Answer:
Retro Active Interference
Explanation:
This confusion of Rick's memory for his address for the previous one is attributed to Retro active interference.
The phenomena where recently learned memory of a person meddles with and blocks the review of previously learned data or memory is referred to as Retro active Interference.
This happens when the underlying demonstration of reviewing explicit data meddles with the recovery of the first data.
In a large flock of 6520 sheep, 53 of them have yellow fat while the rest of the flock members have white fat. Yellow fat is inherited as a recessive trait. Assuming the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, how many of the white fat sheep will have a homozygous dominant genotype?
Answer:
number of sheep with homozygous dominant white fat genotype = 5399
Explanation:
If p = frequency of dominant allele and q= frequency of recessive allele
According to Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium:
p + q =1 and p² + 2pq + q² = 1
where p² = frequency of homozygous dominant genotype
q²= frequency of homozygous recessive genotype
and 2pq= frequency of heterozygous genotype
Here,
q² = 53/6520= 0.0081
q = √0.0081 = 0.09
p = 1-q = 1-0.09= 0.91
So, p² = 0.91² = 0.8281
number of sheep with homozygous dominant white fat genotype= 0.8281*6520 = 5399
The passage addresses that NPY in conjunction with GnRH (but not by itself) can cause increased secretion of LH vs GnRH alone. Scientists are hopeful that NPY can be used in combination with GnRH to treat certain cases of female infertility. Individuals with a deficiency in what receptor system would be most likely to benefit from such a treatment?
A. GnRH
B. LH
C. NPY
D. LH and NPY
Answer:
The correct answer is option A, that is, GnRH.
Explanation:
The individuals with a deficiency in GnRH would be the most likely to get benefit from the treatment as NPY elevates the usual activity of GnRH in instigating the LH levels in the blood. Option B is incorrect, as NPY stimulates LH that then combines with the receptors, which are deficient. To some degree, the excess LH would have helped, however, not as much as if GnRH receptors are lacking.
Only if there is a deficiency of GnRH receptors, then the NPY would have helped the most as NPY would utilize a distinct receptor, and thus, normal levels of LH would get generated.
People with a deficiency in the GnRH receptor system would likely benefit from a treatment that uses NPY and GnRH to increase LH secretion. The GnRH receptor is vital for this treatment's efficacy.
Explanation:Individuals with a deficiency in the GnRH receptor system would most likely benefit from a treatment that uses NPY in combination with GnRH to increase the secretion of LH.
The GnRH receptor takes part in a cascade which eventually stimulates the release of LH. When NPY is used alongside GnRH, the two compounds can cause a greater secretion of LH than when GnRH is used alone.
This receptor system is therefore crucial for the efficacy of the proposed treatment.
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Repeating the pertinent parts of the secondary assessment while reassessing the patient primarily means: A. obtaining a complete history of the present illness with OPQRST. B. going through the full SAMPLE history again. C. focusing on questions relatinged to changes in symptoms and repeating the physical exam related to the patient's specific complaint or injuries. D. performing a rapid trauma assessment.
Answer:
The correct answer is option C.
Explanation:
The secondary assessment is done after the completion of the primary assessment. During this assessment, the clinician goes through head-to-toe and through step by step to determine what has happened.
This can comprise, and however, is not restricted to inspection, special tests, bony and soft tissue palpation, neurological, and circulation. Repeating the essential components of the secondary assessment while reevaluating the patient mainly signifies focusing on the queries associated with the modifications in the symptoms and repeating the physical exam associated with the particular injuries or complaints of the patient.
A population of deer has a per capita rate of increase of 0.1 deer per year. If there are initially 300 deer in the population, and the population is growing exponentially, how many deer will be in the population after 1 year?
a) 30
b) 300
c) 330
d) 600
Answer:
c) 330
Explanation:
Formula to calculate exponential growth is written as:
y = a( 1+r)ⁿ
a = initial quantity
r = growth rate as a decimal
n = number of time intervals
y = quantity after n time
As per the question given
a = 300
r = 0.1
n = 1 year
y = ?
Thus,
y = a( 1+r)ⁿ
300(1+0.1)¹
300 × 1.1 = 330
Therefore,
y = 330
If an oocyte is fertilized by an X-bearing sperm, the child will be born a ________ with the chromosomal pair of ___________.
a. female, XY
b. male, XY
c. male, XX
d. male, it depends on what genetic information the oocyte carries
e. female, XX
Answer:
e. female, XX
Explanation:
In humans, females are homogametic because they produce only one type of gametes. All the female gametes ( oocyte or ova) have X-sex chromosome. Whereas, human males are heterogametic. they produce two types of gametes. Half of the gametes (sperms) have X-sex chromosome and half of the gametes (sperms) have Y-sex chromosome.
Therefore, an oocyte or female gamete is fertilized by an X-bearing sperm, the child will be born a female with the chromosomal pair of XX. one X from the male and one X from the female.
are the beginning link in a food chain while
are at the end of the chain.
Answer:
heyooo!!
Producers are the beginning link in a food chain while decomposes are at the end of the chain
hope this helps!!
Explanation:
producers are what start any and every food chain, without the producers the primary consumers wouldn't be able eat.
decomposes are at the end of a chain because they eat what ever consumer dies off.
Answer:
producers are the beginning and decomposers are the end
Explanation:
Which statement concerning polygenic traits is not true?
a. The most frequently discussed are skin, hair, and eye color.
b. Their expression is often influenced by genetic/environmental interactions.
c. The alleles have an additive effect on the phenotype, intensifying the genes.
d. They are continuous traits.
e. They are governed by more than one genetic locus.
Answer:
The correct answer is: C) The alleles have an additive effect on the phenotype, intensifying the genes.
Explanation:
Polygenic traits (such as skin, hair and eye color) are those phenotypes that are influenced by more than one gene, meaning that the whole genetic information needed for these traits is located in multiple loci.
Aside from consisting of many alleles participating in the expression of some characteristics, polygenic inheritance differs greatly from the classical mendelian inheritance by also having continuous variation (which means that there aren't only two possible outcomes, but a whole spectrum) and a much more complex inheritance pattern.
Even when the genetic information for these traits plays an important role on the expression of these genes, the environment can be of great impact on these phenotypes (such as how the diet of an individual can affect greatly on a person's weight).
Polygenic traits are also of variable expressivity (people with the same genotype can express the characteristic with different intensities) and of incomplete penetrance (even when having the same genotype, some people may not actually develop the phenotype associated with it).
The alleles, however, don't always have an additive effect as they sometimes do the opposite job and suppress the alleles of other genes.
A "producer" in an ecosystem is:
A) the sun's energy
B) a plant
C) a herbivore
D) a carnivore
E) an omnivore
Answer:
B
Explanation:
It gives energy
Answer:
B) a plant
Explanation:
A producer is any green plant that traps the sun's rays and converts them to chemical energy.
Question 13
H3O+ units are also known as ____.
A)hydrogen ions
B)hydronium ions
C)hydroxide ions
D)hydroxyl groups
Answer:
B)hydronium
Explanation:
This chemical structure is formed when an acid is disolved into water, as the cation (H+), which comes from the acid, cannot exist as such isolated in water (H20), hence the proton (H+) will be hydrated by a water molecule (H2O)
The union between H+ and H2O is due to the pair of electrons from oxygen and positive charge from H+
Answer:
H3O+ units are also known as hydronium ions. Hence the answer is option B.
Explanation:
Hydronium ions is defined as ions that contains proteinated ions and it is present in all the aqua solutions. These ions are abundant in protons and they have less electrons in them. It is because they had donated electrons to their other forms which gives a positive sign to the ion.
Hydronium ion is produced when an Arrhenius acid is mixed with dihydrogen oxide. This iron is found in universe like in comets, interstellar things, etc.
The recessive alleles for yellow body (yb) and cut wings (cw) identify two autosomal genes on the second chromosome of Drosophila melanogaster. When females, heterozygous at these two genes (yb+yb cw+cw), were crossed with yellow-bodied, cut-winged males, the following classes and numbers of progeny (out of 1000) were obtained:
a. wild type body color, wild type wings 120
b. wild type body color, cut wings 360
c. yellow body color, cut wings 140
d. yellow body color, wild type wings 380
Answer:
Option D
Explanation:
Given -
recessive alleles for yellow body is (yb) and cut wings is (cw)
Genotype of female parent which is heterozygous at these two genes - yb+yb cw+cw
Genotype of male with yellow-bodied, cut-winged is (ybyb, cwcw)
Cross between
yb+yb cw+cw & ybyb cwcw will produce following offspring
Please see the attached file
Hence, option D is correct
As people become more concentrated in cities, some pressure on eco-systems in areas that are now less populated eases. Why do you think this is the case
Answer:
Which of the following models of the atom was supported by the gold foil experiment?
solid, dense sphere
plum pudding model
nuclear model
planetary model
Explanation:
The cheetah seems to be headed for extinction because, resulting from intensive inbreeding generations ago, the species has so little genetic variation that it is extremely vulnerable to environmental change. (A) because, resulting from intensive inbreeding generations ago, (B) because, as a result of intensive inbreeding generations ago, (C) because they inbred intensively generations ago so that (D) because there was intensive inbreeding generations ago and (E) as a result of their intensive inbreeding generations ago.
Answer: E) as a result of their intensive inbreeding generations ago.
Explanation: Cheetahs face difficulties in reproduction and are susceptible to viruses because they are genetically too similar. Mating between close relatives is the main reason for the threat of extinction that cheetahs face.
The cheetah is a unique felid, with its closest living relatives being the puma and jaguarundi of the Americas. This cat is notable for modifications in the species' paws, being one of the few felids with only semi-retractable claws.
Almost every facet of the cheetah's anatomy has evolved to maximise its success in the chase, the result of an evolutionary arms race with its prey. Due to this specialisation, however, the cheetah is poorly equipped to defend itself against other large predators, with speed being its main means of defence.
Mr. Stein builds a model of a molecule out of wooden beads and pegs. He uses the model to explain the shape of the molecule. Mr. Stein uses a model because
Explanation:
A model illustrates the shape of the molecule and the orientation, in space, of the atoms that make up the molecule. This visualization enables the students to understand how the position of the atoms (beads) in the molecule and the different types of bonds (pegs) that join them. The interaction of the atoms (beads) and the bonds (pegs) between them affect the geometric structure of the molecule. This subsequently increases understanding of the molecule’s stereochemical outcomes of reactions.
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Answer:the answer is B:the real molecule is too small to easily observe
Explanation:
what are fluid dynamics
Answer:In physics and engineering, fluid dynamics is a subdiscipline of fluid mechanics that describes the flow of fluids—liquids and gases. It has several subdisciplines, including aerodynamics (the study of air and other gases in motion) and hydrodynamics (the study of liquids in motion).
Explanation:
Final answer:
Fluid dynamics is a pivotal branch of physics that studies the behavior of liquids and gases in motion, providing critical insights for various fields such as engineering and medicine, with principles like viscosity and incompressibility playing significant roles.
Explanation:
What are Fluid Dynamics?
Fluid dynamics is the branch of physics that studies liquids and gases in motion. It encompasses various mathematical equations and principles, such as Bernoulli's equation, to predict and understand the behavior of fluids. This field is essential because it has vast applications in engineering, medicine, and environmental studies. In engineering, fluid dynamics is critical for designing aircraft, internal combustion engines, and even for pumping oil from great depths, as seen in the Gulf of Mexico. In the biological and medical fields, it helps us understand blood flow in the human body and how fluids move within different processes. The concept of viscosity, which relates to the internal friction of a fluid, and the assumption of incompressibility in some cases, where a fluid's density remains constant, are important aspects considered in fluid dynamics.
Key Applications of Fluid Dynamics
Design of aircraft and internal combustion enginesMedical applications, such as modeling blood flowUnderstanding flow mechanisms in chemical processing plantsIf the ATP-binding site of an enzyme is buried in the interior of the enzyme, in a hydrophobic environment, is the ionic interaction between enzyme and substrate stronger or weaker than that same interaction would be on the surface of the enzyme, exposed to water? Why?
Answer:
Stronger; a hydrophobic has lower dielectric constant. The lower the dielectric constant of the interior, the stronger the ionic interactions.
Explanation:
Ionic interactions are the electrostatic interactions between the oppositely charged ions. The strength of ionic interaction depends on the magnitude of the charges on the ions, the distance between the charged groups and the dielectric constant.
Here, the dielectric constant is the property of the medium in which the ionic interactions are taking place. Dielectric constant represents the number of dipoles present in the medium or solvent. A medium with higher dielectric constant would attract the oppositely charged ions towards its own dipole and would thereby, make the ionic interaction between the ions weaker.
Given that the ionic bonding between substrate and enzyme is taking place in the hydrophobic interior, ionic interactions would be stronger since the hydrophobic medium has a lower dielectric constant.
The lower number of the electric dipoles or their absence in the hydrophobic interior would not attract the oppositely charged groups of substrate and enzyme towards its own dipoles as the water with higher dielectric constant would have done. This would allow stronger ionic interaction between the substrate and the enzyme.
Unlike other biogeochemical cycles, the phosphorus cycle moves only through the lithosphere, biosphere, and the hydrosphere. It is the only biogeochemical cycle that does not involve a gaseous state, meaning the atmosphere is not necessary. There are several reservoirs for the phosphorus cycle, what is the largest reservoir for phosphorus?
Answer: sedimentary rock
Explanation:
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If you run as fast as you can, your muscles may begin to feel weak and have a burning sensation. Explain what is occuring in your muscle cells that accounts for this muscle fatigue.
A.) Inadequate supply of glucose to muscle cells leads to alcohol fermentation
B.) Excessive supply of oxygen to muscle cells leads to mitochondrial autolysis
C.) Excessive supply of ATP to muscle cells leads to hypertonic conditions
D.) Inadequate supply of oxygen to muscle cells leads to lactic acid fermentation
Answer: (edited) Actually it might be D
Explanation: ATP (adenosine triphosphate) makes food for your body, and we can only keep a small amount of ATP and glucose stored in our bodies at a time. When you run, your body is trying to create extra ATP. In order to do that, you need more oxygen intake, so you start breathing heavier and quicker.
the answer is D'
hope this helsp
Cardiac muscle cells (fibers) that do not contract but instead create and conduct the action potential throughout the heart are atrial fibers. autorhythmic fibers. ventricular fibers. contractile fibers.
Answer:
Autorhythmic FibersFibers
Explanation:
ThiThis was not a T/F question
Of the six kingdoms now recognized, A two are eukaryotes, and four are prokaryotes. B four are plants, and two are animals. C two are prokaryotes, and four are eukaryotes. D four are bacteria, and two are eukarya.
Answer:
C two are prokaryotes, and four are eukaryotes.
In four kingdom classification, two are prokaryotes and four are eukaryotes.
What is six kingdom classification?The six kingdom classification was proposed by Carl Woese. Kingdom Archaebacteria, Kingdom Eubacteria, Kingdom Protista, Kingdom Fungi, Kingdom Plantae, and Kingdom Animalia make up these six kingdoms.
Based on the sequencing of the 16s ribosomal RNA genes, Woese discovered that the six kingdoms naturally cluster into three major groupings. He referred to these groups as domains of life.
Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya are these domains. Additionally, he thought that these domains shared a common parent with Progenote.
Therefore, In four kingdom classification, two are prokaryotes and four are eukaryotes.
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Which task would be completed by an ecologist?
Options:
A.explore the medicinal uses of nectar
B.inoculate cattle against infection
C.survey and classify mollusk fossils
D.test the effect of cyanide on algae
The answer is option D "test the effect of cyanide on algae." Ecologist are researchers who study how organisms interact with their environment so in this case they are testing how algae reacts to cyanide. In another example they will be testing how a ape reacts to having a different fruit tree in their habitat. It wouldn't be option A, B, and C because you have to remember the job of a ecologist and the options are not jobs of one.
Hope this helps.
Decide whether each of the following statements regarding photosynthesis and respiration is true or false. Energy is required for respiration. Sugar and oxygen O2 are consumed in photosynthesis. Carbon dioxide CO2 and water H2O are consumed in respiration.
1. Energy is required for respiration.
Answer: True.
Explanation: Cell respiration is a three-step process in aerobic organisms (Those that need oxygen): Glycolisis, Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorilation. In glycolisis, glucose and other sugars are oxidize to pyruvic acid and energy (ATP) is needed in two of the reactions (to activate glucose and to activate fructose 6-phosphate).
2. Sugar and oxygen O2 are consumed in photosynthesis.
Answer: False.
Explanation: Photosynthesis is a process carry out by cianobacteria, algae and plants to produce sugar and oxygen from sunlight. This process has two phases:
a) Luminic phase. In this phase the energy from the sunlight is transported throught photosystems as electrons, oxygen and energy sustrates like NADPH are produced.
b) Calvin cycle. In this phase, sugars are synthetize from CO2 fixation and enzimatic activity in several steps, using NADPH produced in previous phase, as energy.
3. Carbon dioxide CO2 and water H2O are consumed in respiration.
Answer: False.
Explanation: In cell respiration, glucose and other sugars are completely oxidize to produce energy as ATP and as a residue, CO2. In this process, oxygen is consumed producing oxygen-reactive species that are neutralized by enzimes to form water (H2O).
Energy is required for respiration, making the first statement true. The second statement is false; photosynthesis consumes carbon dioxide and water, not sugar and oxygen. The third statement is also false; respiration consumes oxygen and glucose, producing carbon dioxide and water.
Explanation:Deciding whether statements regarding photosynthesis and respiration are true or false requires an understanding of the basic principles of both processes. Energy is indeed required for cellular respiration; this is a true statement as cells use this process to produce ATP, the energy currency of the cell, from sugar and oxygen. Moving on to the second statement, it is false that sugar and oxygen O2 are consumed in photosynthesis; it is actually carbon dioxide and water that are consumed. The final statement that carbon dioxide CO2 and water H2O are consumed in respiration is also false; in aerobic respiration, oxygen and glucose are consumed, while CO2 and H2O are produced as waste products.
An aquaculture facility hatched salmon eggs and tagged and released young fish into a river leading to the ocean. The fish fed and grew in the ocean, and in a few years some of the fish returned to the facility whereas some were found at other locations. Because the number of returning fish was low and the facility wanted to increase the rate of return to the facility, a scientist suggested adding a chemical to the river that would _________.
Answer: enable them to imprint on the facility
Explanation:
The addition of the chemicals to the river will help the fishes to recognize that this was their native habitat where they got birth and grew. This will act as a imprint formed by the facility which will help the fishes to recognize the water of the facility. This will help in increasing the number of fishes which return back to the facility.
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THE PICTURE GOES WITH QUESTION 1
Q. 1 = Kidneys use energy to move molecules and ions in order to keep the blood chemically balanced. This process is an example of cells using energy to:
a. transmit impulses.
b. carry on chemosynthesis.
c. control body temperature.
d. maintain homeostasis.
Q. 2 = Select ALL of the parts of adenosine triphosphate:
a. 3 phosphates
b. Adenine
c. 2 phosphates
d. Ribose
Answer:
d
c, b
Explanation:
Answer:
Q. 1
D.) Maintain homeostasis.
Q. 2
A.) 3 phosphates
If people from Georgia have just experienced an extremely cold winter the last couple of months, what would the climate most likely be classified as?
a. Polar
b. Temperate
c. Maritime
d. Tropical
Answer:
Continental Polar
Explanation:
Air masses are given a two-part name that describes the humidity and temperature characteristics of the region where they form. The first part of an air mass’ name describes its humidity. Air masses that form over the ocean, called maritime air masses, are more humid than those that form over land, called continental air masses. The second part of the name describes the temperature of the air mass, which depends on the latitude where it formed. Air masses that form near the equator or in the tropics (equatorial or tropical air masses) are warmer than air masses that form in polar areas or uin the Arctic (polar or arctic air masses).
The word that describes humidity (maritime or continental) is paired with the word that describes temperature (equatorial, tropical, polar or arctic). For example, if an air mass forms over a tropical ocean, it is called maritime tropical. If an air mass forms over land in the far north it is called continental polar.
If an organism takes in 1,000 kilojoules of energy in the form of food, how much of this energy still exists after the organism has used the energy to build new cells, repair damaged cells, pump its heart, and run from a predator?
The 1,000 kilojoules of energy taken in by an organism will be used for various activities and biological functions, with some lost as heat and the excess possibly stored as body fat. The specific amount of energy used or stored depends on the organism's metabolic rate and level of physical activity.
Explanation:If an organism takes in 1,000 kilojoules of energy in the form of food, all of this energy does contribute to various biological processes such as building new cells, repairing damaged ones, pumping its heart, and running from a predator. However, not all the energy is utilized for these activities. Some of the energy is lost as heat due to the inefficiency of biological processes, as dictated by the laws of thermodynamics. In a human for example, if they lead a sedentary lifestyle, they might use about 10 megajoules per day, half of which is used in basic metabolic processes and the rest in voluntary muscular activity. Without detailed information on the specific organism and its metabolic rate, we cannot determine the exact amount of energy expended for work or how much is converted to body fat or lost in other ways. Generally, if the intake of energy exceeds that of the metabolic needs, the excess is typically stored as body fat, which contains about 39 kJ/g.
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Protozoans yeast mold algae bacteria helmiths
A. multicellular animals, parasitic worms, eukaryotic
B. photosynthetic, unicellular, or multicellular eukaryotic organisms
C. unicellular prokaryotic organisms
D. multicellular, filamentous fungi
E. unicellular, motile, eukaryotic organisms
F. unicellular fungi, eukaryotic
The terms protozoans, yeasts, molds, algae, bacteria, and helminths refer to diverse forms of life that range from unicellular to multicellular, from prokaryotic to eukaryotic, including both photosynthetic and parasitic organisms.
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Organisms
The diversity of life encompasses various types of organisms, each with unique structures and life processes. Protozoans, yeasts, molds, algae, bacteria, and helminths are different forms of life studied within the field of biology, and particularly in microbiology. Brushing up on their fundamental characteristics can help us determine which category they fall under.
Protozoans are generally unicellular, motile, eukaryotic organisms, which are often found in aquatic environments and soil.Yeasts are unicellular fungi that are eukaryotic, known for their role in fermentation and baking processes.Molds are typically multicellular, filamentous fungi that play a vital role in decomposition.Algae can be unicellular or multicellular, and are photosynthetic eukaryotic organisms.Bacteria are unicellular prokaryotic organisms crucial to many processes on Earth but are distinct in lacking a defined nucleus.Helminths are multicellular animals, especially parasitic worms, and are studied in microbiology due to their microscopic eggs and larval stages.In the context of the options provided, protozoans, yeasts, molds, and algae are all eukaryotic organisms, bacteria are prokaryotic organisms, and helminths are typically multicellular eukaryotic organisms. Hence, the proper categorization would depend on the group or individual characteristics being considered.
Final answer:
Microbiology studies various organisms including unicellular and multicellular algae, motile protozoa, microscopic fungi like yeasts and molds, and multicellular parasitic helminths. Bacteria, distinct from these, are unicellular prokaryotes.
Explanation:
In the field of microbiology, various organisms are studied, including algae, protozoa, fungi (yeasts and molds), and helminths. Algae can be unicellular or multicellular, and they are known for obtaining their energy through photosynthesis. Protozoa are typically unicellular eukaryotic organisms that are motile and nonphotosynthetic. Molds and yeasts represent the microscopic fungi; yeasts are unicellular and reproduce asexually, while molds are characterized by their filamentous structure and asexual reproduction through spores.
Helminths are multicellular parasitic worms, and they are included in microbiology studies due to their often microscopic eggs and larvae. By contrast, bacteria are unicellular prokaryotic organisms that reproduce by binary fission and are distinctly different from the eukaryotic organisms mentioned above. Additionally, Archaea, while not typically associated with human pathogens, are also studied within the realm of microbiology.
Arrange the following in the proper sequence in which they occur during a single PCR cycle.
1. Addition of DNA nucleotides by Taq DNA polymerase.
2. Complementary base pairing between primers and target DNA.
3. Heat separation of strands of target DNA.
Answer:
The correct order is 3 - 2 - 1
Explanation:
In order for DNA replication to occur, both strands need to be separated so the polymerase can start adding nucleotides. In a PCR, this is achieved by an increase in temperature. After both strands are separated, a DNA primer binds the sequence from which the replication will start. This is because DNA polymerases need a short complementary sequence to attach to before they start replicating. Once both strands are separated and primers are paired to DNA, Taq Polymerase can start adding nucleotides to complete the cycle.
What is plant blindness?
a. The inability to see or notice plants in one's own environment
b. The inability to recognize the importance of plants in the biosphere and in human affairs
c. The inability to appreciate the aesthetic and unique biological features of plants
d. The misguided ranking of plants as inferior to animals - leading to the conclusion that plants are unworthy of human consideration
Answer:
The answer is A.
Explanation:
Plant blindness refers to "the inability to see or notice the plants in one's own environment." The term plant blindness was coined twenty years ago by Elizabeth Schussler and James Wandersee who are botanists. Plant blindness results in "the inability to recognize the importance of plants in the biosphere and in human affairs." It is also the reason why people have a tendency of ranking “plants as inferior to animals”. Therefore, plants tend to receive limited care and upkeep. It is important to recognize plant blindness so that more intentional care can be given to preserving our plant species and ensure their survival and ability to thrive.
One of the limiting factors in human physical performance is the amount of oxygen that is absorbed by the muscles from the bloodstream. Accordingly, entrepreneurs have begun selling at gymnasiums and health clubs bottles of drinking water, labeled "SuperOXY," that has extra oxygen dissolved in the water. Such water would be useless in improving physical performance, however, since the only way to get oxygen into the bloodstream so that it can be absorbed by the muscles is through the lungs.
Which of the following, if true, would serve the same function in the argument as the statement in boldface?
(A) the water lost in exercising can be replaced with ordinary tap water
(B) the amount of oxygen in the blood of people who are exercising is already more than the muscle can absorb
(C) world-class athletes turn in record performance without such water
(D) frequent physical exercise increases the body’s ability to take in and use oxygen
(E) lack of oxygen is not the only factor limiting human physical performance
Answer:
(E) lack of oxygen is not the only factor limiting human physical performance
Explanation:
Oxygen is used for cellular respiration to produce ATP which is the usable energy of muscle cells.
Other factors such as cardiovascular capacity also affects performance.
Also muscles can accumulate glycogen as energy storage, endurance is partly based on the amount of glycogen your muscles hold to work for longer periods of time.
The size of your muscle matters this explains why even golf players go to gym.
A mineral sample has the color, streak, hardness, and density that are characteristic of magnetite. Which additional test would most help establish the mineral's identity?
Answer: A. Moving an iron nail near it