Based on the results of the experiment, which
of the following types of molecules did the
bacteriophages most likely inject into the bacteria
cells?
(A) Simple carbohydrate
(B) Amino acid
(C) DNA
(D) Polypeptide

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

The correct answer is (C) DNA

Explanation:

Bacteriophages are viruses that are known to infect bacteria. Viruses contain the genetic material in a proteinaceous capsid. The genetic material can be DNA or RNA.

During infection bacteriophage transfer the genetic material(DNA) in the bacterial cell and the protein coat remains outside the cell. So as the protein contain sulfur which is present in the protein coat of bacteriophage therefore radioactive sulfur will not be found in the bacterial cell.

Phosphorus is the part of DNA therefore if radioactive phosphorus is found in bacteria then it shows that the viral DNA is present in the infected bacteria. So the correct answer is DNA.


Related Questions

Three populations of crickets look very similar, but the males have courtship songs that sound different. What function would this difference in song likely serve if the populations came in contact?A) a temporal reproductive isolating mechanism.B) a behavioral reproductive isolating mechanism.C) a gametic reproductive isolating mechanism.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer will be option-B

Explanation:

A species is a group of similar organisms which interbreed with the individual of the same group of closely related individuals.

Species are reproductively isolated by various mechanisms, one of which is due to the behavior.

When the species are not able to reproduce to different species due to the differences in their behaviour in terms of mating rituals which could be due to different mating rituals or a different way of mating like observed in the grasshoppers is known as behavioral reproductive isolating mechanism.

In grasshoppers, the grasshopper's species cannot interbreed due to the differences in the mating songs as a part of the behavior.

Thus, Option-B is the correct answer.

Final answer:

Different courtship songs in cricket populations act as a behavioral reproductive isolating mechanism, facilitating mate recognition and preventing interbreeding between different populations.

Explanation:

If three populations of crickets have males with different courtship songs, the variation in song would likely serve as a behavioral reproductive isolating mechanism if the populations came into contact. This behavioral distinction leads to mate recognition, where females respond only to the songs of males of their own population, thereby ensuring that mating occurs only within the same species or population. The song acts as a signal that is recognized by potential mates, which is crucial for maintaining species integrity and avoiding hybridization.

Courtship behaviors like the cricket's song play a critical role in species recognition. They allow individuals to identify and select appropriate mates from their own species. Another example of this is the use of specific light patterns by different species of fireflies to attract mates; females will only recognize and respond to the light pattern specific to their own species. This is a clear demonstration of behavioral reproductive isolation, where the presence or absence of a particular behavior prevents interbreeding and helps in maintaining species-specific characteristics.

When someone is experiencing​ hypoglycemia, the body attempts to compensate by using the​ fight-or-flight mechanism of the autonomic nervous system. Which one of the statements below is NOT one of the​ fight-or-flight responses?
A.Breathing accelerates.
B.Blood vessels constrict.
C.The skin is hot and dry.
D.The heart pumps faster.

Answers

Answer:

The answer is C.The skin is hot and dry.

Explanation:

When someone experiences hypoglycemia the skin isn't hot and dry. Otherwise, the breathing does accelerate therefore the heart pumps faster and the blood vessels constrict. These in order to, for example, avoid arterial and general vascular damage.

Cellulose and glycogen are both homopolymers of glucose units. Humans cannot digest cellulose but can break down glycogen into individual glucose units. Which type of enzyme is lacking in humans that would allow them to break down cellulose? Hint: Look at the name of the enzyme to see the type of bond they are involved in breaking down through catalysis.

Answers

Answer:

the lacking in human is called Cellulase which is any of several enzymes produced chiefly by fungi, bacteria, and protozoans that catalyze cellulolysis and bring about the decomposition of cellulose and of some related polysaccharides.

A child falls and suffers a deep cut on her leg. The cut went through her skin and she is bleeding. Which of the following defense mechanisms will participate in eliminating contaminating microbes?
A) mucociliary escalator
B) normal skin flora
C) phagocytosis in the inflammatory response
D) acidic skin secretions
E) lysozyme

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option C) phagocytosis in the inflammatory response.

Explanation:

Our body has an immune response mechanism for when we get hurt or when it feels that something outside our body wants to harm us, so its automatic reaction is to defend against all those bacteria and viruses that want to attack us.

The system is responsible for identifying the antigens and destroying them. The antigens are all bacteria, harmful viruses and dead substances that are found on the cells. Our system has its own proteins that are HLA antigens. But as these are normal for the body, it does not counterattack them.

There are several defense mechanisms that work as barriers to prohibit the passage of any bacteria that harm us, and one of these mechanisms is inflammation.

In this case, when our body suffers some kind of injury from a bacterium, a cut or a blow, the damaged cells release substances that spill onto the tissue through the blood vessels, causing inflammation.

This allows the foreign substance to be “locked up” and cannot enter the body.

These spilled substances also attract white blood cells, which are called phagocytes which are responsible for eating dead germs and cells through the phagocytosis process.

Which group of air pollutants tend to cool the atmosphere because they reflect more sunlight back to space thus reducing incoming solar radiation? A. CFCs. B. ozone enhancers. C. nitrous oxides. D. atmospheric aerosols.

Answers

Answer:

D. atmospheric aerosols.

Explanation:

Atmospheric aerosols are tiny particles that float in the air. These particles could be liquid or solid and are usually suspended primarily by direct emission into the atmosphere or secondarily by condensation process.

Atmospheric aerosols have numerous effects on the biotic and abiotic factors of the environment. They alter air quality and impact human health in some cases, they can reduce atmospheric visibility, and they also reduce the amount of radiation that reaches the earth by scattering or reflecting some of the radiations from the sun back into space, leading to cooling of the atmosphere.

What is the main function of the ozone layer?​ a. ​to provide cloud cover for protection of polar regions b. ​to block most of the sun's damaging rays from reaching Earth c. ​to filter toxins from acid rain d. to trap carbon dioxide and warm the planet​ e. ​to provide a source of oxygen for photosynthesis

Answers

Answer:

The main function of the ozone layer is to block most of the sun's damaging rays from reaching Earth.

Option: (b)

Explanation:

The stratosphere containing high level of ozone molecules about 30 km to 50 km altitude helps to absorb the sun's ultra violate rays. In its absence, it would be very difficult for anything to survive. Plants cannot live and grow as the UV light causes weakening of plants. It causes skin cancers. The increase in UV flux will lead to increase in sunburn, blindness, cataract, causing potentially death of animals and plants.

A physician orders a general health panel, all tests except a creatinine, including cbc with automated differential. what cpt® code(s) is/are reported?

Answers

Answer:

The answers are 85025, 84443, 82040, 82247, 82310, 82374, 82435, 82947, 84075, 84132, 84155, 84295, 84460, 84450, 84520.

Explanation:

The panel codes cannot be reported unless the physcian species exactly which tests were performed in the patient. If any test is left out, this test will need to be coded individually.

The effect of soil organic matter on the amount of water available to plants is due to organic matter influence on total soil porosity as well as to the water-supplying power of the soil organic matter.True / False.

Answers

Answer:

The answer is true.

Explanation:

It was discovered that a silt loam soil with 6% organic matter will hold more than twice water of a the one with 2% organic matter.

This means that, the more the organic matter in the soil, the more the ability of the soil to hold water for the usefulness of the plants.

Lyme disease is caused by a bacterium transmitted to people by deer ticks. Deer ticks are almost never born infected with the bacterium, but they can pick it up from feeding on an infected host in any of the tick's three successive stage of development: larva, nymph, adult. Once infected, a tick remains infected through any subsequent developmental stages, but since a tick feeds on only one host in each stage, it follows that ______________
A. People can be infected only by being bitten by a tick that is either in larval stage or in the nymph stage
B. People cannot be infected by a tick that picked up the Lyme disease bacterium in the adult stage
C. It is not possible for a person to be infected by a tick that is in the nymph stage or by a tick that was infected with the bacterium while in the nymph stage
D. People infected with the Lyme disease bacterium cannot transmit bacterium to adult deer ticks
E. Only deer ticks that are adults can transmit the Lyme disease bacterium to people

Answers

Answer:

Option B

Explanation:

Tick that contract the bacterium in the adult stage from its host then will not be able to infect humans as it will stay will that infected host for its adult phase and subsequently die as there are no other developmental phases.

Recall that Zajonc placed cockroaches either in a complex maze or a simple maze. He created three other conditions as well. Any given cockroach was induced to navigate the maze (a) entirely alone, (b) in the presence of an "audience" of cockroaches, or (c) simultaneously with another cockroach (but without an audience). The audience condition (b) permitted Zajonc to demonstrate whether:
a. audiences pay attention to competitors.
b. the mere presence of others can facilitate or hinder performance.
c. complex tasks are performed less well than simple tasks.
d. competitive situations are preferred over solitary situations.

Answers

Answer:

The audience condition permitted Zajonc to demonstrate whether the mere presence of others can facilitate or hinder performance.

Option: (b)

Explanation:

R. B. Zajonc presented a "theory of social facilitation". He organized an experiment with the cockroaches to find if there was any noticeable change in the mean number of dominant responses acted between the participants in the audience condition and the one in the solitude environment. It was found that there was difference which proves the social facilitation theory, that the presence of audience can hinder the performance.

A mutation occurs such that a spliceosome cannot remove one of the introns in a gene. What effect will this have on that gene?

Answers

Answer:

Translation is the process by which protein product will form from the RNA molecule with the help of enzymes and protein. The three important process of translation are initiation, elongation and termination.

The mutation that prevent the removal of spliceosome from the intron, the introns will reside within the exons. The translation of this type of RNA a non dunctional protein product can be formed due to the insertion of the introns within the exon sequence.

Final answer:

A mutation preventing a spliceosome from removing an intron in a gene will result in an mRNA that includes the intron, leading to a potentially nonfunctional protein or altered protein function due to incorrect amino acid incorporation during translation.

Explanation:

If a mutation occurs such that a spliceosome cannot remove one of the introns in a gene, the resulting messenger RNA (mRNA) will retain that intron. Since introns are non-coding regions, their inclusion in the final mRNA can disrupt the proper sequence of the encoded protein. This can lead to a nonfunctional protein or change in protein function because the ribosome may incorporate incorrect amino acids during the translation process, ultimately altering the sequence of the protein product. Mutations in the spliceosome recognition sequence or in the components of the spliceosome itself can impair splicing, leading to retained introns that should be removed. These splicing errors could potentially result in severe consequences, including genetic diseases, as they can critically alter gene expression and the functionality of proteins, which are the workhorses of the cell.

Why would the cells of the palisades layer have more chloroplasts in them

Answers

Answer:

Because they re located in the leaves, the part of the plan with wider area to receive the sunlight

Explanation:

Palisade cells are the plant cells that contain the largest amount of chloroplast per cell, this is convenient because they can be found on leaves, the portion of the plant with a wider superficial area, this means that a larger number of chloroplasts will receive the sunlight and therefore this will benefit the photosynthesis process.

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Consider the food chain of grass → grasshopper → mouse → snake hawk. About how much of the chemical energy fixed by photosynthesis of the grass (100 percent) is available to the hawk? .
A) 0.01%
B) 0.1%
C) 1% .
D) 1090

Answers

Your answer is A) 0.01%

To enter the citric acid cycle, pyruvate must enter the mitochondria by active transport. Three things are necessary to convert pyruvate to acetyl CoA. Explain the three steps in the conversion process.

Answers

Answer:Decarboxylation, the Reduction of NAD+, and the attachment of CoA.

Explanation:

Step 1 Decarboxylation: the co-enzyme thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) catalyzes the decarboxylation of the carboxyl group of pyruvate and given off as a molecule of CO2. The two carbon unit remains attached to the enzyme.

Step 2 Reduction: The remaining two-carbon (hydroxyethyl group) is oxidized to form acetyl group. The extracted electrons are transferred to NAD+, storing energy in the form of NADH.

Step 3. The last step is the attachment of coenzyme A, a sulfur compound derived from a B vitamin, is attached to the acetyl group to form acetyl CoA, the Co-enzymes TPP, Lipoamide and FAD will be regenerated.

The acetyl CoA will go into TCA for complete oxidation.

Which ion most readily leaks across a neuron's membrane, helping to establish the resting potential? Which ion most readily leaks across a neuron's membrane, helping to establish the resting potential? Na+ Ca2+ Cl− K+ SubmitR

Answers

Answer:

K+

Explanation:

Leak channels are the gated channels that randomly open and close. The plasma membranes have many more potassium ion (K+) leak channels than the leak channels for other ions such as sodium ion. Also, the potassium ion leak channels are leakier than the sodium leak channels and allow exit of more and more K+ from the neurons. This makes the inside the neuron negative at rest and outside becomes more positive. In this way, the leakage of K+ across the K+ leak channels is mainly responsible for maintaining the resting potential.

A graph titled "Average hamster weight (kg) vs. Amount of drug (mg/day)"
shows a downward-sloping line that reaches a minimum value and then stays there over the remainder of the graph.

what noticeable trend from this graph might be used to make a conclusion?
A. average hamster weight is not affected by the daily amount of a drug.
B. average hamster weight causes the amount of drug to increase daily.
C. average hamster weight doubles every time the daily amount of a drug is doubled until all of the drug has been used up.
D. average hamster weight decreases with an increase in the daily amount of a drug until the hamsters reach a minimum possible weight.

Answers

Explanation:

D. average hamster weight decreases with an increase in the daily amount of a drug until the hamsters reach a minimum possible weight.

Trend: There was a gradual decrease in the hamster's weight til a minimum was reached, after with the rate of its change in weight with treatment over time plateaued.

Trends are gradual notable changes or patterns over a series of data points on a line or curve of a graph. These allow for summarizing data and predicting results. A data summary provides a comprehensive report of experimental findings. This makes the analysis of data easier by answering key research objectives outlined in the experimental procedure.  Summaries allow for tracking trends and procedural changes, observations and potential; this makes it easier to arrive at conclusions faster.

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Answer:

the answer is D

Explanation:

just took it

In anterograde amnesia ______. a. there is an inhibition of afferent inputs to the cerebral cortex b. LTM (long term memory) is not disrupted c. communication between the medial temporal lobe and the association cortex remains unaffected d. declarative memory is not significantly altered

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is b. LTM (long term memory) is not disrupted.

Explanation:

Amnesia is a type of disorder that affects our memory, we talk about anterograde amnesia when it involves a serious damage/lost in our short-term memory (the long term memory is not disrupted), that is, it is the inability to create new memories. This selective memory deficit is caused by a brain lesion located in the hippocampus and in the areas of the medial temporal lobe. The hippocampus has the function of generating new memories, if it is affected, then it will be impossible to establish the memories.

Final answer:

Anterograde amnesia is the inability to form new memories after a brain trauma. It does not disrupt long-term memory, but it hampers the transfer of information from short-term to long-term memory. Declarative memory is primarily affected, while procedural memory remains intact.

Explanation:

Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to form new memories from a particular time forward. It is commonly caused by brain trauma, which affects the hippocampus. With anterograde amnesia, long-term memory (LTM) is not disrupted, but there is a loss of memory for events that occur after the brain trauma.

In anterograde amnesia, communication between the medial temporal lobe (where the hippocampus is located) and the association cortex remains unaffected. However, there is an inhibition of afferent inputs to the cerebral cortex, which hampers the transfer of information from short-term to long-term memory.

While anterograde amnesia primarily affects declarative memory (the conscious memory of facts and events), it does not significantly alter procedural memory, which involves skills and habits.

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Which of the following variations on translation would be most disadvantageous for a cell?A) translating polypeptides directly from DNA.B) using fewer kinds of tRNA.C) having only one stop codon.D) lengthening the half-life of mRNA.E) having a second codon (besides AUG) as a start codon.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is A) translating polypeptides directly from DNA.

Explanation:

Transcription process is important for the production of proteins because mRNA is synthesized during the transcription process which has the correct sequence of codon which is read by ribosomes to make proteins.  

DNA does not contain the right codon sequence for the formation of proteins and does not have uracil nucleotide which is found in mRNA therefore if DNA is used for translation then the wrong amino acids will be added into the polypeptide chain which can generate non-functioning proteins or mutated protein.

Therefore translating polypeptide directly from DNA would be more disadvantageous to the cell.

Which cranial nerve carries visual information from the eyeball to the brain?

Answers

Answer: Optic Nerve

Explanation: The optic nerve also called cranial nerve II. It is the connector btw the eye and brain. It is the nerve that carries visual images from the eyes to the brain.

There is a nerve called the retina. The visual message is sent through the retina to the brain.

Final answer:

The optic nerve carries visual information from the eyeball to the brain.

Explanation:

The cranial nerve that carries visual information from the eyeball to the brain is the Optic Nerve (Cranial Nerve II). It is responsible for transmitting visual signals from the retina to the visual processing centers in the brain, primarily to the occipital lobe. The optic nerve consists of over a million nerve fibers that combine to form a thick bundle that exits the back of each eye and then converge at the optic chiasm, where some fibers cross over to the opposite side of the brain, while others remain on the same side.

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In what stage of respiration does the exchange of gases between the lungs and the blood occur?

Answers

Answer:

External

Explanation:

External or expiration is brought about by the external intercostal muscles relax while the internal intercostal muscles contract causing the rib cage to move downwards and inwards. At the same time the muscles of the diaphragm relax and the diaphragm regains its original dome shape. These movements decrease the volume of the thoracic cavity and increase the pressure inside it thus air is forced out of the lungs into the atmosphere and gaseous exchange is completed.

The exchange of gases between the lungs and blood happens during gas exchange, which is facilitated by the concentration gradient in the alveoli within the lungs.

The exchange of gases between the lungs and blood during respiration occurs in a stage known as gas exchange. This vital process takes place in the lungs, specifically within the tiny air sacs called alveoli. The alveoli are surrounded by a network of pulmonary capillaries, where the blood is low in oxygen concentration and high in carbon dioxide concentration. This creates a concentration gradient that facilitates the diffusion of oxygen from the air in the alveoli into the blood, and carbon dioxide from the blood into the air in the alveoli. Hence, gas exchange plays a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis by supplying cells with oxygen, carrying away carbon dioxide waste, and maintaining the proper pH of the blood.

In the swallowing reflex the soft palate, larynx, and hyoid bone are raised. the epiglottis closes off the top of the trachea. the tongue presses against the uvula and soft palate. muscles pull the pharynx upward toward the food. all of the above are true.

Answers

Answer:

all of the above are true.

Explanation:

The phase of swallowing that occurs involuntarily is termed as swallowing reflex. The swallowing reflex occurs after mastication when the bolus has been formed and the food has to be swallowed in.This reflex begins when the tongue is raised and presses against the uvula and the soft palate.Following this, the epiglottis closes the top of the trachea to avoid the food to enter into the air passage and soft palate, larynx and hyoid bones get raised,Finally, the muscles pull the pharynx upward towards the food and the food gets swallowed.

Despite the law of independent assortment, when two loci are on the same chromosome, the phenotypes of the progeny sometimes do not fit the predicted phenotypes. This outcome can be explained by the phenomenon of__________.

Answers

Answer:

Linkage

Explanation:

Linkage occurs when 2 genes are found close to each other on the same chromosome. Due to their closeness to each other on the same chromosome, the chances of both genes being inherited together, instead of being independently assorted during metaphase I of meiosis, becomes very high. Gene linkage could cause the phenotypes of an offspring not to fit the predicted phenotypes.

What are the consequences of having pyrimidine dimers in dna?

Answers

Final answer:

Pyrimidine dimers are forms of DNA damage caused by exposure to ultraviolet light, leading to cell death, mutations and the potential development of cancer. These dimers distort the DNA helix causing replication errors. Excessive cell death can also be detrimental.

Explanation:

Pyrimidine dimers are forms of damage that can occur in DNA when it is exposed to ultraviolet (UV) light. Particularly, they form when two thymines or cytosines, which are pyrimidine bases in the DNA strand, get linked abnormally. Pyrimidine dimers can lead to problematic consequences.

Some of the main consequences include cell death, mutations and cancer. These result as the dimers cause distortion in the DNA helix. When the cells try to replicate, they can't correctly read the sequence of bases where a dimer is present, leading to mistakes or mutations. In some cases, these mutations can push cells to proliferate uncontrollably, a key characteristic of cancer.

Moreover, when cells recognize these dimers as damage, they can initiate a cascade of reactions resulting in cell death (apoptosis). This is another defense mechanism, but it can also be detrimental if too many cells die off.

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Final answer:

Pyrimidine dimers, especially thymine dimers, distort the DNA double helix structure. This can lead to issues during DNA replication, including mutations and stalled replication. Individuals with Xeroderma Pigmentosa cannot repair these dimers and are at increased risk of skin cancer.

Explanation:

Pyrimidine dimers, particularly thymine dimers, in DNA occur when two adjacent pyrimidines become covalently linked following exposure to UV light. These dimers distort the structure of the DNA double helix, which can present issues during DNA replication, leading to point or frameshift mutations, and can result in stalled replication or transcription.

A well-known example of the effects of unrepaired pyrimidine dimers is the condition Xeroderma Pigmentosa. Affected individuals have a defect in the nucleotide excision repair enzymes which prevents them from effectively repairing these dimers. As a result, these individuals are at an increased risk of skin cancer due to a higher likelihood of DNA mutations arising from these errors.

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David sustained a complete avulsion of his hamstring tendons from their origin on the ischial tuberosity. Hamstrings are part of what class of lever at the knee?
a) The hamstrings are part of a first-class lever, where the fulcrum is between the applied force and the load.
b) The hamstrings are part of a second-class lever, where the load is between the applied force and the fulcrum.
c) The hamstrings are not part of the lever system.
d) The hamstrings are part of a third-class lever, where the applied force is between the load and the fulcrum.

Answers

Answer:

The answer is letter D.

Explanation:

The hamstrings are part of a third-class lever, where the applied force is between the load and the fulcrum.

Which area of the brain stem is in contact with the spinal cord?

Answers

Answer:

Medulla Oblongata

Explanation:

The brain stem is the posterior part of the brain that connects the cerebrum and cerebellum to the spinal cord. It is an area at the base of the brain located between the cerebral hemisphere and the spinal cord. The brain stem is composed of the following in order of inferiority: diencephalon (sometimes included but not main), midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata.

This parts of the brain stem connects to one another upwardly and downwardly. The medulla oblongata is the lowest part of the brain stem which connects the pons to the spinal cord. It is the part of the brain stem that message is conveyed through to and from the brain and the rest of the body as it is continuous with the spinal cord.

Hence, it is the part of the brain stem that directly comes in contact with the spinal cord.

Siamese cats have pale, cream-colored bodies with dark brown fur on their extremities (their ears, face, legs, and tail). Siamese cats that live outside in warm climates tend to have lighter fur, and those that live outside in cooler climates tend to have darker fur. What is the best explanation for this pattern?

Answers

Answer:

Melanin

Explanation:

Some races that are genetically programmed in such a way that the color changes according to the ambient temperature, as is the case of the Siamese cat.

Siamese cats has a gene that produces melanin (gives hair color) depending on body temperature.

This gene stops painting color when the average temperature of cats is exceeded. This absence of color (that is, white cat) causes several curiosities to occur:

1) Siamese cats that are subjected to higher temperatures, for example in summer, can develop a partial albinism.

2) Siamese babies are usually born very white, because in the mother's womb the temperature is warm. As they come in contact with the outside, the gene begins to color their fur.

3) Cat's body is colder around the ears, legs and tail. For that reason they are usually the most colored areas of the Siamese.

The treatment phase for substance abuse generally consists of:
A. detoxification (removal of physical dependence on drugs from body).
B. stabilization (treating the psychological craving for the drug).
C. aftercare (helping the user to obtain education or job training, find a job, and remain drug free).
D. All of these are correct.

Answers

Answer:

D. All of these are correct.

Explanation:

Depending on the institution, substance-abuse treatments may vary in regard to duration and phases. Generally, treatments for substance abuse consist of four phases:

Initiation: This first stage focuses on providing helpful information to the person/patient about all treatments and options. During this phase, the person goes through a process of detoxification, that is, preventing them from using the drug to remove their dependence.Abstinence - first phase: This stage is one of the most difficult ones as the person usually exhibits a variety of emotions associated with depression, sadness, anxiety because of the withdrawal of the drug. During this phase, they received psychological help to prevent any relapse and to become more stable, that is, to control drug cravings.Abstinence - second phase: This stage is focused on maintaining abstinence and stability. In conjunction with the second phase, this is also difficult but rewarding. The person receives behavioral therapy so he/she can acknowledge how the drug intake resulted in numerous issues and, in contrast, stopping its use can change her/his life in a diversity of positive ways.Aftercare: This stage focuses on long-term goals and, through therapy and counselling, helps the person to obtain education, find a job, and continue their stability and abstinence.

You are sound asleep. Your dog decides to get up and walk around the house and in the process steps on a lose floor board and causes it to make a cracking sound. You wake up! What structure was responsible for waking you up from sleep?

Answers

Answer:

Reticular activating system.

Explanation:

Reticular activating system may be defined as the system containing different nerves stimulation and located in the mesopons. This system interacts with thalamocortical systems and  basal forebrain.

The reticular activating system is involved in the resting sleep, dreaming and asleep. The sound of a particular object or living organism play important role in the reticular activating system. The individuals asleep and waking and its regulation is controlled by this system of nervous system.

Thus, the correct answer is reticular activating system.

According to the opponent-process theory, cells that are stimulated by exposure to ________ light are inhibited by exposure to ________ light. a red; blue b blue; green c yellow; green d blue; red e yellow; blue

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is e yellow; blue.

Explanation:

According to the opponent-process theory, cells that are stimulated by exposure to yellow light are inhibited by exposure to blue light. The opponent-process theory states that some colors suppress other colors. In this case, yellow is suppressed by blue.

Final answer:

According to the opponent-process theory of color vision, cells stimulated by exposure to green light are inhibited by red light. This theory explains why we don't perceive colors like greenish-red or yellowish-blue and causes the phenomenon of negative afterimages.

Explanation:

According to the opponent-process theory of color vision, cells are excited by exposure to light of one color and inhibited by exposure to the complementary color within the opponent pairs: black-white, yellow-blue, and green-red. Hence, for the specific pair that typically causes confusion, the correct answer is that cells stimulated by exposure to green light are inhibited by exposure to red light, and vice versa. There are no opponent cells for greenish-reds or yellowish-blues because our visual system is based on this opponent-process theory, which also explains the phenomenon of negative afterimages.

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The individual with genotype aabbccddee can make many kinds of gametes. What could be the major reason for this?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

The major reason is due to the different and diverse possible arrangements of chromosomes into gametes.

Other Questions
8 is 25% of what number? Part AWhat volume of 0.210 M K S solution is required to completely react with 175 mL of 0.140 M CO(NO3),? The length of a rectangle is 1.3 feet, and the width is 2.1 feet. What is the perimeter Which statement accurately describes attitudes towards the barrier between Israel and the West Bank? AIt was built by artists to represent a natural landscape feature of the Jordan River as described in early religious texts.BIt is controversial because it places about 9 percent of Palestinian land in Israeli territory,CIt is welcomed by both the Palestinian and Israeli governments, regardless of their political affiliations.DIt is popular in Jordan because it follows the previous border between Israel and Jordan.EIt is internationally recognized as having helped establish peace in the Middle East. Lin is making a window covering for a window that has the shape of a half circle on top of a square of side length 3 feet. How much fabric does she need What is the formula to find the sum of cells a1 a2 and a3 One end of a string is attached to a ball, with the other end held by a student such that the ball is swung in a horizontal circular path of radius R at a constant tangential speed. At a later time, the tension force exerted on the ball remains constant, but the length of the string is decreased to R4. What is the new tangential speed of the ball? a. four times the original speed b. two times the original speed c. Half the original speed d. One-fourth the original speed What is the theme of Ballad of Birmingham by Dudley Randall? 1 A quines les escribiste las postales? 2 Quin le recomend ese plato? 3 Quin nos va a abrir la puerta a esta hora? 4 Quin les sirvi el pescado asado? 5 Quin te llev los entremeses? 6 A quin le ofrece frutas Roberto? his term refers to the wilderness area of Georgia that attracted large numbers of Scots-Irish settlers during the Colonial period. This was the principle that a state government can declare a law of the national government invalid within the borders of the state to what height will a 250g soccer ball rise to if it is kicked directly upwards at 8 meters per second 8. (a) Summarize How did France help Americaduring the Revolution?(b) Make Predictions What do you think mighthave happened if France had not come to theaid of America during the Revolution? WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST TO FASTEST ANSWER!! What did General Washington and the United States have to do to win the Revolutionary War?A. The United States had to really work to just create a government to rule the colonies that were now statesB. They had to make an alliance with the Native Americans to help attack and destroy the British in Canada and then later on in the southern colonies.C. They had be able to continue to fight and cost the British large sums of money, deaths of their soldiers, and drag out the length of time for the fighting to wear them down and turn British public opinionD. Washington knew that the British would only surrender if the Continental army was able to conquer New York City and take it back from the British A machine is purchased on September 30, 2009, for $60,000. Useful life is estimated at four years and no residual value is anticipated. The Double Declining Balance depreciation method is used. The acquiring company's fiscal year ends on December 31. Depreciation for 2010 should be: $15,000 $30,000 $26,250 None of the above. What new technologies helped trigger the industrial revolution 1 - A submarine has a circular porthole with a radius of 0.10 m. If a force of more than 2x106 N is applied, the porthole will fail. What is the maximum pressure that this window can support? To what maximum depth can the submarine dive, assuming that the interior is maintained at atmospheric pressure? Vancouver's population has increased for all of these except Find the length of PQ if PQ parallel to BC and PQ is a midsegment of ABC A water tunnel has a circular cross-section with a radius of 1.8 m in its main section. In a test section of the tunnel the radius constricts to a value of 0.60 m. If the speed of water flow is 3.0 m/s in the main section, determine the speed of water flow in the test section.