Assume that Verizon Communications, Inc. reports the following selected balance sheet and income statement information for 2012 through 2014 ($ millions).
Total Current Assets Total Current Liabilites Pretax Income Interest Expense Total Liabilities Stockholders' Equity
2012 $18,293 $26,570 $6,344 $2,797 $108,154 $57,814
2013 19,479 23,159 12,521 2,384 103,345 62,613
2014 16,448 25,063 13,652 2,180 74,942 66,434
Compute times interest earned for 2014. Select one: A. 5.26 B. 6.26 C. 7.26 D. 4.26

Answer:

Net income allocated to sally is $112000

Explanation:

Sally invested $200000 and Andy invested $100000, which means Andy's  investment is half of Sally's investment. So he will receive the half of what Sally will get.

Let

Sally's pay be x

Andy's pay be x/2

Total Net income is 168000 dollars.

So, putting it in an equation, we get

(x+x/2)=168000

x(1+0.5)=168000

x(1.5)=168000

x= 168000/1.5

x=112000

So Sally's share will be $112000

Andy's share will be x/2

=112000/2

=56000

So Andy share will be $56000

The Net income allocated to sally is $112000

Since Sally invested $200000 and Andy invested $100000, which means Andy's investment is half of Sally's investment.

Let us assume Sally's pay be x

So, Andy's pay be x/2

And,

Total Net income is 168000 dollars.

Now the equation is

(x+x/2)=$168000

x(1+0.5)=$168000

x(1.5)=$168000

x= $168000/1.5

x=$112000

So Sally's share will be $112000

Now

Andy's share will be x/2

=$112000/2

=$56000

Hence, the Net income allocated to sally is $112000".

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An investigator conducting a study of a medical device under an IDE is required to complete and sign an Investigator's Agreement or Statement of Investigator (SOI).

An investigator conducting a study of a medical device under an Investigational Device Exemption (IDE) is required to complete and sign an Investigator's Agreement or Statement of Investigator (SOI).

This document is a legally binding agreement between the investigator and the sponsor of the study, which outlines the responsibilities and obligations of the investigator. It is important for the investigator to fully understand the terms of the agreement before signing it.

The Investigator's Agreement or SOI typically includes information such as the purpose of the study, the investigator's qualifications, the study protocol, the sponsor's responsibilities, and the investigator's responsibilities.

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An investigator conducting a study of a medical device under an Investigational Device Exemption (IDE) must complete and sign an Informed Consent Form. This form outlines the risks and benefits of the study and ensures the participant's understanding and agreement. An IND application is also a requirement before clinical trials can start.

An investigator conducting a study of a medical device, under an Investigational Device Exemption (IDE), is required to complete and sign an Informed Consent Form. This crucial document outlines all the potential risks and benefits of participating in the study. The aim is to ensure that the subjects participating in the study are fully aware and agree to the conditions laid out before the study commences.

Among other things, Informed Consent typically contains information about why the research is being conducted, how the collected data will be used, and the extent to which the subject's identity will remain anonymous. It also covers the specific details of the participant’s role in the study, including their right to withdraw from the study at any point.

Additionally, before initiating any clinical trials involving human subjects, the researchers need to submit an Investigational New Drug (IND) application to the FDA's Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER). This application includes substantial data collected from previous laboratory and animal trials, as well other clinical and manufacturing details related to the new device.

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Answer:

The sales revenue would be 170,000 if Hammer Time implements the decrease in selling price.

This would generate a decrease of $10,000 in the sales revenue

Explanation:

Understanding the way sales revenue is generated:

[tex]Units Sold * Unit Price = $Sales Revenue[/tex]

If the selling price drops to $10

and units sold increase by 5,000

[tex](12,000 + 5,000) * ( 15 - 5 ) = 17,000 * 10 = 170,000[/tex]

Comparing with the previous year:

[tex]12,000 * 15 = 180,000[/tex]

This policy decrease the sales revenue which makes the business less profitable.

Final answer:

The budgeted sales revenue if the selling price decreases to $10 per hammer is $375,000

Explanation:

The budgeted sales revenue if Hammer Time implements the decrease in selling price is $375,000.

To calculate this, first determine the new estimated sales quantity (12,000 + 5,000 = 17,000 hammers). Then, multiply the new selling price of $10 per hammer by the new estimated sales quantity: $10 x 17,000 = $170,000. Thus, the budgeted sales revenue would be $170,000 x 2 (for both sales transactions per hammer) = $340,000. However, if the original selling price was maintained ($15 x 12,000 = $180,000), the total budgeted sales revenue would have been $180,000 x 2 = $360,000.

Answer:

At first, It will have no impact.

Later it will make the equilibrium price go higher. Quantity unchanged

Explanation:

First The raw material cost increase in the pepperoni will decrease the profit of Antonio's pizzas with that ingredient. It will not have an impact on the pizzas market.

But once after, Antonio's decides to markup the price, to get their previous profit margin back, the price of the pizzas will increase and because is the only supplier around campus their demand will not react (low to any elasticity to price) to the price rise and accepts the new price.

The increased price of pepperoni, a key input in Antonio's pizza production, leads to a decrease in supply as costs rise. Antonio can choose to absorb these costs, decreasing his profits, or pass the costs onto consumers by raising pizza prices, which might decrease demand. This supply and demand shift affects the market for Antonio's pizzas.

The scenario presented deals with the concepts of supply, demand, and price in a market, emphasizing more on the effect of input costs on a business. When Antonio's pepperoni supplier increases the price by 25%, this affects Antonio's production costs.

Essentially, Antonio's supplier's price increase leads to a decrease in the supply of Antonio's pizzas because the cost of production, in this case the price of pepperoni, has increased. Antonio may need to decrease the number of pizzas he can produce or increase his pizza prices to compensate for the increased costs, leading to a new equilibrium in the market for his pizzas.

Two scenarios are possible here: If Antonio chooses to keep the pizza prices fixed, he may have to endure reduced profits. On the other hand, if he increases the pizza prices, this could possibly lead to a decrease in demand as pizza becomes more expensive for customers around campus. Thus, the price increase of a key input affects not just the supply but also the demand of Antonio's pizzas.

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Answer: The Economic order quantity(EOQ) is 74 boxes.

Explanation:

Given weekly demand (d)= 4 boxes

Annual demand (D) = 4[tex]\times[/tex]52 = 208 boxes

Ordering cost S = $5

Holding cost H = $0.347

Standard deviation ([tex]\sigma[/tex]) = 0.50

Lead time (L) = 2 weeks

∴ Economic order quantity (EOQ) Q is as follow :

Q = [tex]\sqrt{\frac{2\times D \times S}{H} }[/tex]

Q = [tex]\sqrt{\frac{2\times 208 \times 5}{0.347} }[/tex]

Q = 77.42 or 74

The Economic order quantity(EOQ) is 74 boxes.

Answer:

The correct answer is:  All of them apply.

Explanation:

Typically, when a company plans to start operations abroad it is to reduce costs which eventually will imply getting higher revenues. Cheaper labor hand, resources, infrastructure or discrete government intervention in businesses impulse major firms to go off-shore.

Answer:

a. $495.60

Explanation:

It is asking for the amount of FUTA

The FUTA rate is 6% but Niemann is paying their State taxes so it get's a discount for 5.4%

His FUTA rate is then 0.6%

[tex]taxable \: payroll \times FUTA[/tex]

82,600 x 0.06 = 495.6

The FUTA tax for the year for Niemann Company which has a taxable payroll of $82,600 is $420. This is calculated by multiplying the first $7,000 of each employee's wages (which is the FUTA taxable wage base) by the FUTA tax rate (6.0%). The answer is (d) $420.

The FUTA tax rate is 6.0% for the first $7,000 of each employee's wages. Therefore, if Niemann Company has a taxable payroll of $82,600, the FUTA tax for the year would be $420. This is calculated by taking the taxable payroll up to $7,000 and multiplying by the FUTA tax rate of 6.0%.

Step-by-step calculation:

Therefore, the answer is (d) $420.

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Answer:

The annual financial advantage (disadvantage) for the company as a result of accepting this special order should be $6,645

Explanation:

Company's current variable expenses = Direct Material + Direct Labor + Variable Manufacturing Overhead.

= $3.05 + $8.35 + $7.45 = $18.85

Note: Fixed expenses will not be considered as for this purpose, because they are already incurred and its within the capacity of company, to produce such additional units, here the decision will be based on additional cost which are variable cost and additional mold cost of $21,000 and variable cost of $4.20 per unit.

If we would have considered absorption costing then the normal fixed cost would also have been considered.

Here Total cost of 5,700 units = Total variable cost = $18.85 + $4.20 = $23.05

Fixed Cost = $21,000

Total = $23.05 [tex]\times[/tex] 5,700 + $21,000

= $131,385 + $21,000 = $152,385

Revenue from these 5,700 units = $27.90 [tex]\times[/tex] 5,700 = $159,030

Net result = $159,030 - $152,385 = $6,645

Since the result is positive with a financial advantage of $6,645 the project shall be accepted.

Final Answer

The annual financial advantage (disadvantage) for the company as a result of accepting this special order should be $6,645

Answer:

Unit cost of an assembled radio = $215

Explanation:

Cost of direct material for the month = $800,000

Cost of conversion = $705,000

Total units produced = 7,000 units

Cost per unit of manufacturing will be total of both the costs divided by number of units produced.

Total costs = $800,000 + $705,000 = $1,505,000

Cost per unit = [tex]\frac{1,505,000}{7,000} = $215[/tex]

As there was no opening or closing WIP inventory all the costs incurred during the month will be considered.

Unit cost of an assembled radio = $215

Answer:

Discounted payback period shall be as follows:

a. 1 year 7.36 months

b. 2 years 3.27 months

c. 3 years 2.9 months

Explanation:

a. Payback period in case of cash outflow = $5,700

For calculating the pay back period we shall firstly discount the cash flows to present value @14 %.

Year         Cash Flow         PV Factor           PV of Cash Flow       Cumulative

                                                                                                            Cash Flow

0                 -  $5,700            1                             - $5,700                    -5,700

1                     $4,400         0.877                         $3,858.8                -$1,841.2

2                    $3,900         0.770                         $3,003                    $1,161.8

Since the cumulative cash flows are positive in 2nd year payback period =

1 + [tex]\frac{1,841.2}{3,003} \times 12[/tex] = 1 year and 7.36 months

b. Payback period in case of cash outflow = $7,800

For calculating the pay back period we shall firstly discount the cash flows to present value @14 %.

Year         Cash Flow         PV Factor           PV of Cash Flow       Cumulative

                                                                                                            Cash Flow

0                 -  $7,800            1                             - $7,800                    -7,800

1                     $4,400         0.877                         $3,858.8                -$3,941.2

2                    $3,900         0.770                         $3,003                    -$938.2

3                    $5,100          0.675                         $3,442.5                  $2,504.3

Since the cumulative cash flows are positive in 3rd year payback period =

2 + [tex]\frac{938.2}{3,442.5} \times 12[/tex] = 2 years and 3.27 months

b. Payback period in case of cash outflow = $10,800

For calculating the pay back period we shall firstly discount the cash flows to present value @14 %.

Year         Cash Flow         PV Factor           PV of Cash Flow       Cumulative

                                                                                                            Cash Flow

0               -  $10,800            1                          - $10,800                   -$10,800

1                   $4,400         0.877                         $3,858.8                 -$6,941.2

2                  $3,900         0.770                         $3,003                    -$3,938.2

3                  $5,100          0.675                         $3,442.5                   -$495.7

4                  $4,300          0.592                        $2,545.6                   $2,049.9

Since the cumulative cash flows are positive in 4th year payback period =

3 + [tex]\frac{495.7}{2,049.9} \times 12[/tex] = 3 years and 2.9 months

Final Answer

Discounted payback period shall be as follows:

a. 1 year 7.36 months

b. 2 years 3.27 months

c. 3 years 2.9 months

The discounted payback period is calculated by adding the discounted future cash inflows until they equal or surpass the initial investment. The exact duration cannot be determined without performing the calculations.

The discounted payback period is a measure of how long it takes for the discounted future cash inflows to repay the initial investment or cost. The cash inflows are discounted using an interest rate (referred to as the discount rate), which here is 14 percent. We need to calculate the payback period for three different initial costs - $5,700, $7,800, $10,800.

It's calculated in the following step-by-step manner:

Unfortunately, without access to a calculator to compute the exact values, I can't provide specific numbers for the three parts of your question.

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Answer:

Dep expense for the second year 7,600

Explanation:

[tex]\left[\begin{array}{ccccc}Year&Beginning&Dep-Expense&Acc. \: Dep&Ending\\0&-&-&-&47500\\1&47,500&9,500&9,500&38,000\\2&38,000&7,600&17,100&30,400\\\end{array}\right][/tex]

1/10 = straight-line method

straight-line x 2 = DD rate

47,500 x 2/10 = 9500

then we calculate the DD rate again with the book value

47,500-9,500 = 38,000

38,000 x 2/10 = 7,600

Final answer:

The second-year depreciation of Ramirez Company's machine using the double-declining-balance method is $7,600, calculated by doubling the straight-line depreciation rate to 20% and applying it to the book value at the beginning of the second year.

Explanation:

Calculating Second-Year Depreciation with Double-Declining-Balance Method

To calculate the second-year depreciation using the double-declining-balance method for Ramirez Company's computerized manufacturing machine, we can follow these steps:

Determine the depreciation rate. Since the useful life of the machine is 10 years, the straight-line depreciation rate would be 1 / 10, or 10%. The double-declining rate is twice the straight-line rate, so it would be 20%.

Compute the book value at the beginning of the second year by subtracting the first year's depreciation from the cost. The first year's depreciation would also be 20% of the cost ($47,500 ×20% = $9,500). Hence, the book value at the beginning of the second year would be $47,500 - $9,500 = $38,000.

Apply the double-declining rate to the book value at the beginning of the second year to find the second-year depreciation expense. So, the second year's depreciation is $38,000 ×20% = $7,600.

Remember, the salvage value does not figure into the calculation until the book value is close to the salvage value.

Thus, the machine's second-year depreciation using the double-declining-balance method is $7,600.

Answer:

The total stockholder equity value is $27,000

Explanation:

By using the accounting equation which is shown below, we can compute the value of total stockholder equity

Accounting Equation:

Total Assets = Total Liabilities + Total Equity

where,

total assets = $45,000

total liabilities = $18,000

So, total equity = $27,000 which includes retained earnings of $5,000

By using these 3 terms, we get to know the profitability, performance of the company.

Hence, the total stockholder equity value is $27,000

Answer:

Total current Liabilities $29,280

Explanation:

Accounts Payable                                     $18,000

Employee Health Insurance Payable        $1,350

Employee Income Tax Payable                 $1,100

Estimated Warranty Payable​                   $900

FICA&OASDI Taxes Payable                 $560

Sales Tax Payable                                          $870

Current Portion of

Long-Term Notes Payable                      $6,500

Total current Liabilities                           $29,280

Remember:

current liabilities will be obligation to pay or do that will be settle within a year.

The current liabilities listed total $29,280. These include Accounts Payable, Employee Health and Income Tax Payables, Estimated Warranty Payable, FICA-OASDI Taxes Payable, Sales Tax Payable, and the Current Portion of Long-Term Notes Payable. Long-term payables such as Mortgage Payable are not considered current.

Current liabilities are debts or obligations that are due within the current year or operating cycle, whichever is longer. When totaled, the current liabilities listed in your question would include:

All of these items are to be paid within the year. Therefore, total current liabilities would be $29,280. Notes such as the Mortgage Payable and long-term notes that are not due within the current year are not considered current liabilities.

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Answer:

Materials

62,000 equivalent units

Conversion

42,800 Equivalent untis

Cost of finished Goods

38,000 x (.75 + .55) = 38,000 x 1.3 = $49,400

WIP

24,000 x .75 = 18,000

4,800 x .55 =    2,640

Total WIP         20,640

Explanation:

Equivalent Units

38,000 complete

20% of 24,000 WIP  = 4,800

Equivalent Units CC = 42,800

x .55 CC = 23540

Materials

62,000 x .75 = $46,500

According to the condition, the total costs accounted for Direct materials are $46,500.00, Conversion Costs are $ 23,540.00, and total costs are $70,040.00.

The weighted average considers the relative relevance or frequency of several elements in a data collection.

A weighted average can be more accurate than a simple average in some cases.

Each data point value is multiplied by the allotted weight in a weighted average, which is then totaled and divided by the number of data points.

Here,

Compute the total cost accounted as follows:

Particulars                         Direct               Conversion              Total
                                            Cost                   Cost                       Cost

Completed $
transferred out                 $28,500              $20,900             $49,400
Ending Work
In Process                         $18,000                $2,640              $20,640

Total costs accounted   $ 46,500              $ 23,540             $ 70,040

Therefore, the following total cost accounted for as follows:

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This is an incomplete question, the complete question is:

he Mixing Department of Complete Foods had 62,000 equivalent units of materials for October. Of the 62,000 units, 38,000 units were completed and transferred to the next department, and 24.000 units were 20% complete. Complete Foods' costs per equivalent unit of production are $0.75 for direct materials and $0.55 for conversion costs. All of the materials are added at the beginning of the process. Conversion costs are added evenly throughout the process and the company uses the weighted average method.

Calculate the cost of the 38,000 units completed and transferred out and the 24,000 units, 20% complete, in the ending Work-in-Process Inventory

Answer:

The number of days in inventory for 2018 is 64.1 days

Explanation:

The formula for computing the number of days in inventory is shown below:

= (Average inventory ÷ Cost of good sold ) × 365 days

where,

Average inventory = (Opening inventory + ending inventory) ÷ 2

                               = ($58,000 + $44,000) ÷ 2

                               = $51000

Now put the values on the formula which is shown above.

= ($51000 ÷ $290,000) × 365 days

= 64.1 days

Thus, the number of days in inventory for 2018 is 64.1 days

Final answer:

The Holmes Company's after-tax cost of debt is 6%, calculated from a 10% yield to maturity on their bonds, adjusted for a 40% marginal tax rate.

Explanation:

The Holmes Company's after-tax cost of debt is calculated based on the yield to maturity of its currently outstanding bonds. Since the bonds have a 10% yield to maturity, which Holmes believes could be issued at par for new bonds, this is the pre-tax cost of debt. Factoring in the marginal tax rate of 40%, the after-tax cost of debt would be the yield to maturity multiplied by (1 - tax rate), which equates to 10% * (1 - 0.40) = 6%. Therefore, the after-tax cost of debt for Holmes Company would be 6%.

Answer:

A.- 3.45 min to produce two work units

B.- In a 8-hout shift at standard performance 274 work units are produced

Explanation:

The Standart tiem per piece would be:

[tex]StandardTime=NormalTime*(1+PFD)[/tex]

Given your numbers it will be:

[tex]3 * (1 + 0.15)= 3.45[/tex]

This is the time per cycle to produce 2 work units

Now, in an 8 hours shift there are 480 minutes.  Dividing between the standard time of a cycle we get the standard performance

[tex]\frac{480}{3.45} = 137.14[/tex]

Rounding, we will be getting 137 cycles

Lastly, because each cycle produce 2 work units we are having a total of 274 Units

Answer:

the amount of employers annual payroll taxes expenses for his employee is $1133.06

Explanation:

For calculating the employers payroll taxes expenses for his employee , we will add the amount that he has to pay for in social security tax, medicare tax and Federal unemployment tax act and State unemployment tax act tax.

EMPLOYERS PAYROLL TAX =

Social security tax + Medicare tax + FUTA tax + SUTA tax

An important point to understand here is that the social security tax and medicare tax would be calculated on the income earned by Phil in month of January and the FUTA(federal unemployment tax act) and SUTA(state unemployment tax act) taxes would be calculated on the first $7000 of Phil as it is given in the question that the unemployment taxes are calculated on first $7000 of employee.

= $9138 x 6.2% + $9138 x 1.45% + $7000 x .08% + $7000 x 5.4%

= $566.556 + $132.501 + $56 + $378

= $1133.057

= $1133.06 (approximate)

Answer:

option (a) is correct, $ 2400

Explanation:

Given:

Direct materials cost = $ 700

Direct labour cost = $ 1300

Variable overhead = $ 400

Transfer price is relevant cost for Engine division

Now,

the relevant cost is variable cost

Also, variable cost is given as;

variable cost =   Direct material + Direct labor + Variable overhead

on substituting the values in the above formula, we get

variable cost =   $ 700 + $ 1,300 + $ 400

or

variable cost = $ 2400

Hence, option (a) is correct

Final answer:

The best transfer price to avoid transfer price problems, given the engine division's excess capacity, is the sum of the variable costs, which is $2,400. This ensures that the Engine Division covers its variable costs without considering any opportunity costs due to excess capacity.

Explanation:

The question asks for the best transfer price to avoid transfer price problems, given that the Engine Division has excess capacity when providing engines to the Tractor Division of a company. The cost information provided is direct materials, direct labor, variable overhead, and fixed overhead. The market price is also given.

To avoid transfer pricing problems especially when excess capacity exists, the transfer price should cover the variable costs and any opportunity cost the selling division might forego. In this case, since there is excess capacity, there is likely no opportunity cost, and the transfer price should at least cover the variable costs: direct materials, direct labor, and variable overhead.

The variable costs add up to $2,400 ($700 for direct materials, $1,300 for direct labor, and $400 for variable overhead). Therefore, the best transfer price in this scenario to avoid transfer pricing problems would be $2,400 (Option a).

Answer:

The total product costs is $2,050

Explanation:

Given cost:

Ribs cost = $1,400

Labor cost = 45 hours × $10 per hour = $450

Seasoning and Sauce cost = $50

Advertising = $300

Grill cost = $150

Administrative cost = $100

By using these cost, we can easily compute the total product cost.

The product cost is that which is attached to the product. It can be direct material, direct labor, etc.

So product cost = Rib cost + Labor cost + Seasoning and Sauce cost + Grill cost

= $1,400 + $450  +  $50 + $150

= $2,050

Other cost is not considered because they are related to general & administrative cost, selling cost which termed as period costs.

So, the total product costs is $2,050

Total product costs for Barry's BarBQue are calculated by adding the costs of ribs, labor, seasoning, and sauce, and the cleaning of the grill which totals to $2,050. The correct option is a.

The student's question pertains to the calculation of the total product costs for Barry's BarBQue. To determine total product costs, one should sum the costs that are directly associated with the production of the goods, which includes material, labor, and overhead expenses. In this case, the calculation would be as follows:

While administrative costs and advertising signs are also expenses for the business, they are not typically considered product costs. Product costs include only those costs that are directly tied to the creation of the product itself.

Thus, the total product costs are:

$1,400 (ribs) + $450 (labor) + $50 (seasoning and sauce) + $150 (cleaning) = $2,050

Answer:

The conventional B/C ratio is 1.0868.

Explanation:

Here B / C ratio means the benefit by cost ratio, so here we will first individually calculate the benefit and cost which the parks and recreation department will receive.

BENEFIT RECEIVED =

 $24,000(people that will come) x 2 (average hour ) x $.50 ( rate per hour )

= $24,000

calculating present value, where i = interest and n = number of years

$24,000 / (1+i)^1 + $24,000 / (1+i)^2 + _ __  _ + $24,000 / (1+i)^20

= $24,000 x [ 1 - 1 / (1+.03)^20 ] / .03 ( given i = 3% )

= $357,060

PRESENT VALUE OF COST INCURRED =

$150,000 + $12,000 / (1+i)^1 + $12,000 / (1+i)^2 + _ _ + $12,000 / (1+i)^20

= $150,000 + $12,000 x [ 1 - 1 / (1+.03)^20 ] / .03

= $328,530

B / C RATIO = $357,060 / $328,530

= 1.0868

Answer:

Monthly Rent = 92825.46

Explanation:

[tex]C * \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\[/tex]

Total investment 6,000,000

Income per year: X

rate of return 0.009489 per month

time 25 years x 12 months = 300

We will solve for the monthly income of the project.

[tex]C * \frac{1-(1.009489)^{-300} }{0.009489} = 6,000,000\\[/tex]

This should be the net income per month $60,492.12803

Now well do the monthly income statment to solve for rent:

Rent + Aprreciation of land - Property tax - maintenance = net income

Rent + 1,200,000 x 0.05/12 - 400,000/12 - 100 x 40 = 60492.13

Rent = 60492.13 - 5000 + 33333.33 + 4,000  = 92825.46

Answer: The correct answer is "Consumers will try to find alternatives to coffee due to increases in the price of coffee."

Explanation:  

When the coffee harvest in Vietnam is destroyed, the supply of coffee decreases, this causes its price to increase due to the law of supply and demand, therefore consumers will try to find alternatives to coffee.

Final answer:

A monsoon destroying the coffee crop in Vietnam will likely lead to increases in the price of coffee, prompting consumers to seek alternatives to coffee. It will not lead to more coffee consumption or an increase in the price of sugar and creamer, nor will it leave the coffee market unchanged.

Explanation:

When a monsoon destroys the coffee crop in Vietnam, a significant coffee producer, the immediate consequence would be a decrease in the supply of coffee. According to the laws of supply and demand, when the supply of a product decreases but the demand remains unchanged, the price of the product is likely to increase. In this scenario, consumers will experience increases in the price of coffee. Due to the higher coffee prices, consumers could potentially seek alternatives to coffee such as tea or other caffeinated beverages.

This situation is analogous to issues seen in South America, where coffee production decreases led to noticeable price increases, prompting suppliers and businesses to endure financial strain. Similar to how a drought in Thailand raised sugarcane prices, the loss of coffee crops in Vietnam would drive up coffee prices. Therefore, it is unlikely that the price of sugar and creamer will increase solely based on the coffee crop failure, nor will people consume more coffee due to high prices. Also, there will not be a 'no change' scenario in the coffee market as the supply dynamics have been affected.

Answer: These transactions can be journalised as follows :-

Explanation:

1. Receivables A/C Dr. 5000

      To  revenue A/C    5000

  ( Being paid for training of students)

2a. Cash A/C Dr. 4000

             To Receivables  A/C    4000

    (Being 4000 provided in october)

2b. Cash A/C Dr. 1000

             To Receivables  A/C    1000

    (Being 1000 recieved for training)

2c. Cash A/C Dr. 3000

             To Receivables  A/C    3000

    (Being 3000 recieved for training)

3a. Accounts payable A/C Dr. 1000

                          To cash   A/C    1000

    (Being 1000 provided for rental bill of september)

3b.  Rental expense A/C Dr. 1500

                          To accounts payable   A/C    1500

    (Being 1500 provided for rent bill in october)

The journal entries for Jim's Gymnastics Training for the month of October involve recording revenues, cash received, deferred revenues, and the gym rental expense.

This question involves basic accounting principles and preparing journal entries. Journal entries are the first step in the accounting cycle and are used to record all business transactions and events in the accounting system.

For Jim's Gymnastics Training, you'd prepare the following journal entries for October:

https://brainly.com/question/28044739

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Answer:

Duane owns his own real estate company. The Bureau of Labor Statistics counts Duane as employed and in the labor force.-B.

Duane, who owns his own real estate company, is considered employed and in the labor force (B) according to the classifications used by the Bureau of Labor Statistics for employment status.

According to the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, the adult population is divided into three categories based on employment status: employed, unemployed, and those not in the labor force. An employed person is someone who is currently working for pay. Unemployed persons are those who are out of work but actively looking for a job. Those who are not in the labor force are neither employed nor actively seeking employment.

The student asked where Duane, who owns his own real estate company, is categorized by the Bureau of Labor Statistics. Since Duane is working at his company, he is employed and considered to be in the labor force. Therefore, the correct answer is B. employed and in the labor force.

Answer:

d. 5.08%

Explanation:

We have to first calculate the YTM of the bond, and then apply the tax shield.

To get the YTM we have to calculate the rate of return of an annuity of 46.25 for 20 years compounding semiannually at IRR rate and the present value of the face value redeem in 20 years.

[tex]C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} +Face\:Value/(1+rate)^{time}= PV\\[/tex]

[tex]46.25 \times \frac{1-(1+IRR/2)^{-20*2} }{rate} + 1000/(1+IRR)^{20}= 1075\\[/tex]

IRR = 0.084656891 (it should be done using financial calculator or excel or a similar software program)

then we apply the shield tax to the IRR:

IRR x (1 - tax-rate) = Cost of debt

0.084656891 * ( 1 - 0.4) = 5.0794= 5.08

The component cost of debt for Kenny Electric Company's bonds requires calculating the yield to maturity (YTM) and adjusting for taxes. For the water company's $10,000 ten-year bond at 6%, when market rates rise to 9%, the price paid for the bond would be less than $10,000. The exact value would be calculated by discounting the bond's future cash flows at the new market rate.

The question involves calculating the component cost of debt for use in the Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) for Kenny Electric Company's noncallable bonds with a 9.25% annual coupon rate, paid semiannually, a selling price of $1,075, a par value of $1,000, and a remaining maturity of 20 years. To calculate this, we need to determine the yield to maturity (YTM) on a semiannual basis and then adjust for the company's tax rate. The YTM reflects the total return an investor would expect if they purchased the bond at its current price and held it until maturity.

For the provided scenario regarding the water company's $10,000 ten-year bond with a 6% interest rate, if you are looking to buy the bond one year before maturity when the market interest rates have risen to 9%, you would expect to pay less than $10,000 for the bond. This is because the bond's fixed coupon payments are less attractive when new issues offer a higher rate, hence the price of the bond must decrease to align with the current yield expectations of potential investors.

To calculate what you would be willing to pay for the bond, you need to calculate the present value of the bond's future cash flows (interest and principal repayment) discounted at the new market interest rate of 9%. With only one year and one coupon payment left, the bond is essentially a one-year fixed income investment, making the math simpler. However, since the original question does not provide the calculation for Kenny Electric Company's bonds, we cannot provide the answer from the multiple choices given for the component cost of debt. In both cases, it is crucial to remember that bond prices are inversely related to market interest rate movements and the discounting process is essential in bond valuation.

Answer:

For the first 2 we calculate the future value:

(A)856

(B)1,122.04

(C) and (D) thre present value will be 800

Explanation:

[tex]Principal * (1+ r)^{time} = Ammount[/tex]

[tex]800* (1+ 0.07)^{1} = Ammount[/tex]

856

[tex]800* (1+ 0.07)^{5} = Ammount[/tex]

1,122.041358

[tex]\frac{856}{(1 + 0.07)^{1} } = 800[/tex]

[tex]\frac{1,122.04}{(1 + 0.07)^{5} } = 800[/tex]

Answer:

I wanna say its C 1,540,000

Answer:

$326186

Explanation:

Matthew, Inc. owns 30 percent of the outstanding stock of Lindman Company and has the ability to significantly influence the investee’s operations and decision making. On January 1, 2018, the balance in the Investment in Lindman account is $348,000. Amortization associated with this acquisition is $16,900 per year. In 2018, Lindman earns an income of $98,000 and declares cash dividends of $49,000. Previously, in 2017, Lindman had sold inventory costing $29,400 to Matthew for $42,000. Matthew consumed all but 25 percent of this merchandise during 2017 and used the rest during 2018. Lindman sold additional inventory costing $46,200 to Matthew for $70,000 in 2018. Matthew did not consume 40 percent of these 2018 purchases from Lindman until 2019. What amount of equity method income would Matthew recognize in 2018 from its ownership interest in Lindman? What is the equity method balance in the Investment in Lindman account at the end of 2018?

Let's use equity method

The Proportionate share of his investment in 2018 is:

Share % x (Net Income - acquisition amortization +/- upstream profits +/- downstream profits)

30% x (98,000 - 16,900 + No upstream from 2017 as it was sold by end of 2018  + (40% x (70,000 - 46,200)) + No downstream profits

30% x (81,100 + 9520)

30% x 90620

$27186

Equity Balance is:

Cost of investment + Proportionate share of Investment - Dividends

348,000 + 27186 - 49,000

$326186

Answer:

DPMO 3,000

Explanation:

Defect per Millon Opportunities

[tex]1000000 \times \frac{sample \: defect}{sample \: size} = \: dpmo[/tex]

DPMO = 1,000,000 * 300/100,000 = 3,000

we divide the failure of the sample by the sample side and apply the ratio to 1,000,000 to get an expected failure per millon