Assisting muscles are called _____________.

Answer:

D. Parasympathetic activity

Explanation:

The parasympathic system is part of the Autonomous Nervous System. They have two types colinergic receptors: muscarinic receptors M1, M2, M3 and M4 and nicotinic receptors. Through M3 receptors, the parasympathetic effect in the male sex organ is erection.

Answer:

The best answer to the question: Which of the following findings indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication? would be: A: Absence of hand tremors.

Explanation:

Cyanocobalamin, also known as vitamin B-12, is vital for the correct functioning and formation of the central nervous system, and the correct functioning of all the nerves in the human body. Absence of it due to a disease like pernicious anemia, or infection by bacteria, or other parasites, as well as lack of intake from dietary customs, will lead to malformation, malfunctioning, and damage of the nervous system since this vitaming is central to formation of myelin, and other substances. In order to correct the lack of normal levels of B-12, people receive this medication, which is most commonly used as subcutaneous, or intramuscular injections, and one of the therapeutic effects it will have, and which will be visible, will be the absence, or diminishing of hand, and other body part tremors, as well as the feeling of numbness, or tickling, in body extremeties. So A, would be the best choice.

Final answer:

A hematocrit of 45% indicates that cyanocobalamin injections are effectively treating vitamin B12 deficiency by restoring normal red blood cell levels, which is a therapeutic effect of the medication.

Explanation:

Cyanocobalamin is a synthetic form of vitamin B12 used to treat or prevent deficiencies and related medical conditions, such as pernicious anemia. When assessing a client who receives monthly injections of cyanocobalamin, the nurse should look for signs that indicate effective treatment of B12 deficiency. Among the answer choices provided, hematocrit 45% reflects a normal range and indicates that the medication is having a therapeutic effect by restoring normal red blood cell volume and thus treating the anemia commonly associated with vitamin B12 deficiency.

Answer:

The correct answer is immunoglobulin E (IgE).

Explanation:

Immunoglobulin E are the antibodies that produced by the immune system in response of allergens.  These antibodies travels to cells that cause allergic reaction by releasing chemicals. Allergic response generally takes place in nose, chest ear and skin and other.

IgE can be specific for one type of allergen or more than one type of allergens based on the individual immune response and different type of antibodies they produce.

Thus, the correct answer is immunoglobulin E.

Answer:

The end-diastolic volume.

Explanation:

The Frank-Starling law is also named as the Starling's law. This law explains the relationship between the end-diastolic volume and  stroke volume.

This law propose that the stroke volume increases with the increase in the end-diastolic volume of the heart, all other factors remain same. Hence, the stroke volume is proportional to the end-diastolic volume.

Thus, the correct answer is option (b).

The Frank-Starling law states that the stroke volume of the heart is proportional to the end-diastolic volume. It means that the more the heart is filled during diastole (end-diastolic volume), the more it ejects during systolic contraction (stroke volume). This law is pivotal in maintaining the balance of blood volume in the heart.

The Frank-Starling law of the heart is a physiological phenomenon which states that the stroke volume of the heart increases in response to an increase in the volume of blood filling the heart (the end diastolic volume) when all other factors remain constant.

In other words, the stroke volume is proportional to the end-diastolic volume (Option B). The larger the volume of blood entering the heart during diastole (end-diastolic volume), the larger the volume of blood ejected during systolic contraction (stroke volume), which is an essential mechanism for maintaining the balance of input and output blood volume in the heart.

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Answer: Option E

Explanation:

Liver is a large reddish brown organ that is responsible for various types of function. It deals with many functions.

Some of them includes: Lipid emulsification, iron storage, Gluconeogenesis and glycogen storage.

It does not helps in the secretion of digestive enzymes secretion. Liver produces bilivirdin and bilirubin(yellowish fluid)which helps in the emulsification of fat droplets but  bilivirdin and bilirubin are not digestive enzymes.

Hence, the correct answer is" option E".

Answer:

Reflex test determines the injury of spinal cord and neuromuscular disease.

Explanation:

Reflex test is a type of neurological examination that determines the functioning of both the motor and sensory pathway. This is a simple test that explains the integrity of nervous system.

Reflex test helps in measuring the strength and presence of number of reflexes. This test is helpful to determine the location of spinal cord injury and neuromuscular diseases.

Answer:

Cheyne-Stokes Respiration

Explanation:

Cheyne-Stokes Respiration may be defined as one of the abnormal breathing pattern in human beings. This respiration is more common during wakefulness or sleep of an individual.

Cheyne-Stokes Respiration has the repeated pattern of deeper and faster breathing followed by apnea. This pattern repeated usually from 30 seconds to two minutes.

Thus, the correct answer is option (B).

Answer:

Cheyne-Stokes Respirations

Explanation:

In Cheyne-Stokes respiration, a client’s breathing pattern is characterized by progressively deeper and faster breathing, that is, hyperventilation followed by apnea.

Answer: b. secrete progesterone binding protein  

Explanation:

Sertoli cells regulate spermatogenesis and perform various functions in sperm production. Sertoli cells have the function of controlling the maturation and migration of germ cells; are involved in protein and steroid synthesis; phagocyte degenerating germ cells as well as residual cytoplasmic bodies left by adult spermatids in spermatogenesis; form the blood-testicular barrier. Sertoli cells secrete the antimüllerian hormone (antimüllerian hormone - AMH), a glycoprotein from the growth factor family, which suppresses the development of the Müller ducts, precursors of the female reproductive tract. Among the various substances produced by Sertoli cells, the protein binding to androgen-binding protein (ABP), the activin and inhibin.

Sertoli cells in the testes perform multiple functions related to sperm development and maturation, but they do not secrete progesterone binding protein.

Testicular Sertoli cells play a fundamental role in the development and maturation of sperm, a process known as spermatogenesis. They exhibit numerous functions, including the secretion of the Mullerian inhibiting factor which suppresses the development of female reproductive structures, the coordination of spermiogenesis (the final stage of spermatogenesis), supporting meiosis (the process that leads to the formation of sperm), and serving as the blood-testes barrier which prevents passage of certain substances between the bloodstream and testicular tissue.

However, the function that Sertoli cells do not undertake according to the options provided is b. secrete progesterone binding protein. Progesterone binding protein is involved in female reproductive physiology, but it is not a role carried out by the testicular Sertoli cells.

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Answer:

The answer is B: Primary bronchus, secondary bronchus, tertiary bronchus, terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, alveoli.

The correct order of the parts of the bronchial tree is: Primary bronchus, Secondary bronchus, Tertiary bronchus, Respiratory bronchioles, Terminal bronchioles, Alveoli.

The correct order of the parts of the bronchial tree from largest to smallest in diameter is:

So, the correct choice is c) Primary bronchus, Secondary bronchus, Tertiary bronchus, Respiratory bronchioles, Terminal bronchioles, Alveoli.

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Answer:

The correct option is : b. Hydrochlorothiazide

Explanation:

Postural hypotension, also known as the orthostatic hypotension, is a medical condition in which the blood pressure of a person drops while in a standing or sitting position. This condition is characterized by a drop in the systolic and diastolic blood pressure of at least 20 and 10 mm Hg respectively. This drop in blood pressure can be sudden or gradual.

The hydrochlorothiazide is an anti-hypertensive drug which can cause postural hypotension.

Answer:

   The motor cortex is the pre central gyrus of the cerebral cortex and the sensory cortex is the post central gyrus.

As, the pre motor cortex appears in the selection of motor plans for the voluntary movements, on the other hand the primary motor cortex is in the execution of these voluntary movements. Pre motor cortex neurons signal are used for the preparation for the movement.

The motor cortex, situated in the precentral gyrus of the cerebral cortex, is responsible for movement control. The sensory cortex, located in the postcentral gyrus of the cerebral cortex, is responsible for processing and perceiving various sensory information.

The motor cortex is the precentral gyrus of the cerebral cortex. It is responsible for planning and executing movements. Walter Penfield, a neurosurgeon mapped the motor cortex's functional regions by electrically stimulating the cerebral cortex. He verified that different areas of the precentral gyrus were associated with various muscle movements.

The sensory cortex, on the other hand, is the postcentral gyrus of the cerebral cortex, playing a crucial role in processing sensory information. It includes areas that process somatosensory, visual, auditory, and gustatory senses. The sensory cortex allows us to consciously perceive these different sensory modalities.

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Answer:

The correct answer is option e. CO₂ production.

Explanation:

Thyroid hormones stimulate an increase in metabolic rate. It increased oxygen consumption and rates of ATP hydrolysis. Increased thyroid hormone levels stimulate lipid mobilization. They also increase the oxidation of fatty acids in several tissues.  

Thyroid hormones have an effect on the increase of metabolism of carbohydrates, including increased glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis to producing free glucose.

CO₂ production is not a factor that increases metabolic rate stimulated by thyroid hormone but an outcome of the metabolic activity.

Thus, the correct answer is option e. CO₂ production.

Answer:

The answer to the question: There are neurotransmitters that can be both excitatory and inhibitory. Explain how this is possible, would be, Yes, there are some neurotransmitters such as acetylcholine and dopamine, who have both an excitatory and inhibitory effect in other neurons and in cells, and this happens because of the type of receptors they bind to, and the type of cell where they bind.

Explanation:

Neurotransmitters are the messengers, or communication system that the nervous system in general has with itself and with other systems. There are several types of these, and some work both as neurotransmitters and as hormones as well. How they act, where they act, and what kind of response they elicit, depends entirely on the receptors to which they bind, when they are released by a pre-synaptic neuron. Most neurotransmitters are either excitatory, or inhibitory, and some are known as neuromodulators. However, there are two types known today that work as both excitatory and inhibitory: dopamine and acetylcholine. How can either of these act as each of these? Depends on the receptors present on the post-synaptic neuron, or cell, and depends on the type of cell as well. As soon as these two bind to their appropriate receptors, in a specific kind of cell, they will produce the specific response from the cell, either starting an action potential, ir inhibiting it from happening.

Answer:

the correct answer is option A- Intercalated disc

Explanation:

Intercalated discs are the characteristic microscopic feature of the cardiac muscle which allows the cardiac cells to work as a single unit or syncytium.

The disc allows the cardiomyocytes (an individual cell) to act as one unit due to the "desmosomes and gap junctions" which allows the diffusion of ions to pass to nearby cardiomyocytes and allow depolarization of the entire heart which causes contraction.

Thus, option A- Intercalated disc is the correct answer.

The correct answer is C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder

Explanation

Obsessive-compulsive disorder or OCD is a psychiatric or mental disorder in which people mainly shows compulsion or repetitive behaviors and obsession which become repetitive and automatic as the individual is unable to control these behaviors which leads to issues in the individual's daily life. Because of this, in OCDs behaviors such as counting certain elements compulsively, storing objects in a certain way, repetitive hand washing, doing certain actions a specific number of times and checking if the doors are locked over and over are common. Additionally, this type of disorder is linked to anxiety disorder as irrational anxiety and fears can lead to compulsions and disorders. Considering this, it can be concluded it is Obsessive-compulsive disorder the disorder that consists of behaviors such as repetitive hand washing, checking if doors are locked, etc.

Answer:

False

Explanation:

Herpes 1 belongs to the Alphaherpesvirinae subfamily, this virus targets mucoepithelial cells and diseminate through intimate contact. Although generally HSV-1 infections occurs above the waste (encephalitis, keratoconjunctivitis, coriorentinitis, pharyngitis, esophagitis, tracheobronchitis and oral) there are other clinical manfiestations such as gladiatorium, genital herpes and warths that prove this statement false.  Herpes 1 is not totally conclusive in the sense that the areas where it occurs do not comply with the definition given "above the waist".  The epidemiological importance is able to determine where it is predominant.

Answer:

C. Fluid Retention

Explanation:

Pioglitazone belongs to the family of Thiazolidinediones, they act as ligands of the PPARgamma receptor, a pair of nuclear hormone receptors that participate in the regulation of genes related to the metabolism of glucose and lipids. They are used for patients with DM2, specially those with renal disease, since they do not metabolize in the kidney. Among their therapeutical effects they increase secretion of adiponectine, lower liver fat and redistributes it to the subcutaneal layer of the skin. Their side effects include:

-Hepatotoxicity with increased liver enzymes

- Increase risk of long-term fractures

-Weight gain, due to fluid retention with edema. The edema is formed by intracellular effects by the stimulation of Na + pumps which stimulates the hydrosaline retention.

Answer:

b. False

Explanation:

Bone is an ancient tissue (evolved +/- 500 million years ago) and is NOT present only in Chordates.

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

Vagotomy is a medical procedure which is used to decrease the gastric secretion in the stomach by denervating the parental cell that produces acid.

This condition is useful in case pf peptic ulcers. It is also used to eliminate or reduce the symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux in the patients who has already suffered from this.

In this operation the vagus nerve is cut down to reduce the rate of gastric secretion.

Thus, the correct answer is option B

Answer:

Immune modulators are the chemical agent that alters the immune system by stimulation or inhibition of the white blood cell activity.

Explanation:

A chemical agent that alters the immune response known as immune modulators. Immune modulators can stimulate or inhibit white cell activity or immune response, It is generally suggested in the poor immune systems because of disease like AIDS or rheumatoid arthritis.

The immune-suppressants use in the case of organ transplant to inhibit the white cell activity because it is a chemical agent that inhibits the white cell activity or immune response.

Thus, the immune suppressants are the agent that only inhibit the immune response whereas the immune modulator can stimulate or inhibit the immune response.

Answer:

The answer is A: Epithelial tissue.

Explanation:

The epithelial tissue is the tissue that is mostly exposed to the external environment. The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin, it is a type of epithelial tissue, covering large spaces of the body. It consists mostly of dense accumulations of cells attached to each other that allow them to communicate with each other.

An area of the body exposed to the external environment would be composed of epithelial tissue, which protects the body, secretes substances, and absorbs nutrients.

An area of the body that is exposed to the external environment would likely be composed of epithelial tissue. This type of tissue includes sheets of cells that cover exterior surfaces of the body, line internal cavities and passageways, and form certain glands. The primary functions of epithelial tissue are to protect the body from external elements, to secrete substances, and to absorb nutrients. The tissues that are not primarily exposed to the external environment are connective tissue, which provides support and integrates parts of the body; muscle tissue, which allows for movement; and nervous tissue, which propagates electrochemical signals for communication. To directly answer the question, the tissue type that would compose an area exposed to the external environment is (a) Epithelial tissue.

Answer:

The correct answer is option D- oligodendrites and Schwann cells.

Explanation:

Neuroglia or glial cells are the cells in the nervous system which support, protect and maintain the neurons.  These neuroglia cells protect the neurons as they insulate the axons and dendrite by forming a sheath around the neurons called the 'myelin sheath".

Two different types of glial cells form this myelin sheath in CNS and PNS: Schwann cells in PNS while oligodendrocytes in CNS.  These myelin sheaths provide insulation as they are formed by the spiral wrapping of the plasma membrane which is made up of hydrophobic molecule.

Thus, option D- oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells are the correct answer.

d. oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells

Oligodendrocytes can be said to have a function similar to Schwann cells that can be found in the peripheral nervous system.

Neuroglia are the cells most commonly found in the nervous system. These cells do not play a direct role in information processing and transmission and function to support the needs of neuron cells.

Microglia are a type of glial cell that is part of the immune system for the central nervous system. Microglia are small cells that act as phagocytes, cleaning components that can threaten the nervous system.

Oligodendrocytes are cells that play a role in forming the myelin sheath for the central nervous system. These oligodendrocytes can be said to have a function similar to Schwann cells found in the peripheral nervous system.

Astrocytes

"Astrocytes" comes from two words "Astro" which means stars and "sit" which means cell. As the name implies, erythrocytes are glia cells that have a star-like shape. Astrocytes are the most numerous cells in the central nervous system. This cell has several important functions, namely:

There are two types of astrocytes

Ependymal Cell

Ependymal cells line the interior of the fluid-filled cavity in the CNS. Ependymal cells are cells that have cilia, the movement of these cilia play a role in flowing cerebrospinal fluid throughout the ventricles of the brain.

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Class: College

Subject: Medicine

Keywords: neuron, neuroglia, cell

The submucosa is composed mostly of connective tissue, nerves, and vessels, which help to nourish surrounding tissues.

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Answer:

The glands that are associated with the hair follicle are the glandulas cebaseas, which secrete a waxy liquid that keeps the hair lubricated.

They do not enter the classification of endocrines or exocrines since these are other types of glands that have functions of a purely hormonal type in the body.

Answer:

The correct answer is option B-large brain size.

Explanation:

Hominins are the living being which is a type or tribe of a group of an organism called primates. These primates are also called hominids.

Hominin represents the living group of the organism which shows three important characteristics:

1. Bipedalism: the ability to walk on two legs.

2. Large cranial size: large brain capacity (1500 cc) of Homo sapiens.

3. Reduced canine size: reduced size of teeth.

The only living hominin is "humans".

Thus, option B-large brain size is the correct answer.

A distinguishing feature of hominins, including humans and related extinct species, is a larger brain size compared to other primates. This characteristic is associated with advanced cognitive abilities. Therefore, the correct answer would be B

A characteristic that is crucial in defining a hominin is B-large brain size. Hominins, the group of primates that includes humans and our closest extinct relatives, are distinguished particularly by brain size, which is significantly larger compared to non-hominin primates.

This large brain size is associated with complex cognitive skills, such as more developed language abilities and tool use. While the other alternatives (A, C, and D) can be found in many primate species, large brain size is especially characteristic of hominins.

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Answer:

Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD), also known as Peripheral Arterial Disease is defined as a dicrease in blood flow towards the limbs, especially lower limbs, due to an atherosclerotical event that hinders the normal passage of blood through the arteries to these regions.

There is one particular cause for this disease, and the most common of them, and it is the formation of fat plaques, known as atheromas, which adhere to the walls of the arteries, preventing correct blood flow. Although many times asymptomatic in its initial stages, it can develop into a very serious condition in patients.

Symptoms usually come in the form of pain in the affected region, especially during exercise, known as claudication, and which is releaved once the person lays down to rest. There are other symptoms like leg weakness, numbness in the region affected, tingling in the hip where the atheroma has settled, among others.

Usually this condition is treated with diet, exercise and some medication, but it can lead up to surgery, when the affection is too great.

Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD) is a slow-progressing circulatory condition, categorized as a form of arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis. It's characterized by a buildup of plaque in the vessels, making it hard for arteries to oxygenate cells. The treatment options include lifestyle changes, medication, and procedures like angioplasty, stent insertion, or coronary bypass.

Peripheral Artery Disease, often referred to as PAD, is a circulatory condition where narrowed blood vessels reduce blood flow to the limbs. It's a form of Arteriosclerosis - a generalized loss of compliance or 'hardening of the arteries', and Atherosclerosis - a specific type of arteriosclerosis involving the build-up of plaque in the walls of the vessels.

The disease progresses slowly and could begin in children; visible as fatty 'streaks' in the vessels. Risk factors include smoking, family history, hypertension, obesity, diabetes, high alcohol consumption, lack of exercise, stress, and hyperlipidemia. The restriction of the vasa vasorum to the outer layers of arteries makes arterial diseases more common than venous diseases, as its location makes it more difficult to nourish the cells of the arteries and remove waste products.

Treatment options may include medication, changes to diet and exercise, angioplasty with a balloon catheter, insertion of a stent, and coronary bypass procedures. Untreated cases can eventually restrict the flow of blood to tissues and result in ischemia, leading to the cells receiving insufficient amounts of oxygen, resulting in hypoxia and potential tissue death.

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Answer:

There have been great nursing theorists and nursing theories throughout history, and all of them, have played a major role in developing the profession. However, there is one in particular that had a very big impact, as it led the nursing profession to view patients, not as simple organisms with an ailment that needed to be treated, and where nurses played a very small part, but rather, transformed the vision into a whole, something much bigger, and suddenly, the role of the nurse jumped into the forefront. This theory, is Callista Roy´s Adaptation Model.

The Adaptation Model of Roy, takes a human being, or a group of beings, as a system of adaptation, a whole that is influenced by several factors, and his/her, or their, response to a stimuli, which affects the whole, creates a response from all the factors within the person, or group. In some cases, the responses are adaptative, but in others, the balance is damaged. Roy was one of the first nursing theorists to realize that the human being was composed of interconnected factors: physical-physiological, the self-concept, the role function and the interdependence. She also saw that all systems receive stimulus, and these stimuli will activate one, two, or several of the modes. This generates a response. And because people are always looking to adapt to their environment, they will produce responses to achieve this goal. However, these responses may sometimes be inefficient, inadequate, or simply wrong.

In all aspects of nursing, this theory plays a role because it leads the nurse to realize her own job is not simply to deal with a physical-physiological aspect of care; she is also in charge of organizing the resources and tools that will be needed to reinforce, ensure, or correct, adaptive, or maladaptive, behaviors in patients and their social groups. It also leads students to understand patients in a different way, and see that the work of a nurse is vital to re-establish balance in an adaptive system through nursing care plans and programs that seek to return balance to not just one, but all the interconnected modes.

Answer and Explanation:

Answer:

A. The Fourth Amendment

Explanation:

The Fourth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution protects people's rights to be secure in their "persons, houses, papers, and effects", meaning that the government can not do searches and seizures to people's properties or belongings unless those searches and seizures are deemed reasonable under the law or legal and follow certain conditions. This Amendment was designed to protect people's privacy and to limit the government power so they can not act at the expense of citizen's rights.