law states that gas volume is
A) directly proportional to pressure.
B) inversely proportional to pressure.
C) inversely proportional to temperature.
D) directly proportional to temperature.
E) both A and B
Answer:
The correct answer is option 'b': inversely proportional to pressure.
Explanation:
According to Boyle's Law we have
For a gas at an constant temperature Pressure of the gas varies inversely with the volume occupied by the gas.
Mathematically we can state that
At constant temperature
[tex]Pressure\alpha \frac{1}{Volume}[/tex]
Thus from the given options, option 'b' is correct
Boyle's Law, a fundamental concept in chemistry, states that the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure assuming constant temperature and gas quantity. Therefore, the correct answer is option B.
In the study of gases, Boyle's Law is a fundamental notion that defines the relationship between the pressure and volume of a gas. This law states that the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure, provided the temperature and quantity of gas remain constant. Hence, option B is the correct choice. It implies that when the pressure of gas goes up, its volume goes down and vice versa. For instance, if you try to compress a gas into a smaller space, you increase its pressure.
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Which o the following statements is not true about the respiratory mucosa?
a. The cilia can "taste" bitter toxins in the air.
b. The cilia respond to toxins by moving more rapidly to remove the toxin.
c. The longer a cilia is exposed to a toxin, the more effectively it moves to expel it.
d. All of the above statements are true about the respiratory mucosa.
Answer:
The correct answer is option C.
Explanation:
Cilia are tiny hair-like projections or appendages on the surface of the outside of the cells, in respiratory tract cells not move on which cilia are present, however, these projections are helpful in moving debris like microorganisms like bacteria, dust, and toxins out of the lungs.
Cilia can sense bitter toxins or substances in the air and remove or expel it, these present on the epithelial cells in the human airway that taste bitter compounds remove it. Cilia moving more rapid in turn of toxin response. The exposure time has no effective role in expelling the toxin by cilia.
Thus, the correct answer is option C.
Answer:
The longer a cilia is exposed to a toxin, the more effectively it moves to expel it.
Explanation:
The longer a cilia is exposed to a toxin, the more effectively it moves to expel it.
Stains formed outside the tooth structure and are removable by a prophy.
Answer:
The correct term is - extrinsic stain.
Explanation:
Extrinsic stains are normally present on the surface of a tooth and occur due to taking pigmented beverages such as coffee, tea, carbonated drinks, caramel coloring, and foods. Smoking cigarettes is also one of the reasons that can cause an extrinsic stain.
This can be removed by dentists or professionals like hygienists. The stain particles act on the outer surface of the teeth and pigmented them which cause stain yellowish or brownish in individuals.
Thus, the correct answer is - extrinsic stain.
The popliteal pulse point is found on the anterior surface of the elbow.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The correct answer choice for the question: The popliteal pulse point is found on the anterior surface of the elbow, would be, A: true.
Explanation:
The popliteal pulse is the passage point of the brachial artery and it is in fact always found on the anterior surface of the elbow, medial to the tendons of the biceps. This major artery, the brachial artery, is the main vessel for the upper arms and it comes out of the axillary artery. As it tranverses down the upper arms, it reaches the cubital fossa of the elbow, where it divides into the radial and the ulnar arteries. When measuring blood pressure, it is usually this artery that is sought out and its sounds can be heard with a sthetoscope, and when using a sphygmomanometer, or blood presure cuff.
Each of the following statements concerning the hormone atrial natriuretic peptide are true, except one, identify the exception
A. Atrial natriuretic peptide is produced by cells in the heart.
B. Atrial natriuretic peptide promotes sodium loss at the kidneys
C. Atrial natriuretic peptide reduces the sensation of thirst
D. Atrial natriuretic peptide suppresses ADH secretion.
E. Atrial natriuretic peptide increases aldosterone secretion.
Answer:
The correct answer is E.
Explanation:
The main function of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is to reduce extracellular fluid volume by increasing renal sodium excretion.
Aldosterone is a steroid hormone, produced by the adrenal cortex, that is part of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system which helps to maintain blood pressure. Aldosterone increases reabsorption of sodium and potassium excretion, and as a result an increase in extracellular fluid volume and in blood pressure.
In conclusion, ANP reduces aldosterone secretion.
All provided statements about the hormone atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) are true except for the one claiming it increases aldosterone secretion. In reality, ANP inhibits aldosterone secretion.
Explanation:The hormone atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) has several important functions related to fluid and electrolyte balance. ANP is indeed produced by cells in the heart (A) and promotes sodium loss in the kidneys (B), which can help to lower blood volume and pressure. ANP also reduces the sensation of thirst (C) and acts to suppress secretion of the antidiuretic hormone ADH (D). These effects all work together to reduce fluid and sodium retention. However, the statement that atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) increases aldosterone secretion (E) is not correct. In fact, ANP inhibits aldosterone secretion. Aldosterone is another hormone that promotes sodium and fluid retention, so ANP works against it to reduce these effects.
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The smallest branches of the bronchial tree are:
a. primary bronchi.
b. secondary bronchi.
c. tertiary bronchi.
d. bronchioles.
Answer:
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
The trachea divides into 2 main primary bronchi (left and right bronchus). Then the right bronchus divides into 3 secondary bronchi (or lobar bronchi) and the left bronchus does it into 2 secondary bronchi.
All of the secondary bronchi divide into tertiary bronchi, also called segmental bronchi.
After that, the tertiary bronchi continue division to several branches until they become bronchioles (the smallest branches of the bronchial tree).
The bronchioles divide into terminal bronchioles, then respiratory bronchioles, then alveolar ducts and finally alveolar sacs, where gas exchange occurs.
The smallest branches of the bronchial tree are the bronchioles. These are less than 1 millimeter in diameter and lead to small air sacs (alveoli) where gas exchange occurs.
Explanation:The smallest branches of the bronchial tree are the bronchioles. The bronchial tree is a branching system of air passages that start from the trachea, branching into two primary bronchi, each leading to a lung. These primary bronchi further divide into secondary and tertiary bronchi, each getting smaller and reaching further into the lungs. The smallest of the branches, the bronchioles, are only about 1 millimeter or less in diameter and lead to small air sacs called alveoli where gas exchange takes place.
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Part of the tooth visible in the oral cavity.
Answer:
The correct answer is clinical crown.
Explanation:
In supplementation to possessing very unique activities, each tooth exhibits a particular location and comprises specific configurations that help in its activity. All teeth, having distinct shapes, exhibits similar anatomical parts. Each tooth exhibit a clinical crown, that is, the part of the teeth visible in the oral cavity.
The other parts are the anatomic crown and root. The tooth is connected with the below present alveolar bone with the help of fibers called periodontal ligaments. Each tooth comprises the same four constituents, that is, dentin, enamel, pulp, and cementum.
Which of the following is true of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx?
a. Their origin is the hyoid bone.
b. They move the larynx as a whole.
c. They serve in voice production.
d. Both A and B are correct.
Answer:
The correct option is: c. They serve in voice production
Explanation:
Larynx is the organ responsible for protecting the trachea, sound production, manipulating the volume and the pitch, and is also involved in breathing.
The two types of muscles present in the larynx are the intrinsic muscles and extrinsic muscles.
The intrinsic muscles are further divided into: Phonatory muscles and Respiratory muscles. The respiratory muscles assist in breathing by moving apart the vocal cords and the phonatory muscles are responsible for producing sound by moving the vocal cords together.
The intrinsic muscles of the larynx serve in voice production by controlling the tension and position of the vocal cords, thereby not primarily moving the larynx as a whole or originating from the hyoid bone.
Explanation:The intrinsic muscles of the larynx are vital for various functions of the larynx, which includes swallowing, breathing, and most importantly voice production. Option c is the correct answer as the main function of intrinsic muscles is to control the tension and position of the vocal cords, playing a crucial role in voice production. Therefore, they do not primarily move the larynx as a whole or originate from the hyoid bone.
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What impact would low blood pressure have on kidneys? What symptoms might you expect with a decrease in kidney functions?
Answer:
Continuous low pressure can affect the kidneys and other vital parts of the body. It can cause kidney failure and other diseases related to the kidney.
Strokes are one of the most common factor for the low blood pressure. This is so because there is an inadequate blood supply to the organs of the body.
This is because the flow rate is not enough to reach the organs. The decrease in the kidney failure is related to difficulty in urination, swelling in the feet and legs.
These are some common symptoms of kidney dysfunction.
The skeleton of the heart
a. helps to support the coronary arteries
b. anchors cardiac msucle fibers
c. contains osseous tissue
d. prevents the backflow of blood in the heart
e. stimulates the myocardium
Answer: b. anchors cardiac muscle fibers
Explanation:
The skeleton of the heart functions to anchor the cardiac muscle fibers of the heart, which anchors the valves of the heart and four chambers of heart. It forms a high density single unit of the connective tissue. It anchors the valves and four chambers to control and maintain the blood pressure of the free flowing blood through the heart.
The funnel-shaped end of the uterine tube is called the ____________.
Answer:
infundibulum
Explanation:
The most distal portion of the uterine tube is the Infundibulum, which can be compared to a funnel whose mouth has a very uneven rim that looks like fringes. These fringes are named tuba fimbriae, one of which stands out for being longer, called ovarian fimbria. The infundibulum opens freely in the peritoneum cavity through a foramen known as the uterine tube abdominal ostium.
Commonly the infundibulum fits over the ovary, and the fimbriae could be roughly compared to the fingers of one hand holding an orange over it.
The pelvic splanchnic nerves supply
a. parasympathetic stimulation to smooth muscle in the urinary bladder and reproductive organs.
b. sympathetic stimulation to smooth muscle in the urinary bladder and reproductive organs.
c. sympathetic preganglionic fibers to the renal plexus.
d. sympathetic stimulation to the kidney
e. parasympathetic stimulation to the liver and pancreas.
Answer:
a. parasympathetic stimulation to smooth muscle in the urinary bladder and reproductive organs.
Explanation:
Pelvic Splancnic nerves are referred to as Nervi erigentes and are meant to provide the parasympathetic innervation to the hindgut . They arise from the anterior rami of the sarcal nerves S2, S3, S4. Pathway is such that they innervate the pelvic and genital organs. ( therefore plays role in bladder emptying and erection of sexual organs) The parasympathtic nervous system is also called as the craniosarcal out flow , such that the pelvic splanchnic nerves are the sarcal component .
Immunizations are less effective in malnourished children because immunizations are actually more effective because of the small body size. their blood circulation is too slow. their immune systems are compromised. their body tissues are growing too slowly.
Answer:
Immune systems of malnourished children are compromised.
Explanation:
Immunizations in malnourished kids are less powerful on the grounds that their immune system is frail and can not react ordinarily to the procedure of inoculation.
Administrating immunizations to such kids can't enact their immune systems on the grounds that frail response are acquired and are not ready to deliver sufficient antibodies against pathogens or antigens.
Malnourished children have less effective immunizations due to weakened immune systems caused by malnutrition, influencing the immune response to vaccines.
Explanation:Immunizations are less effective in malnourished children because their immune systems are compromised. Malnutrition, particularly inadequate protein intake, can lead to decreased activity of the complement system, malfunction of phagocytes, and reduced production of antibodies and cytokines. Conditions like undernutrition weaken children's immune responses, making them more prone to infections and reducing the effectiveness of immunizations.
What is the expected response of diastolic blood pressure (DBP) as workloads increase during a graded exercise test?
a. It will remain the same or decrease.
b. It will most likely increase.
Answer:
The expected response of diastolic blood pressure as workload increases during a graded exercise test b. it will most likely increase
Explanation:
The heart is a bomb which is encharged of pumping blood to every part in the body. When the body makes an extra effort like is seen in a graded exercise test, the heart needs to increase the pumping of blood and all of these is because there are many means of compensation to maintain an adequate and physiological requirements. Those means of compensation are increases of cardiac frequency and an increase in blood pressure. The increase of blood pressure is majorly seen in systolic pressure but also is seen a little increase in diastolic blood pressure.
A dumbbell lunge is an example of which of the following?
a. isotonic training
b. isokinetic training
c. dynamic constant external resistance training
d. plyometric training
Answer: c. dynamic constant external resistance training
Explanation:
The dumbbell lunge is a exercise which is done by a single leg. It increases the strength of the body. It improves the stability of the body and develops the speed of the lower body. It is done along with dumbells held on hands and lying down with lower knee down.
C. is the correct option this is because of the fact that it involves both lifting as well as concentric phase as well as in lowering or eccentric phase.
The space between the gingiva and the tooth that is not attached to the tooth is called?
a. alveolar bone
b. sulcus
c. periodontal ligament
d. gingival margin
Answer:
The correct option is: b. sulcus
Explanation:
Gingival sulcus refers to the shallow space present between the tooth and the gum tissue, called the gingival margin that surrounds the tooth.
The depth of the healthy gingival sulcus is about three millimeters and it is readily self-cleansable. The gingival sulcus is lined by the sulcular epithelium.
______________ in the urine is an early sign of nephropathy.
Answer:
protein
Explanation:
During glycolysis
A) four molecules of ATP are produced.
B) two molecules of ATP are consumed.
C) a molecule of glucose is converted into two molecules of pyruvic acid.
D) A and B only
E) A, B, and C
Answer:
The correct answer is option 'E': Options A,B,C all are correct.
Explanation:
The reaction of glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that involves the breakdown of glucose molecule into pyruvate ion and releasing energy is termed as glycolysis.
Glycolysis involves breakdown of 1 molecule of glucose in presence of 2 molecules of ATP into 2 molecules of pyruvate and 4 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of water.
Under resting conditions, the SA node fires at an intrinsic rhythmical rate of 80 to 85 beats per minute.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b. False
Explanation:
The SA node is a natural pacemaker. It consists of a cluster of cells that are situated to the walls of the right atrium of the heart. The electrical impulses produce at that place. It is also called as sinus node. The cells of the pacemaker posses their own intrinsic rhythm, so as to maintain the continuous pumping of the heart. In the rest, the SA node causes the heart to beat at a rate of 50-100 beats per minute. During activity the heart rate rises over 100 beats per minute.
Bile salts from the liver and gall bladder aid in the digestion of ________ by inducing _________.
a) starch, glycogenolysis
b) proteins, denaturation
c) carbohydrates, glycogenolysis
d) lipids, emulsification
Answer: Lipids; emulsification
Explanation:
The lipids(fats) digestion begins in the stomach with the help of gastric lipase and lingual lipase. The bile salts from the liver and gall bladder are poured in the small intestine where the lipid digestion takes place.
This is done by the help od the process known as Emulsification. It is a process in which large lipid globules are broken into several small lipids.
These small lipids are distributed in chyme. This is important for the digestion of lipids as lipase work on the small lipid molecules aggregated in chyme.
Answer:
The correct answer is option is 'd': lipids,emulsification
Explanation:
Bile salts are substances that are release from the liver and are stored in the gal bladder and they help in digestion by breaking down lipids and fats into simpler molecules for their easier digestion by a process known as emulsification. The bile salts are dark green to yellowish in color. The bile salts acts as surfactants that help in emulsifying the fats, thus helping in their digestion.
Stain formed inside the tooth structure from INSIDE sources.
Answer:
The answer to this question: Satins formed inside the tooth structure from INSIDE sources, would be: intrinsic staining.
Explanation:
When talking about tooth appearance and tooth health, people tend to see stains on teeth and wonder if the problem is a lack of hyginie from the person who has them, or if there might be a different reason. While indeed there are stains that are caused on the tooth due to bad nutritional habits, and bad hyginie, there are others, known as intrinsic staining, that happen due to causes that are beyond a person´s control. Intrinsic staining is defined as the stains that appear on the inside structure of a tooth, they are caused by problems in the formation of the tooth, and they cannot be removed by professionals, or by anything. It is almost like they are part of the tooth itself. Exposure to certain elements, such as antibiotics during teeth formation, can result in intrinsic staining.
This drug used for treating hypertension acts by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a vasoconstrictor.
a. beta adrenergic blocker
b. calcium channel blocker
c. ACEi
d. digitalis
Answer:
The correct answer is C
Explanation:
ACEi are a group of drugs that inhibit angiotensin converting enzyme. This enzyme is produced in the lung and converts angiotensin I into angiotensin II which is a potent vasoconstrictive peptide that helps to narrow the vessels and also stimulates aldosterone secretion. This mechanism normally helps to raise blood pressure.
Examples of ACEi are captopril, enalapril, lisinopril.
Part of the tooth covered with enamel.
Answer:
The answer to the question: The part of the tooth that is covered with enamel, would be: the crown of the tooth.
Explanation:
The human teeth are divided into two parts, a hardened one, which is the one we can see protruding from the gum line, and which is the one that we use to bite, pounce food and chew it before swallowing. This portion of the tooth is called the crown, it is the white, hardened, visible part, and it is covered with enamel to protect it from the mechanical and corrosive forces of both food, and saliva, as well as bacteria. The second portion of the tooth is known as the root, and it is the softer part that is protected and covered by the gums. The root anchors the tooth to the bone structures of the mandible and maxilla.
Answer:
The crown is the part of the tooth that is covered by enamel.
Explanation:
In the constitution of the tooth four distinct areas can be visualized: the enamel, the dentine, the cement and the pulp. The tooth has a part that comes out of the gums and another that is inside them. The visible outer part of the tooth that is covered by the enamel is called the crown. If it is broken or deteriorated for any reason, it does not have the possibility of self-reconstruction, so the dentist's intervention becomes essential.
Enamel coats the crown of the tooth and is quite hard, as it is the most mineralized tissue found anywhere in the human body. About 96% of its composition is mineralized material, while the remaining 4% is composed of water and organic materials. The thickness of the enamel, in turn, varies from the tip of the crown to the amelio-cementary junction. In the crown, the thickness is greater and decreases as you approach the gum.