Answer:
$415
Explanation:
For computing the sales per unit first we have to determine the total sales value which is shown below:
Direct Production costs (1,000 units × $125) $125,000
Fixed Overhead costs for the year = $20,000 × 12 months = $240,000
Total Costs for the year $365,000
Gross Profit desired (1,000 units × $50) $50,000
Total Sales Value desired = Costs + Profit $415,000
Now
Sales price per unit is
= $415,000 ÷ 1,000 units
= $415
This is the answer but the same is not provided
The sales price per unit needed for Beta Company to achieve a gross profit of $50 per unit is $195, calculated by adding the per-unit production and overhead costs to the desired profit margin.
Explanation:To calculate the sales price per unit that Beta Company needs in order to achieve a gross profit of $50 per unit, we need to consider the given costs and desired profit margin. The company expects overhead costs of $20,000 per month. With an estimated production activity of 1,000 units, these fixed costs become $20 per unit (overhead costs / estimated production). The direct production cost is $125 per unit. Adding these costs together we get the total cost per unit, which is $125 (direct costs) + $20 (overhead per unit) = $145 per unit. To achieve a gross profit of $50, we add this desired profit to the total cost per unit, resulting in a sales price per unit of $195 ($145 + $50).
Use the following for the next five questions: The following data is given for the Walker Company: Budgeted production...............................................1,000 units Actual production........................................................980 units Materials: Standard price per lb.......................................................$2.00 Standard pounds per completed unit....................................12 Actual pounds purchased and used in production.........11,800 Actual price paid for materials......................................$23,000 Labor: Standard hourly labor rate....................................$14 per hour Standard hours allowed per completed unit.........................4.5 Actual labor hours worked................................................4,560 Actual total labor costs..................................................$62,928 The total direct labor variance is:
Answer:
$1,188 unfavorable
Explanation:
The computation of the total direct labor variance is shown below:
Total Labor Variance is
= Total standard cost - total actual cost
= (Standard hours × Standard rate) - (Actual hours × Actual rate)
= (980 units × 4.5 × $14) - ($62,928)
= 61,740 - $62,928
= $1,188 unfavorable
Since the actual cost is more than the standard cost which results into unfavorable variance
An outside supplier has offered to make and sell the part to the company for $24.10 each. If this offer is accepted, the supervisor's salary and all of the variable costs can be avoided. The special equipment used to make the part was purchased many years ago and has no salvage value or other use. The allocated general overhead represents fixed costs of the entire company, none of which would be avoided if the part were purchased instead of produced internally. If management decides to buy part Z95 from the outside supplier rather than to continue making the part, what would be the annual impact on the company's overall net operating income
Answer:
Net operating income would decrease by $36,000 per year.
Explanation:
The company's current cost of manufacturing a part Z95 is $33.9 which includes all the material, labor and overhead costs. If the company buys this part from an outside supplier it will cost $24.10 each. but the depreciation and factory overhead cannot be avoided. The depreciation is $5.40 and factory overheads are $8.60. This will be added to the cost of buying each part.
$24.10 + $5.40 + $8.60 = $38.1
The cost of buying the part is greater than the cost of making it.
Geary Co. assigned $1,600,000 of accounts receivable to Kwik Finance Co. as security for a loan of $1,340,000. Kwik charged a 2% commission on the amount of the loan; the interest rate on the note was 10%. During the first month, Geary collected $440,000 on assigned accounts after deducting $1,520 of discounts. Geary accepted returns worth $5,400 and wrote off assigned accounts totaling $11,920. Entries during the first month would include a A. debit to Accounts Receivable of $458,840. B. debit to Bad Debt Expense of $11,920. C. debit to Cash of $441,520. D. debit to Allowance for Doubtful Accounts of $11,920.
Answer:
Option D is correct one.
Debit to Allowance for Doubtful Accounts of $11,920
Explanation:
Allowance for doubtful accounts $11,920 Debit
Accounts Receivables $11,920 Credit
Eastern Inc. purchases a machine for $15,000. This machine qualifies as a fiveminusyear recovery asset under MACRS with the fixed depreciation percentages as follows: year 1 = 20.00%; year 2 = 32.00%; year 3 = 19.20%; year 4 = 11.52%. Eastern has a tax rate of 20%. If the machine is sold at the end of four years for $4,000, what is the cash flow from disposal?
Final answer:
To find the cash flow from disposal, calculate the tax savings resulting from the depreciation of the machine and subtract it from the selling price. The cash flow from disposal is $2,033.37.
Explanation:
To find the cash flow from disposal, we need to calculate the tax savings resulting from the depreciation of the machine.
Step 1: Calculate the depreciation expense for each year:
Year 1: $15,000 * 20.00% = $3,000Year 2: ($15,000 - $3,000) * 32.00% = $3,840Year 3: ($15,000 - $3,000 - $3,840) * 19.20% = $2,099.52Year 4: ($15,000 - $3,000 - $3,840 - $2,099.52) * 11.52% = $893.62Step 2: Calculate the total depreciation over the four years: $3,000 + $3,840 + $2,099.52 + $893.62 = $9,833.14
Step 3: Calculate the tax savings using the tax rate of 20%: $9,833.14 * 0.20 = $1,966.63
Step 4: Calculate the cash flow from disposal by subtracting the tax savings from the selling price: $4,000 - $1,966.63 = $2,033.37
Final answer:
The cash flow from disposal of the machine sold by Eastern Inc. at the end of four years for $4,000, after accounting for MACRS depreciation and a 20% tax rate, is $3,718.40.
Explanation:
To calculate the cash flow from disposal of a machine under MACRS, we need to establish the book value of the machine at the time of sale and the total gain or loss on the sale. Eastern Inc. bought the machine for $15,000 and is selling it at the end of four years for $4,000. Under the Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System (MACRS), the fixed depreciation percentages for the first four years are 20%, 32%, 19.20%, and 11.52%, respectively.
First, let's calculate the cumulative depreciation over the four years:The book value of the machine at the end of four years is the original cost minus the accumulated depreciation: $15,000 - $12,408 = $2,592.
The sale of the machine for $4,000 results in a gain of $4,000 - $2,592 = $1,408. Because this is a sale of business property, the gain is taxable. Eastern's tax rate is 20%, so the tax on the gain is 0.20 x $1,408 = $281.60. The cash flow from disposal is the sale price minus the tax owed: $4,000 - $281.60 = $3,718.40.
Suppose a sailboat factory and a fishing boat factory exist in the same town. Employees at both factories have the same skills and are initially paid the same wage rate. If the sailboat manufacturer increases the hourly wage paid to his employees, then the
Answer:
quantity supplied of labor at the sailboat factory will increase.
Explanation:
If it happens that the sailboat manufacturer increases the hourly wage paid to his employees, then the more employees will rush to the sailboat thereby increasing the quantity supplied of labor at the sailboat factory.
What will be the nominal rate of return on a perpetual preferred stock with a $100 par value, a stated dividend of 10% of par, and a current market price of (a) $61, (b) $90, (c) $100, and (d) $138
Answer: a) 16.39%
b) 11.11%
c) 10%
d)7.25%
Explanation:
In calculating the nominal rate of return on a perpetual stock, the following formula is used,
rp = Dp/Vp.
Where,
r = rate of return,
D= dividend;
V = current market price of preferred stock
Dividend is 10% of Par
Dividend = 10% * 100
Dividend = $10
a) $61
= 10/61
= 0.16393442623
= 16.39%
b) $90
= 10/90
= 11.11%
c) $100
= 10/100
= 10%
d) $138
= 10/138
= 0.07246376811
= 7.25%
If you need any clarification do comment. Cheers.
The nominal rate of return on a perpetual preferred stock is calculated by dividing the annual dividend by the current market price, then multiplying by 100. This is calculated separately for each current market price ($61, $90, $100, and $138) to get respective returns.
Explanation:The nominal rate of return on a perpetual preferred stock is calculated by dividing the annual dividend by the current market price of the stock, then multiplying by 100 to get the rate in percentage terms. In this case, the annual dividend is 10% of the $100 par value, which is $10.
For (a) When the current market price is $61, the nominal rate of return would be ($10 / $61) * 100 = 16.39%. (b) When the market price is $90, the nominal rate of return would be ($10 / $90) * 100 = 11.11%. (c) When the market price is $100, the nominal rate of return would be ($10 / $100) * 100 = 10%. (d) When the market price is $138, the nominal rate of return would be ($10 / $138) * 100 = 7.25%.
Please note, the market price and dividend rate can heavily influence the rate of return on investment in stock.
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Carla Vista Co. purchased a new machine on October 1, 2022, at a cost of $79,310. The company estimated that the machine has a salvage value of $7,210. The machine is expected to be used for 70,600 working hours during its 7-year life. Compute the depreciation expense under the straight-line method for 2022 and 2023, assuming a December 31 year-end.
Answer:
$2,575; $10,300
Explanation:
Given that,
Cost of new machine = $79,310
Salvage value = $7,210
Machine used for = 70,600 working hours
Useful life = 7 years
Depreciation refers to the fall in the value of the fixed assets with the passage of time.
Here, we are using the straight-line method for calculating the depreciation expense:
= (Cost of machine - Salvage value) ÷ useful life
= ($79,310 - $7,210) ÷ 7
= $72,100 ÷ 7
= $10,300
Therefore, the annual depreciation expense for 2023 is $10,300.
For the year 2022:
The machine is purchased on October 1, 2022. Hence, the depreciation expense is calculated for the 3 months (i.e, From October 1, 2022 to December 31, 2022).
Depreciation expense = Annual depreciation expense × (3/12)
= $10,300 × (3/12)
= $2,575
Assume that Schmidt Machinery Company had the standard costs reflected in Exhibit 14.5. In a given month, the company used 3,530 pounds of aluminum to manufacture 936 units. The company paid $29.00 per pound during the month to purchase aluminum. At the beginning of the month, the company had 66 pounds of aluminum on hand. At the end of the month, the company had only 46 pounds of aluminum in its warehouse. Schmidt used 5,350 direct labor hours during the month, at an average cost of $42.00 per hour. Required: Compute for the month the following variances: 1. The purchase-price variance for aluminum. Indicate whether this variance is favorable (F) or unfavorable (U). 2. The usage variance for aluminum. Indicate whether this variance is favorable (F) or unfavorable (U). 3. The direct labor rate variance. Indicate whether this variance is favorable (F) or unfavorable (U). 4. The direct labor efficiency variance. Indicate whether this variance is favorable (F) or unfavorable (U).
Answer:
price variance $14,040 U
quantity variance $ 5,650 F
rate variance $ 10,700 U
efficiency variance $ 26,800 U
Explanation:
Missing information attached:
Purchase of Aluminium:
66 ending + 3,530 used - 46 beginning = 3,510
DIRECT MATERIALS VARIANCES
[tex](standard\:cost-actual\:cost) \times actual \: quantity= DM \: price \: variance[/tex]
std cost $25.00
actual cost $29.00
quantity 3,510 (purchase)
difference $(4.00)
price variance $(14,040.00)
[tex](standard\:quantity-actual\:quantity) \times standard \: cost = DM \: quantity \: variance[/tex]
std quantity 3756.00 (939 units x 4 pounds per unit)
actual quantity 3530.00
std cost $25.00
difference 226.00
quantity variance $5,650.00
DIRECT LABOR VARIANCES
[tex](standard\:rate-actual\:rate) \times actual \: hours = DL \: rate \: variance[/tex]
std rate $40.00
actual rate $42.00
actual hours 5,350
difference $(2.00)
rate variance $(10,700.00)
[tex](standard\:hours-actual\:hours) \times standard \: rate = DL \: efficiency \: variance[/tex]
std hours 4680.00
actual hours 5350.00
std rate $40.00
difference -670.00
efficiency variance $(26,800.00)
The variances for Schmidt Machinery Company are as follows: Purchase-price variance for aluminum is $3,510 unfavorable, usage variance for aluminum is $6,420 favorable, direct labor rate variance is $10,700 unfavorable, and direct labor efficiency variance is $26,800 unfavorable.
Solution
Purchase-Price Variance for Aluminum:In each of the following cases, in the short run, determine whether the events cause a shift of a curve or a movement along a curve. Determine which curve is involved and the direction of the change.a) As a result of new discoveries of iron ore used to make steel, producers now pay less for steel, a major commodity and used in production.b) An increase in the money supply by the Federal Reserve increases the quantity of money that people wish to lend, lowering interest rates.c) Greater union activity leads to higher nominal wages.d) A fall in the aggregate price level increases the purchasing power of households' and firms' money holdings. As a result, they borrow less and lend more.
Answer: Please refer to Explanation
Explanation:
a) Due to the laws of supply and demand, new discoveries of Iron ore that have been discovered had the impact of reducing the price of Iron Ore. Iron Ore is a major component of Steel so it means Steel becomes cheaper to make. As a result of this, more steel will be produced. This would shift the short run AGGREGATE SUPPLY curve to the RIGHT.
b) The actions of the FED will result in the Short run AGGREGATE DEMAND CURVE shifting to the right. This is because interest rates are lower so people and businesses will borrow more for consumption and investment. Hence increasing Aggregate Demand.
c) Higher nominal wages will have to effect of increasing the labour cost for suppliers and producers. This would mean that input costs for Production will increase. This will have the impact of SHIFTING the short run AGGREGATE SUPPLY curve to the LEFT because the suppliers will supply less as it would be more expensive to produce more.
d) The AGGREGATE DEMAND CURVE is plotted against price. If prices drop, there will be a DOWNWARD movement ALONG the shortrun Aggregate Supply Curve as will buy more and invest more. I included a graph to demonstrate this.
In 2018, the Barton and Barton Company changed its method of valuing inventory from the FIFO method to the average cost method. At December 31, 2017, B & B’s inventories were $32 million (FIFO). B & B’s records indicated that the inventories would have totaled $23.8 million at December 31, 2017, if determined on an average cost basis. Ignoring income taxes, what journal entry will B & B use to record the adjustment in 2018? (If no entry is required for a transaction/event, select "No journal entry required" in the first account field. Enter your answers in millions rounded to 1 decimal place (i.e., 5,500,000 should be entered as 5.5).)
Answer:
In Barton and Barton Company's general journal, entry required include:
Debit Retained Earnings Account with $8.2 million
Credit Opening Inventory with $8.2 million
Being reversal of overstated inventory due to change from FIFO to Average cost method.
Explanation:
The debit entry to the Retained Earnings Account will reduce the balance by $8.2 million. The effect of overstating the closing inventory is overstatement of the net income because the cost of sales was understated as a result of the inventory overstatement.
The credit entry to the Opening Inventory reduces the balance to the new balance based on the average cost method of $23.8 million.
The FIFO cost method or First-In, First-Out method is an inventory costing method that assumes that goods that were bought first were the ones to be sold first. The inventory cost is therefore valued with the most recent quantity and cost price.
On the other hand, the Average Cost Method, also called the Weighted Average Cost Method, calculates the inventory cost by adding all the period's inventory and dividing it by the quantity for the period. This gives an average cost which is in turn used to multiply the quantity of inventory at the end of the period to obtain the inventory cost.
Both methods are estimates that produce different results and affect the reported net income differently. There is always the need for consistency in choosing the method to apply so that reported net income is not unduly distorted.
Consider the following three bond quotes: a Treasury note quoted at 97.844, a corporate bond quoted at 103.25, and a municipal bond quoted at 101.90. If the Treasury and corporate bonds have a par value of $1,000 and the municipal bond has a par value of $5,000, what is the price of these three bonds in dollars?
To determine the price of the bonds, multiply the quoted prices by their respective par values.
Explanation:To determine the price of the bonds, we need to multiply the quoted prices by their respective par values. For the Treasury note, we multiply 97.844 by $1,000 to get $97,844. For the corporate bond, we multiply 103.25 by $1,000 to get $103,250. For the municipal bond, we multiply 101.90 by $5,000 to get $509,500.
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In 2020, HD had reported a deferred tax asset of $250 million with no valuation allowance. At December 31, 2021, the account balances of HD Services showed a deferred tax asset of $320 million before assessing the need for a valuation allowance and income taxes payable of $120 million. HD determined that it was more likely than not that 30% of the deferred tax asset ultimately would not be realized. HD made no estimated tax payments during 2021. What amount should HD report as income tax expense in its 2021 income statement
Answer:
The answer given below;
Explanation:
Amount in Million $
Income tax payable-Unadjusted $120
Reversal of deferred tax asset $320*30%= $96
Total Income Tax Expense $216
As the deferred tax asset reversal will result in deferred tax expense therefore $216 in total will be reported as income tax expense.
Consider the Solow model, presented in chapter 7. Suppose that the economy is initially in a steady state and that some of the nation’s capital stock is destroyed because of a natural disaster or a war. (a) Determine the long-run effects of this on the quantity of capital per worker and on output per worker.
Answer:
Output per Worker will fall. Then, Net Investment will increase & steady state will be resumed.
Explanation:
As per Solows model : Output or income per worker depends on capital stock per worker.
Output per worker is directly related to capital per worker : more capital per worker implies more output per worker & vice versa. So, output per worker curve is upward sloping, dependent on capital per worker. However, output per worker rises at a diminishing rate with capital per worker. So, it is a swamp shaped curve.
Solow model steady state is where : constant proportion of this 'income per worker' saved & invested = constant depreciation of the existing capital stock.
Disaster or war reducing capital per worker : reduces the output per worker also [as they are directly related]. This denotes the state before the steady state. Here, saving (gross investment) per worker is more than depreciation of the existing capital stock. So, there will be net addition to capital stock. Capital stock & output per worker would increase, proceeding towards steady rate.
Bradford Company derived the following cost relationship from a regression analysis of its monthly manufacturing overhead cost: C = $83,000 + $12M where: C = monthly manufacturing overhead cost, and M = machine hours The standard error of estimate of the regression is $7,500. The standard time required to manufacture one six-unit case of Bradford's single product is two machine hours. Bradford applies manufacturing overhead to production on the basis of machine hours, and its normal annual production is 53,000 cases. Bradford's estimated variable manufacturing overhead cost for a month in which scheduled production is 5,300 cases would be:
Answer:
Bradford's estimated variable manufacturing overhead cost is $127,200
Explanation:
The cost function=$83,000+$12M
where M stands for machine hours required to produce the expected output in the month under review.
Each one-six unit case of Bradford's single product requires two machine hours,hence 5,300 cases would require 10,600 hours(5,300*2hrs).
Total estimated variable manufacturing overhead=cost per machine hour*expected number of machine hours
cost per machine hour is $12 as seen in the cost function
estimated variable manufacturing overhead=$12*10,600=$127,200
First Link Services granted 4.4 million of its $1 par common shares to executives, subject to forfeiture if employment is terminated within four years. The common shares have a market price of $5 per share on the grant date of the restricted stock award. 1. Ignoring taxes, what is the total compensation cost pertaining to the restricted shares? 2. Ignoring taxes, what is the effect on earnings in the year after the shares are granted to executives? (For all requirements, enter your answer in millions rounded to 2 decimal places (i.e., 5,500,000 should be entered as 5.50).)
Answer and Explanation:
First Link Services granted
1. Total compensation
$4.4 million × $5
=$ 22 million
2.
Dr Compensation Expenses 11 million
Cr Paid in capital restricted stock 11 million
Dr Paid in capital restricted stock 22 million
Cr Common stock 4.4 millon
Cr Paid in capital excess of 17.6 million
On July 1, 2012, you purchase a $10,000 par T-note that matures in five years. The coupon rate is 8 percent and the price quoted is 98.1875. The last coupon payment was May 1, 2012, and the next payment is November 1, 2012 (184 days total). The accrued interest is ______.
Answer:
$132.61
Explanation:
132.61 ((8%/2) x 10,000) x (61 days since last coupon/184) = $132.61
Final answer:
Accrued interest on a Treasury note is calculated based on the coupon rate, the purchase price, and the number of days since the last coupon payment. For a T-note purchased on July 1, 2012, with a last payment on May 1, 2012, the accrued interest is approximately $132.61.
Explanation:
The question pertains to the calculation of accrued interest on a Treasury note (T-note) with a coupon rate and a specific purchase price. To calculate this, we must determine the amount of interest that has accumulated since the last coupon payment until the purchase date. Given that the last payment was on May 1, 2012, and the purchase date is July 1, 2012, the following steps are followed:
Determine the total interest for a 6-month period, which would be: $10,000 × 0.08 / 2 = $400.
Calculate the number of days from the last payment to the purchase date: July 1 - May 1 = 61 days.
Calculate the daily interest rate: $400 / 184 days = $2.1739 per day.
Calculate the accrued interest: $2.1739 per day × 61 days = $132.6089.
Therefore, the accrued interest on the T-note as of July 1, 2012, is approximately $132.61.
An express warranty is created when a seller: makes an affirmation of fact or promise concerning the goods that becomes part of the basis of the bargain. uses descriptive terms as a part of the bargaining process, but the buyer does not take it into consideration when making the purchase. sells goods meant for use for ordinary purposes. avoids using a sample or model as the basis for the contract.
Question:
An express warranty is created when a seller:
A) makes an affirmation of fact or promise concerning the goods that becomes part of the basis of the bargain.
B) uses descriptive terms as a part of the bargaining process, but the buyer does not take it into consideration when making the purchase.
C) sells goods meant for use for ordinary purposes.
D) avoids using a sample or model as the basis for the contract.
Answer:
The correct choice is A)
An express warranty is created in the contract when a supplier makes a promise concerning the goods that the buyer can hold on to as an incentive to purchase the product.
Explanation:
For example, if a consumer buys a Laptop online, but when it arrives the item is the wrong specifications, wrong color, or is dented or damaged in anyway, an express warranty might entitle the consumer to a refund or replacement.
This warranty usually is stated upfront prior to or during the execution of the sales transaction.
Cheers!
S&P Enterprises will pay an annual dividend of $2.08 a share on its common stock next year. The firm just paid a dividend of $2.00 a share and adheres to a constant rate of growth dividend policy. What will one share of S&P common stock be worth ten years from now if the applicable discount rate is 8 percent?
Answer:
The price of the stock will be $76.97
Explanation:
We first need to determine the constant growth rate on dividends.
Growth rate (g) = (D1 - D0) / D0
Growth rate (g) = (2.08 - 2.00) / 2 = 0.04 or 4%
To calculate the price of a stock today whose dividends are growing at a constant rate, we use the constant growth model of DDM. The price of the stock today under this model is,
P0 = D1 / ( r - g )
Where,
D1 is the dividend expected for the next yearr is the required rate of returng is the growth rateThus, to calculate the price of the stock today at t=10, we will use the dividend expected in Year 11 or D11.
D11 = D0 * (1+g)^11
Where P10 is the price 10 years from today.
P10 = 2 * (1+0.04)^11 / (0.08 - 0.04)
P10 = $76.97
Your uncle, Larson E. Whipsnade, has asked you for some financial advice. His retirement savings are currently invested as follows: $30,000 in the risk-free asset and $70,000 in GM stock. He wants to know if this is a sensible portfolio. You decide to analyze it based on the CAPM model.
You look in a Beta Book and find that GM stock has a Beta of 1.1 and the R2 of the regression is 0.40. Microsoft stock has a Beta of 0.8 and the R2 of the regression is 0.30. Suppose further that the correlation between the return to GM stock and the return to Microsoft stock is 0.3.
If the market return have the standard deviation 20%, compute the variance and standard deviation in current portofolio.
Answer:
Explanation:
If the market return was known, our calculation would have been easier
[tex]As Portfolio variance = (W1S1)2+(W2S2)2+(W3S3)2+2W1S1W2S2P12+2W2S3W3S3P23+2W1S1W3S3P13[/tex]
Where W=Weight, S= Standard Deviation, P=Covariance
1= General Motors, 2= Microsoft and 3= Risk free Asset
It gets easier as
All Weights (W) are known, W1= 0.4, W2= 0.4 and W3= 0.2
S1 and S2 can be easily found out and S3 is zero (Standard Deviation of Risk Free Asset)
Covariance (P) of any stock with risk free asset is zero, so P23 and P13 are zero
We need S1, S2, P12
+As Beta of GM = 1.1 and Standard Deviation of Market = 0.2 and R2 of GM = 0.4
We can find S1 by the formula Beta=(Sd of Stock/Sd of Market) * RGM2
Standard Deviation of Gm (S1) = BetaGM * (Standard Deviation of Market / RGM2 )
= 1.1 * (0.2 / 0.4)
= 0.55
+As Beta of Microsoft = 0.8 and Standard Deviation of Market = 0.2 and R2 of Microsoft = 0.3
We can find S2 by the formula Beta=(Sd of Stock/Sd of Market) * RM2
Standard Deviation of Gm (S2) = BetaM * (Standard Deviation of Market / RM2 )
= 0.8 * (0.2 / 0.3)
= 0.5333333
+As Correlation between Microsoft and General Motors is given as 0.3 and S1and S2 are known from above,
Covariance of General Motors and Microsoft (P12) can be found out from the formula
Corelation 12 = Covariance 12/(Standard Deviation 1 * Standard Deviation2)
So Covariance of the Stocks P12 = Corelation12 * S1 * S2
= 0.3 * 0.55 * 0.533
= 0.087945 or 0.088
So Portfolio Variance = (W1S1)2+(W2S2)2++2W1S1W2S2P12
Note
[any term with S3 gets cancelled hence, omitted for easier comprehension]
= (0.4*0.55)2+(0.4*0.533)2+2(0.4)(0.55)(0.4)(0.533)(0.88)
= 0.0484 + 0.04545 + 0.008255
= 0.102105 or 0.102
= √0.102
= 0.3195 or 0.32
The variance and standard deviation of a portfolio can be calculated using the weights and variances of each investment. In this case, the risk-free asset has a weight of 0.3 and the GM stock has a weight of 0.7. The portfolio variance is 0.1694 and the standard deviation is 0.4119.
Explanation:The variance and standard deviation of a portfolio can be calculated by considering the weights and variances of each individual investment in the portfolio.
To calculate the variance of the portfolio, you can use the formula:
Variance = (Weight of asset 1 * Variance of asset 1) + (Weight of asset 2 * Variance of asset 2)
In this case, the risk-free asset has a weight of $30,000/$100,000 = 0.3 and the GM stock has a weight of $70,000/$100,000 = 0.7.
Since the risk-free asset has no variance, its contribution to the portfolio variance is 0. To calculate the variance of the GM stock, you can use the formula:
Variance of GM stock = Beta^2 * Variance of market = 1.1^2 * 0.2^2 = 0.242.
Using the weights and variances, we can calculate the portfolio variance as:
Variance = (0.3 * 0) + (0.7 * 0.242) = 0.1694.
The standard deviation is the square root of the variance. Therefore, the standard deviation of the portfolio is:
Standard deviation = sqrt(0.1694) = 0.4119.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of profit sharing plans? Group of answer choices Employees must trust that management will accurately disclose financial and profit information. Employees are taxed heavily on the income that they generate from profit sharing plans. Employers get little or no rebate on income tax for choosing profit sharing plans. Employees cannot access the funds that they receive from profit sharing plans for up to three years.
Final answer:
One noted disadvantage of profit-sharing plans is the necessity for employees to trust that management will accurately and transparently disclose the company's financial and profit information.
Explanation:
The disadvantage of profit sharing plans often noted is that employees must trust that management will accurately disclose financial and profit information. With profit and earnings distributed among employees, there's a direct correlation between the success of the business and benefits for employees—which can lead to improved productivity. However, the transparency necessary in financial disclosures does require trust in management's reporting.
As for the specific disadvantage choices provided, taxes on profit sharing plans are not necessarily heavier than on regular income, employers can receive tax benefits for contributing to retirement accounts of employees (though this depends on the jurisdiction and specific plan details), and employees can often access their profit sharing funds before three years in certain circumstances, such as financial hardship or plan rules.
Middlefield Motors is evaluating project A, which would require the purchase of a piece of equipment for 395,000 dollars. During year 1, project A is expected to have relevant revenue of 143,000 dollars, relevant costs of 57,000 dollars, and some depreciation. Middlefield Motors would need to borrow 395,000 dollars for the equipment and would need to make an interest payment of 31,600 dollars to the bank in year 1. Relevant net income for project A in year 1 is expected to be 39,000 dollars and operating cash flows for project A in year 1 are expected to be 80,000 dollars. Straight-line depreciation would be used. What is the tax rate expected to be in year 1? Answer as a rate in decimal format so that 12.34% would be entered as .1234 and 0.98% would be entered as .0098.
Answer:
First calculate depreciation
Operating cash flow = Net profit + Depreciation
=68000 = 33000+ Depreciation
Depreciation = 68000-33000
=35000$
Now let's calculate EBT
EBT = Revenue - cost - depreciation
= 146000-74000-35000
=37000$
Now , EBIT - Tax = Net Income
=37000 - Tax = 33000
Thus Tax = 4000
Tax rate = Tax amount/EBT
=4000/37000
=0.1081
i.e 10.81%
Explanation:
Schedule of Cash Collections of Accounts Receivable OfficeMart Inc. has "cash and carry" customers and credit customers. OfficeMart estimates that 25% of monthly sales are to cash customers, while the remaining sales are to credit customers. Of the credit customers, 30% pay their accounts in the month of sale, while the remaining 70% pay their accounts in the month following the month of sale. Projected sales for the next three months are as follows: October $58,000 November 65,000 December 72,000 The Accounts Receivable balance on September 30 was $35,000. Prepare a schedule of cash collections from sales for October, November, and December. Enter all amounts as positive numbers. OfficeMart Inc. Schedule of Cash Collections from Sales For the Three Months Ending December 31 October November December Receipts from cash sales: Cash sales $ $ $ September sales on account: Collected in October October sales on account: Collected in October Collected in November November sales on account: Collected in November Collected in December December sales on account: Collected in December Total cash collected $ $ $
Answer and Explanation:
The preparation of the schedule of cash collections from sales for October, November, and December is presented below:
Particulars October November December
Sales $58,000 $65,000 $72,000
Cash sales $14,500 $16,250 $18,000
($58,000 × 0.25) ($65000 × 0.25) ($72,000 ×.25 )
Credit sale $43,500 $48,750 $54,000
($58,000 - $14,500)
September account receivable $35,000
current month payment
October credit sale: $13,050 $30,450
($43,500 × 30%) (43500 ×70%)
November credit sale $14,625 $34,125
($48,750 × 30%) (48750 × 70% )
December credit sale: $16,200
($54,000 × 30% )
Total cash collected $62,550 $61,325 $68,325
($14,500 + $35,000 + $13,050) ($16,250 + $30,450 + $14,625) ($18,000 + $34,125 + $16,200)
OfficeMart Inc. Schedule of Cash Collections from Sales for the Three Months Ending December 31: $39,750, $61,450, $66,000.
The Schedule of Cash Collections from Sales for OfficeMart Inc. is designed to outline the expected cash receipts for the three months ending December 31. The calculation takes into account the company's sales mix between cash and credit customers, as well as the payment patterns of credit customers.
For the month of October, the schedule includes cash collections from cash sales and collections from credit customers for both September and October sales. Given that 25% of sales are estimated to be in cash, the remaining 75% represents credit sales. Of these credit sales, 30% are collected in the same month, and the remaining 70% are collected in the following month.
In November, the schedule incorporates cash collections from cash sales and credit collections for both October and November sales. The same methodology is applied, considering the estimated percentages for cash and credit sales, as well as the collection patterns.
For December, the schedule includes collections from cash sales and credit collections for November and December sales. The calculations maintain the proportions of cash and credit sales and incorporate the expected collection timings.
The total cash collected for each month is the sum of cash sales and the collections from credit customers based on the specified percentages and payment patterns. The resulting figures of $39,750 for October, $61,450 for November, and $66,000 for December represent the anticipated cash inflows for each respective month.
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Walters Audio Visual, Inc., offers a stock option plan to its regional managers. On January 1, 2016, options were granted for 40 million $1 par common shares. The exercise price is the market price on the grant date, $8 per share. Options cannot be exercised prior to January 1, 2018, and expire December 31, 2022. The fair value of the options, estimated by an appropriate option pricing model, is $2 per option. Because the plan does not qualify as an incentive plan, Walters will receive a tax deduction upon exercise of the options equal to the excess of the market price at exercise over the exercise price. The income tax rate is 40%.
Required: 1. Determine the total compensation cost pertaining to the stock option plan. (Enter your answer in millions (i.e., 10,000,000 should be entered as 10).)
2. Prepare the necessary journal entries. (If no entry is required for a transaction/event, select "No journal entry required" in the first account field. Enter your answers in millions (i.e., 10,000,000 should be entered as 10).)
1. Record compensation expense on December 31, 2016.
2. Record any tax effect related to compensation expense recorded in 2016.
3. Record compensation expense on December 31, 2017.
4. Record any tax effect related to compensation expense recorded in 2017.
5. Record the exercise of the options on March 20, 2021 when the market price is $12 per share.
6. Record any tax effect related to the exercise of the options.
Answer:
Explanation:
1. Determine the total compensation cost pertaining to the stock option plan:-
Estimated fair value per option $2
X Option granted 40 million
Total compensation $ 80 million
The Polaris Company uses a job-order costing system. The following data relate to October, the first month of the company’s fiscal year.
Raw materials purchased on account $210,000.
Raw materials used to production, $190,000 ($178,000 direct materials amd $12,000 indirect materials).
Direct labor cost incurred, $90,000; indirect labor cost incurred, $110,00.
Depreciation recorded on factory equipmentnt, $40,000.
Other manufacturing overhead costs incurred during October, $70,000 (credit Accounts Payable).
The company applies manufacturing overhead cost to production on the basis of $8 per machine-hour. A total of 30,000 machine-hours were recorded for October.
Production orders costing $520,00 according to their job cost sheets were completed during October and transferred to Finished Goods.
Production orders that had cost $480,000 to complete according to their job cost sheets were shipped to customers during the month. These goods were sold on account at 25% above cost.
Required: 1. Prepare journal entries to record the information given above.
Prepare T-accounts for Manufacturing Overhead and Work in Process. Post the relevant information about to each account. Compute the ending balance in each account, assuming that Work in Process has a beginning balance of $42,000.
Answer:
Requirement 1
J1
Raw materials $210,000 (debit)
Trade Payable $210,000 (credit)
J2
Work -In- Progress - Direct materials $178,000 (debit)
Work -In- Progress - Indirect materials $12,000 (debit)
Raw materials $190,000
J2
Work -In- Progress - Direct labor $90,000 (debit)
Work -In- Progress - Indirect labor $110,000 (debit)
Wages and Salaries Payable $200,000(credit)
J4
Work -In- Progress - Depreciation $40,000 (debit)
Accumulated Depreciation - factory equipment $40,000 (credit)
J5
Overheads $70,000 (debit)
Payable $70,000 (credit)
J6
Work -In- Progress $240,000 (debit)
Overheads $240,000 (credit)
J7
Finished Goods $520,000 (debit)
Work - In - Progress $520,000 (credit)
Requirement 2
Manufacturing Overhead Account
Debit :
Payable $70,000
Under-Applied Overheads $170,000
Credit:
Work-in-Progress $240,000
Work in Process Account
Debit :
Work in Process Beginning $42,000
Raw materials $190,000
Wages and Salaries Payable $200,000
Accumulated Depreciation - factory equipment $40,000
Credit:
Finished Goods $520,000
Work in Process Ending $42,000
Explanation:
Prepare the journals as appropriate.
JDS Shipyard's projected benefit obligation, accumulated benefit obligation, and plan assets were $40 million, $30 million, and $25 million, respectively, at the end of the year. a. What, if any, pension liability or pension asset must be reported in the balance sheet? b. What, if any, pension liability or pension asset must be reported in the balance sheet if the plan assets were $45 million instead?
Answer:
The correct answer for option (a) is $15 million and for option (b) is -$5 million.
Explanation:
According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:
Projected benefit obligation = $40 million
Accumulated benefit obligation = $30 million
Plan assets = $25 million
(a). We can calculate the pension liability by using following formula:
Pension liability = Projected benefit obligation - Plan assets
= $40 million - $25 million
= $15 million
(b). If Plan assets = $45 million
Than, Pension liability = $40 million - $45 million
= -$5 million
Final answer:
JDS Shipyard has to report a pension liability of $15 million with plan assets of $25 million and a pension asset of $15 million with plan assets of $45 million. Accurately reporting pension liabilities or assets is essential for assessing an organization's long-term solvency.
Explanation:
When examining JDS Shipyard's pension situation, we need to consider the projected benefit obligation (PBO), accumulated benefit obligation (ABO), and plan assets to determine the pension liability or asset that must be reported on the balance sheet.
a. Pension Liability with Plan Assets of $25 million
The PBO is $40 million and the plan assets are $25 million, resulting in a pension liability of $15 million ($40 million PBO - $25 million assets) that must be reported on the balance sheet as the plan assets are less than the PBO.b. Pension Asset with Plan Assets of $45 million
If the plan assets were instead $45 million, the accumulated benefit obligation (ABO) is the relevant measure since it is lower than both the PBO and plan assets. The pension asset reported would be $15 million ($45 million assets - $30 million ABO) as the plan assets exceed the ABO.The importance of accurately reporting pension liabilities or assets can't be overstated as it affects the organization's long-term solvency. This is critical for understanding how such obligations will impact future cash flows and organizational sustainability.
Suppose that a monopolistically competitive restaurant is currently serving 240 meals per day (the output where MR = MC). At that output level, ATC per meal is $10 and consumers are willing to pay $13 per meal. Instructions: Enter your answers as whole numbers. a. What is the size of this firm’s profit or loss? b. Will there be entry or exit? Will this restaurant’s demand curve shift left or right? c. Suppose that the allocatively efficient output level in long-run equilibrium is 200 meals. In long-run equilibrium, suppose that this restaurant charges $11 per meal for 180 meals and that the marginal cost of the 180th meal is $9. What is the size of the firm’s economic profit? d. Suppose that the allocatively efficient output level in long-run equilibrium is 200 meals. In long-run equilibrium, suppose that this restaurant charges $11 per meal for 180 meals and that the marginal cost of the 180th meal is $9. Is the deadweight loss for this firm greater than or less than $40?
Answer:
The restaurant's profit per meal= consumers WTP for per meal - ATC per meal = $13 - $10 = $3
Given that restaurants sells 240 meals per day at this price the profit is
= $3 * 240 = $720
A) The size of the firms profit is $ 720.
B) As it can be seen that firm is making profit so there will be an entry into the industry since the other firms will try to capture some of the economic profit.
Also, the entry of other firms will reduce the demand for the restaurant which will lead the demand curve to shift to the left.
C) Now, the allocative efficient output level in long-run equilibrium is 200 meals. In the long-run, restaurant charges $11 per meal for 180 meal and the marginal cost of 180th meal is $9.
Thus, the size of the economic profits in the long run is always zero in monopolistic competitive market.
D) The dead-weight loss for the firm is exactly equal to $40 because the difference between the Marginal Benefit as given by the demand curve i.e., $11 and the Marginal Cost as given by the MC curve is $9, so the difference is equal to $2 ($11 - $9) for all the units between 180th and 200th.
Thus, the dead-weight loss is = $2 * (200-180)
= $2 * 20
= $40
Hence the dead-weight loss is $40.
The monopolistically competitive restaurant makes a profit of $720 which signals potential entry of more restaurants to the market. In the long-run equilibrium, if the restaurant charges $11 per meal and the marginal cost of the meal is $9, the company would make an economic profit of $360. The Deadweight loss to society if this firm is producing less than the allocatively efficient quantity will be exactly $40.
Explanation:a. In the case of the monopolistically competitive restaurant, the firm's total cost per meal is $10, while the price at which consumers are willing to pay is $13. Therefore, the profit per meal is the difference between the price and the cost, which is $3. Total profit is then $3 multiplied by the number of meals served, or $3 x 240 = $720, so this restaurant firm is making a profit of $720.
b. As the restaurant is making a profit, this is a signal for entry in the long run, implying that more restaurants will open up and start providing meals to customers. This competition will push prices down and move the restaurant's demand curve left, as it won't be able to command such high prices with more competition.
c. If in the long-run equilibrium this restaurant serves 180 meals at $11 and the marginal cost of the 180th meal is $9, then profit per meal is $2. The entire economic profit of the firm in this case will be $2 x 180 = $360.
d. Assuming the allocatively efficient output level in long-run equilibrium is 200 meals, but the company only produces 180 meals, the difference in production is 20 meals. If the price charged is $11 and the marginal cost is $9, then the total deadweight loss is $2 X 20 = $40. Therefore, the deadweight loss for this firm is exactly $40, not less or greater.
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Countercyclical monetary policy means that _________________. Select the correct answer below: the Fed lowers interest rates during recessions and raises them during economic booms the Fed raises interest rates during recessions and lowers them during economic booms the Fed lowers interest rates during both recessions and economic booms the Fed raises interest rates during both recessions and economic booms
Answer:
the Fed lowers interest rates during recessions and raises them during economic booms
Explanation:
Countercyclical monetary policy is a monetary policy used to work against any cyclical tendencies in order to slow down the economy when it is booming, and to stimulate economic activity then there is a recession.
Example of such policy is therefore a reduction of interest by the Fed during recessions and an increase of interest rate when there are economic booms.
Wilson’s is reviewing a project with an internal rate of return of 13.09 percent and a beta of 1.42. The market risk premium is 8.1 percent, the tax rate is 35 percent, and the risk-free rate is 2.9 percent. The firm's WACC is 12.68 percent. Will the project be accepted if the WACC is used as the discount rate for the project? Should the project be accepted according to the CAPM, and why or why not?
Answer:
Accepted and rejected
Explanation:
Since the internal rate of return is 13.09% and the WACC is 12.68%
As we can see that the internal rate of return is higher than the WACC as WACC is considered as the discount rate
So the project should be accepted
And, if CAPM is used
So, the expected rate of return is
If CAPM is used
Risk-free rate of return + Beta × market risk premium
= 2.9% + 1.42 × 8.1%
= 2.9% + 11.502%
= 14.40%
And, The Internal rate of return = 13.09%
Since the internal rate of return is less than the expected rate of return therefore the project should be rejected
Frankfurter Company, a U.S. company, had a ruble receivable from exports to Russia and a euro payable resulting from imports from Italy. Frankfurter recorded foreign exchange loss related to both its ruble receivable and euro payable. Did the foreign currencies increase or decrease in dollar value from the date of the transaction to the settlement date? Ruble Euro A) Increase Decrease B) Decrease Decrease C) Decrease Increase D) No change Decrease E) Increase Increase
Answer:
The correct option is C.
Explanation:
Foreign exchange gain or loss is the gain or loss made on transactions based on the movement in the exchange rates.
Ruble receivable from export to Russia: For Frankfurter Company to have recorded a foreign exchange loss, as at the time the transaction was consummated the exchange rate would have been higher compared to the rate of settlement. For example, if 1 ruble = $1.5 on April 1 (when the export was made), on settlement date, it moved to 1 ruble = $1.4, the company would suffer a loss of $0.1. You just need to multiply this $0.1 by the value of the exports.Euro payable from imports from Italy: For the company to have suffered a foreign exchange loss, it means the exchange rate was not favorable at the time of settlement of the payment - means the exchange rate moved higher.Variable and Absorption Costing Scott Manufacturing makes only one product with total unit manufacturing costs of $56, of which $38 is variable. No units were on hand at the beginning of 2015. During 2015 and 2016, the only product manufactured was sold for $87 per unit, and the cost structure did not change. Scott uses the first-in, first-out inventory method and has the following production and sales for 2015 and 2016 Units Manufactured Units Sold 2015 120,000 90,000 2016 120,000 130,000 a. Prepare gross profit computations for 2015 and 2016 using absorption costing.
Answer:
Gross profit computations for 2015 and 2016 using absorption costing
2015 2016
Sales $7,830,000 $11,310,000
Less Cost of Goods Sold ($5,040,000) ($7,280,000)
Opening Stock 0 $1,680,000
Add Cost of Manufacture $6,720,000 $6,720,000
Less Closing Stock ($1,680,000) ($1,120,000)
Gross Profit $2,790,000 $4,030,000
Explanation:
Absorption Costing Product Cost = Direct Material + Direct Labor + Variable Overheads + Fixed Overheads
Gross profit computations for 2015 and 2016 using absorption costing
2015 2016
Sales $7,830,000 $11,310,000
Less Cost of Goods Sold ($5,040,000) ($7,280,000)
Opening Stock 0 $1,680,000
Add Cost of Manufacture $6,720,000 $6,720,000
Less Closing Stock ($1,680,000) ($1,120,000)
Gross Profit $2,790,000 $4,030,000
2015
Cost of Manufacture = $56×120,000 = $6,720,000
Closing Stock = $56× (120,000-90,000) = $1,680,000
2016
Cost of Manufacture = $56×120,000 = $6,720,000
Closing Stock = $56× (30,000+120,000-130,000) = $1,120,000