Answer:
True
Explanation:
Polymorphism is a phenomenon that arises when proteins, DNA and RNA can appear with different molecular forms. Polymorphism is characterized as single nucleotide polymorphism when molecular variation occurred in only one nitrogenous DNA base, thus causing genetic variation in a population. This type of polymorphism is very important to regulate the gene expression of individuals and to measure the progression of a disease. This requires that the unique nucleotide polymorphism be identified. This identification occurs through biochemical, evolutionary and genetic evidence.
Achondroplasia is a form of dwarfism caused by a dominant allele. The homozygous dominant genotype causes prenatal death, so individuals who have this condition are all heterozygotes. In the questions below, show how you came to your answer.
a) If a person with achondroplasia mates with a person of average height who does not have achondroplasia, what percentage of their children would be expected to be of average height?
b) If two persons with achondroplasia have children, what percentage of their children would be expected to have achondroplasia?
Answer:
The correct answers are
Question a) "50%".
Question b) "66%".
Explanation:
Achondroplasia is caused by a dominant allele, which means that a person with a "A" allele will develop this condition. In this case, all the people with Achondroplasia are heterozygotes "Aa" because the dominant genotype "AA" causes prenatal death. If a person with achondroplasia "Aa" mates with a person of average height "aa", the expected percentage of children with average height will be 50%, since there are 50% of chances of having "aa" children and 50% chances of having "Aa" children. Also, If two persons with achondroplasia have children ("Aa" x "Aa") , the expected percentage of children with achondroplasia will be 66%. The probability of having children with the "Aa" genotype is 50%, however since the "AA" genotype causes prenatal death, this genotype is not considered in the percentage.
In mating scenarios involving individuals with achondroplasia, the expected percentage of average-height children varies. A pairing with an average-height individual could yield 50% average-height children, while a pairing between two achondroplasia-affected individuals could yield 25% average-height children (with another 25% unfortunately dying in utero due to homozygous dominance).
Explanation:Achondroplasia is indeed a form of dwarfism caused by a dominant allele. As you mentioned, a homozygous dominant genotype can lead to prenatal death. Those with this condition are hence heterozygous (Dd), where 'D' represents the dominant allele for achondroplasia and 'd' the recessive allele for average height.
a) If a person with achondroplasia (Dd) mates with a person of average height (dd), the potential genotypes of their offspring would be Dd and dd. This means 50% of their children would be expected to exhibit achondroplasia, and 50% would be of average height.
b) If two persons with achondroplasia (Dd) have children, the potential offspring genotypes would be DD, Dd, and dd. As homozygous dominance (DD) results in prenatal death, and d represents the recessive allele for average height, we'd expect 25% of their children to die in utero (DD), 25% to be of average height (dd), and 50% to have achondroplasia (Dd).
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might you be likely to see inselbergs in hilly or mountainous areas?
Answer:
No
Explanation:
Inselberg is a prominent part of the relief, normally seen in flat plains and not in mountainous regions. Inselbergs are generally remnants of areas that have resisted the processes of pediplanation and pedogenesis, thus forming a high part of the relief. It is characterized as a region rich in vegetation and biodiversity.
A plant developed a mineral deficiency after being treated with a fungicide. What is the most probable cause of the deficiency?
A plant developed a mineral deficiency after being treated with a fungicide.
Cause of deficiency:The most probable cause of deficiency is that mineral receptor proteins in the plant membrane were not functioning.
Plant growth and development largely depend on the combination and concentration of mineral nutrients available in the soil. Symptoms of nutrient deficiency may include stunted growth, death of plant tissue, or yellowing of the leaves caused by a reduced production of chlorophyll, a pigment needed for photosynthesis.Due to mineral deficiency a plant cannot get enough of a particular mineral from the soil for healthy growth.Soil is a major source of nutrients needed by plants for growth. The three main nutrients are nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P) and potassium (K).
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The fungicide likely caused the mineral deficiency by damaging the helpful microbes in the soil that are integral for nutrient absorption by the plant's root system.
Explanation:The most probable cause of the mineral deficiency in the plant after being treated with fungicide is the destruction of symbiotic microbiomes in the soil, specifically in the root system of the plant. These microbiomes often play critical roles in nutrient cycling and availability to plants, aiding in the absorption of essential minerals. The fungicide, while targeting harmful fungi, may have inadvertently damaged these beneficial microbiomes, disrupting the nutrient uptake of the plant and leading to a mineral deficiency.
For instance, this is seen in diseases like wheat take-all which is caused by a fungus that attacks plant roots and disrupts water and nutrient channels. The soil's microbiome plays a direct role in the plant's immunity to such diseases. If a fungicide disrupts this, it can lead to the plant lacking certain minerals as the absorption mechanisms are affected.
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The smooth muscle that alters the diameter of the pupil is the
Answer:
Circular and Radial muscles.
Explanation:
The pupilarry response is the variation of pupil's size due to a variety of causes (exposure to light, sexual stimulation, drugs) and it consists of two movements, constriction and dilation.
The constrict response occurs thanks to the circular muscle and the dilations is triggered by the radial muscle, both of them are smooth muscle.
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List three reasons why the connective tissue sheaths of skeletal muscle are important
Answer:
Explanation:
These are the three reasons why the connective tissue wrappings of the skeletal muscle are important:
- Supporting and binding the muscle fibers.
- Providing strength to the muscle as a whole.
- Provide a route for the entry and exit of nerves and blood vessels that serve the muscle fibers.
Skeletal muscle has three different connective tissue layers: the whole muscle is enclosed by a dense connective tissue sheath called the epimysium, cells (fibers), like other body cells, are soft and fragile. The connective tissue covering furnish support and protection for the delicate cells and allow them to withstand the forces of contraction.
There are more indirect muscle attachments than direct—that is, tendinous-muscle attachments than direct muscle attachments because of their small size, more tendons can pass over a joint.
The connective tissue sheaths of skeletal muscle are important for protection, support and organization, and transmission of force.
Explanation:The connective tissue sheaths of skeletal muscle are important for several reasons:
Protection: The connective tissue sheaths help protect the delicate muscle fibers from damage.Support and organization: They provide structural support and help to organize the muscle fibers into functional units called fascicles.Transmission of force: The connective tissue sheaths help transmit the force generated by the muscle fibers to the tendons, which then attach to the bones, allowing movement.Learn more about Importance of connective tissue sheaths in skeletal muscle here:https://brainly.com/question/34281172
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Atractyloside is a poison that inhibits the transport of ADP from the cytosol across the mitochondrial membranes and into the mitochondrial matrix. The direct effect of this drug is to stop ATP synthesis because:
Answer: ADP is a necessary substrate for the reaction catalyzed by ATP synthase.
Explanation:
ATP- Adenosine Triphosphate
ADP- Adenosine Diphosphate
ATP is the most commonly used energy currency of cells in organisms. ATP synthase is an enzyme that creates ATP which stores energy. ADP/ATP carrier transports ADP into the mitochondria for oxidative phosphorylation to ATP, the ATP is then transported out of the mitochondria for use as a cellular fuel.
Atractyloside works by inhibiting the exchange of ATP from the mitochondria with adenosine diphosphate (ADP) in the cytosol, thereby also inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation.
Atractyloside binds to the ADP/ATP translocase, which is found on the inner mitochondrial membrane. As a result of this, the exchange of ADP and ATP is prevented and the cell die due to lack of energy.
Final answer:
Atractyloside inhibits ADP transport into the mitochondria, preventing ADP from being converted to ATP by ATP synthase, thus stopping ATP synthesis.
Explanation:
Atractyloside is a poison that inhibits the transport of ADP from the cytosol into the mitochondrial matrix by interfering with the adenine nucleotide transport protein of the mitochondrial membrane. This transport protein normally facilitates the exchange of ATP with ADP across the inner mitochondrial membrane. When ADP cannot enter the mitochondria, it cannot be converted back into ATP by the enzyme ATP synthase, which is powered by the proton gradient established by the electron transport chain. This inhibition ultimately results in the cessation of ATP synthesis, which is the direct effect of atractyloside poisoning. Inhibitors like oligomycin and atractyloside highlight the fragility and specificity of the oxidative phosphorylation process that is crucial for energy production in cells.
Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough by
A) irritating the diaphragm, which leads to severe coughing attacks.
B) forming a pseudomembrane that obstructs the respiratory passages.
C) interfering with the activity of ciliated epithelial cells in the trachea.
D) suppressing mucus production.
E) the development of pneumonia.
Answer:
The answer is letter C
Explanation:
Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough by interfering with the activity of ciliated epithelial cells in the trachea.
Gray seed color in peas is dominant to white. Assume that Mendel conducted a series of experiments where plants with gray seeds were crossed among themselves, and the following progeny were produced: 302 gray and 98 white.
(a) What is the most probable genotype of each parent?
(b) Based on your answer in (a) above, what genotypic and phenotypic ratios are expected in these progeny? (Assume the following symbols: G = gray and g = white.)
A) (a) GG . gg; (b) genotypic = 3:1, phenotypic = 1:2:1
B) (a) Gg . Gg; (b) genotypic = 1:2:1, phenotypic = 3:1
C) (a) GG . Gg; (b) genotypic = 1:2:1, phenotypic = 2:1
D) (a) gg . Gg; (b) genotypic = 1:2, phenotypic = 3:1
Answer:
(a) Gg × Gg; (b) genotypic = 1:2:1, phenotypic = 3:1
Explanation:
a) A cross between two gray seeded plants produces progeny with gray and white seeds in 3:1 ratio (302:98=3:1). This means that the parent plants are heterozygous and each has at least one recessive allele. If the allele "G" is responsible for gray seed and the allele "g" imparts white color to the seeds, the genotype of the heterozygous parents would be "Gg".
b) A cross between two heterozygous gray seeded parents would produce progeny in following ratio:
Genotype ratio= 1 GG: 2 Gg: 1 gg
Phenotype ratio= 3 Gray: 1 white
The most probable genotype for parents producing both gray and white-colored seeds in a 3:1 phenotypic ratio is heterozygous (Gg . Gg), leading to a genotypic ratio of 1:2:1 and phenotypic ratio of 3:1 in their progeny.
Explanation:The question involves the inheritance of seed color in pea plants, which pertains to the subject of Biology at the High School level. When gray seed color (dominant) in peas is crossed among themselves resulting in 302 gray seedlings and 98 white, the most probable genotype of each parent is (a) Gg . Gg; this means both parents were heterozygous for the gray seed color trait. Accordingly, (b) the genotypic ratio expected in these progeny is 1:2:1, and the phenotypic ratio is 3:1, favoring gray over white seed color.
A mutation has occurred in the sequence in the promoter region of a bacterial gene, such that the sequence TTGACA has been lost. What process will be most directly affected by this mutation?
RNA polymerase II bindingSplicingTranscription initiationTranslation initiation
Answer: Transcription initiation
Explanation:
In genetics, a promoter is a region of DNA that leads to initiation of transcription of a particular gene. Promoters are located near the transcription start sites of genes, upstream on the DNA (towards the 5' region of the sense strand).
Depending on the location and the nature of the genetic defect, ( for example if the sequence TTGACA has been lost), a mutation in the promoter region of a gene may disrupt the normal processes of gene activation by disturbing the ordered recruitment of TRANSCRIPTION FACTORS (TFs) at the promoter.
RNA polymerase || is just the main transcription enzyme.
A scientist uses polymerase chain reaction (PCR) to compare the sequence of a disease gene and a healthy gene. The scientist finds that these two genes are identical except for one G in place of a T at position 256 in the gene. This type of mutation is a(n)________
Answer:
The correct answer would be - point mutation.
Explanation:
Point mutation occurs when there is a change or alteration in one base pair in the DNA sequence is altered. In the given question there is only one base pair that is altered to Guanine from thymine.
It is a mutation that takes place due to mistakes or errors in the process of DNA replication. Other then the error in this condition can be induced by exposure to the radiation of X rays and UV rays.
Thus, the correct answer is - point mutation.
Final answer:
A substitution mutation is when one nucleotide base is replaced by another, and in this case, it is a point mutation or a single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP).
Explanation:
The type of mutation described, where one nucleotide is replaced by another nucleotide in the DNA sequence, is known as a substitution mutation. Specifically, due to the exchange of Guanine (G) to Thymine (T) at a particular position, this is termed a point mutation or single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP). These mutations can occur as errors during DNA replication or repair, and depending on their location and the resulting changes to the amino acid sequence, they can have a variety of impacts on gene function. For example, diseases like sickle cell anemia are a result of a single base substitution leading to a change in the protein's structure and function.
Compare and contrast serine proteases and aspartic proteases by completing the phrases. drag each answer to the appropriate blank (target). not all answers will be used.
Answer:
read the explanation.
Explanation:
Both are enzymes, both has active sites because they are enzymes. A difference is that serine proteases has serine aminoacids in it active site. The aspartic proteases has an activated water molecule bond to one or more aspartate aminoacid in its active site.
Serine proteases are two main kinds, chymotrypsin and subtilisin kind. Aspartic proteases are three main kinds, pepsin, cathepsin and renins.
Serine proteases are found either in eukaryotes and prokaryotes, meanwhile the aspartic proteases are found mainly in eukaryotes as molds and yeast but rarely in prokaryotes such as bacteria.
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Which of the following is a vascular organ in the abdomen that can produce blood loss quickly enough to result in life-threatening hemorrhage following high mechanism of injury blunt trauma?
a) intestines
b) liver
c) pancreas
d) kidneys
Answer:
The correct answer is b) liver.
Explanation:
The liver develops many functions in the body. It's also the biggest solid organ in the body, meaning that it has a lot of irrigation. An injury in an organ that's so full of blood could cause severe hemorrhage.
In C3 plants the conservation of water promotes _____.
a. photosynthesis
b. a shift to C4 photosynthesis
c. the opening of stomata
d. photorespiration
e. the light reactions
Answer:
The correct option is d. In C3 plants the conservation of water promotes photorespiration.
Explanation:
Photorespiration is a metabolic pathway that leads to the loss of half the carbon fixed by photosynthesis, it occurs when the rubisco enzyme (which is responsible for carrying out the carbon fixation) of the Calvin cycle acts on oxygen instead of dioxide carbon. Photorespiration occurs in C3 plants, (considered C3, by the three carbon compound) when the CO2 concentration is reduced. The first step of the Calvin cycle is the fixation of carbon dioxide by rubisco, but at low concentrations of CO2, oxygen begins to be set in place. In conditions of moderate temperatures when C3 plants have enough water, the carbon dioxide supply is abundant and photorespiration is not a problem.
The conservation of water in C3 plants promotes the c) opening of stomata.
Explanation:In C3 plants, the conservation of water promotes the c) opening of stomata.
Stomata are small openings on the leaves and stems of plants through which gases and water vapor are exchanged with the atmosphere. When water is conserved, the stomata can remain open for longer periods of time, allowing for gas exchange necessary for photosynthesis to occur.Learn more about Stomata in C3 plants here:https://brainly.com/question/32781205
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What is true of macroevolution?
a. It is the same as microevolution, but includes the origin of new species.
b. It is evolution above the species level.
c. It is defined as the evolution of microscopic organisms into organisms that can be seen with the naked eye.
d. It is defined as a change in allele or gene frequency over the course of many generations.
e. It is the conceptual link between irritability and adaptation.
Answer:
b. It is evolution above the species level.
Explanation:
Macroevolution is the evolution that generates new taxa, for examples two or more species from a common ancestor. Macroevolution is the product of microevolutionary processes, it is, of microevolution: the change in allele frequencies in a population over time. Macroevolutive changes are commonly evident while not all microevlutive changes are not.
The process whereby the crystalline lens is adjusted to form a clear image on the retina for objects at varying distances is called
Answer: It is called Accommodation.
Explanation:
Retina is the innermost and sensitive tissues around the eye, it is located near the optic nerve. The function of retina is receive light that lens has focused and convert those light to neural message and send the signals to the brain for interpretation.
Accomodation is the adjustment of objects at varrying distance. When the crystalline lens change shapes, it changes the focal distance of the eye so that object at different distances can be focused on and thus allowing the formation of clear and real image on the retina, this adjustment of lens is called accommodation. The crystalline lens of the eye is located at the iris and it is made up of fibres from the epithelial cells.
The transport of a substance across the cell membrane against its concentration gradient is called
Answer: active transport
Explanation:
The active transport is the process of moving a substance across the cell membrane against its concentration gradient, requiring energy.
Active transport is a vital process that enables the movement of substances against their concentration gradients across the cell membrane.
This mechanism is essential for maintaining proper cellular functions, as it allows the cell to control the internal environment and regulate the concentrations of various ions and molecules.
In active transport, energy, typically in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP), is required to move substances from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration.
This process involves specialized protein carriers or pumps embedded within the cell membrane.
These pumps can transport ions, such as sodium (Na+), potassium (K+), calcium (Ca2+), and hydrogen (H+), as well as other molecules, like amino acids and sugars.
One of the most well-known examples of active transport is the sodium-potassium pump (Na+/K+ pump), found in the plasma membrane of animal cells.
This pump actively moves three sodium ions out of the cell and two potassium ions into the cell, against their respective concentration gradients.
This action helps establish and maintain the resting membrane potential and is crucial for processes like nerve impulse transmission and muscle contractions.
Another example of active transport is the proton pump found in the lining of the stomach.
This pump is responsible for secreting hydrochloric acid (HCl) into the stomach's lumen, helping to digest food and destroy pathogens.
Active transport is a dynamic and energy-consuming process that plays a fundamental role in maintaining cellular homeostasis, as well as in various physiological functions and adaptations.
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Desert and desert-scrub biomes are characterized by specific types of plant and animal life. Creosote bushes are found throughout areas such as the Mojave Desert. They are used by roadrunners for nesting, and also provide a home for desert tortoises.
a.coniferous tree
b. lichen
c. shrub
d. flowering weed
Creosote bushes shrub are found throughout areas such as the Mojave Desert.
c. shrub
Explanation:
The Creosote bushes is an evergreen shrub. It is commonly grows at elevation under 5000 feet in lower Chihuahuan, Sonoran and Mojave deserts of North Mexico and United States. The bushes are named as Larrea Tridentate.
This shrub is act as roadrunners for nesting and place for desert tortoise. The structure of the shrub is coated with tiny pointed green leaves. These leaves are adopted to conserve water and survive high temperatures.
The creosote bush completes with other plants for water in the soil, and grows in desert condition. The tortoise present in the desert builds the subterranean burrows and spends 95% in the bushes. The bushes protect the tortoise from the intense heat in summer.
As urine moves through a nephron, it is modified by ions, water, and other materials either being secreted into the fluid or by efflux of substances out of the urine. However, such modifications do not occur in which one of the following regions of the nephron?
a. proximal tubule
b. loop of henle
c. bowmans capsule
d. distal tubule
e. collecting duct
Answer:
The correct answer is c. bowmans capsule
Explanation:
The bowman's capsule is a cup-shaped dilation which surrounds the glomerulus( tuft of capillaries). Bowman's capsule makes the first part of the nephron. Water and other solutes pass from the blood moving through the glomerulus into the Bowmans capsule due to glomerular blood pressure.
Then this filtrate passes through other part of nephron like PCT, Henle loop, DCT and collecting duct where secretion and absorption of substance and water takes place to make urine.
So Bowman's capsule just collects filtrate from the glomerulus and passes it to PCT, therefore, such modification does not occur in Bowman's capsule.
Emotional memory ________.
a.involves your pounding heart when you hear a rattlesnake.b.involves remembering names, faces, words, and dates.c.involves remembering motor skills such as riding a bike.d.involves remembering a skill such as playing a musical instrument.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-A
Explanation:
Emotional memory refers to the memories of experiences which evokes or triggers the emotional reaction in higher organisms.
Emotional memory after evoking the emotional reactions remembers the past experiences based on which the person feels if the present event is pleasant or unpleasant.
The pounding of the heart is caused by the shock or the stress conditions observed with the fast beating of the heart. In the given question, When the heart pounds after seeing the rattlesnake will be considered response caused by the emotional memory as the rattlesnake is dangerous to humans based on the past experiences which evoke the emotional response.
Thus, option-A is the correct answer.
Emotional memory typically refers to the way emotionally significant events are processed and remembered, often involving a physiological response such as a pounding heart, and is heavily influenced by the amygdala.
Emotional memory involves complex processes primarily associated with the amygdala, which regulates emotions such as fear and aggression, and plays a key role in how memories are stored and consolidated. Strong emotional experiences trigger the release of neurotransmitters and hormones that enhance memory consolidation, enabling better recollection of events with emotional significance—referred to as the arousal theory. Notable examples of emotional memory include the physiological responses to fear, like a pumping heart when hearing a rattlesnake (as per the Cannon-Bard and James-Lange Theories of Emotion), which illustrate the link between physiological arousal and memory formation. The flashbulb memory phenomenon is a demonstration of the depth of emotional memories, where significant life events create vivid, enduring memories.
A food chain or food web can provide good information including _____. how much energy is transferred from one organism to another the types of food that are best for you to eat the eating patterns of organisms the flow of energy in an ecosystem
Answer: A food chain or food web provide information on the eating patterns of organisms, how energy is transfered from one organisms to another and the flow if energy in the ecosystem.
Explanation:
Food chain is the link of network that that starts from producer to the consumer and finally ends at the predator species and decomposer species in the ecosystem. It describe the feeding relationships among organisms.
Food web contains interconnection of several food chains in the ecosystem. It shows several feeding relationships in food chains .
Both food chain and food web provide information of how organisms are interconnected, their eating patterns, how energy is transferred from one organisms to another and flow of energy in the ecosystem.
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder in homozygous recessives that causes death during the teenage years. If 9 in 10,000 newborn babies have the disease, what are the expected frequencies of the dominant (A1) and recessive (A2) alleles according to the Hardy—Weinberg model?
Final answer:
The frequency of the cystic fibrosis recessive allele (A2) is 3%, and the dominant allele (A1) is 97% in the population according to the Hardy-Weinberg model.
Explanation:
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder caused by recessive alleles (A2) and is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. According to the Hardy-Weinberg model, if 9 in 10,000 newborns have cystic fibrosis (A2A2), we can calculate the frequency of the recessive allele (A2) and the dominant allele (A1). The frequency of homozygous recessive individuals is q^2, thus q^2 = 9/10,000 = 0.0009. Taking the square root, q (the frequency of the recessive allele) is 0.03. The frequency of the dominant allele, p, can be calculated as 1 - q, which equals 1 - 0.03 = 0.97. Therefore, the expected frequencies of the dominant allele (A1) and the recessive allele (A2) are 97% and 3%, respectively.
Your best friend eats plenty of meats and dairy products but avoids eating fruits and vegetables. She bruises easily, her sores take a long time to heal, and her gums bleed when she brushes her teeth. Based on this information, which of the following nutrients is most likely to be deficient in her diet? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B-6 c. Vitamin E d. Vitamin D e. Vitamin C
Answer:
vitamin c hope this helped
Ants move small insects called aphids from plant to plant. The aphids are protected by the ants, while the ants feed on sugary honeydew produced by the aphids. What type of relationship is exampled in this scenario?
Answer:
This is an example of mutualistic relationship.
Explanation:
This type of relationship occurs when two living beings of different species decide to cooperate in order to obtain a benefit from each other.
This is an example of the joint evolution of both organisms, who adapted to each other's environment and obtained something productive from it.
There are cases in which without the help of another organism, a living being would simply die.
There are two types of mutual relationship: the obligate and the facultative.
In the case of the obligate mutualistic relationship, without the help of an organism, another organism would die. Therefore it necessarily depends on its cooperation to exist.
In the case of the facultative one, both living beings obtain mutual benefits but they can quietly live without each other.
Gram positive cells_______.a. have a thick capsule that traps the crystal violet stain.b. have a second, outer membrane that helps retain the crystal violet stain.c. have a periplasmic space that traps the crystal violet.d. have multiple layers of peptidoglycan that help retain the crystal violet stain.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-D
Explanation:
Gram staining is the technique developed by the Hans Christian Gram which helps differentiate the bacteria was developed in 1884.
The color of the gram stain is violet due to the presence of the crystal violet so the bacteria which will appear violet will be called gram-positive and the bacteria which will appear pinkish will be called gram-negative.
The difference in the color of the bacteria lies in the fact that the gram-positive bacteria possess peptidoglycan layers not covered with outer lipids whereas the gram-negative bacteria possess peptidoglycan layers covered with lipid layer.
The presence of many peptidoglycan layers in the gram-positive bacteria help retain the crystal violet stain and thus, option-D is the correct answer.
Around what age does bone resorption generally begin to occur more rapidly than bone formation?
Answer:
Age 30
Explanation:
In cattle, roan coat color (mixed red and white hairs) occurs in the heterozygous (Rr) offspring of red (RR) and white (rr) homozygotes. Which of the following crosses would produce offspring in the ratio of 1 red:2 roan:1 white?
A) red × whiteB) roan × roanC) white × roanD) red × roanE) The answer cannot be determined from the information provided.
Answer:
roan × roan
Explanation:
All of the following are ways in which carbon dioxide is carried by the blood EXCEPT:
A. bound to oxyhemoglobin.
B. as bicarbonate ion (HCO3-).
C. dissolved in the plasma.
D. bound to an amino acid in hemoglobin, forming carbaminohemoglobin.
Answer:
bound to oxyheamoglobin
Explanation:.
Oxyheamoglobin is formed from the reaction of oxygen with haemoglobin.it is the oxygen loaded form of haemoglobin for delivery of oxygen to needed remote areas of the body.
.Hb + 4O2 ⇒ HbO8
haemoglobin oxygen oxyhaemoglobin
Haemoglobin is a protein molecule that binds with oxygen. It has high affinity for oxygen with its four haem groups. Each haem group has binding iron.(Fe). When it is binds with oxygen it is bright red, and turns purple when it unloaded oxygen at target point.
It has no association with carbondioixde transports except oxygen transport .
Carbon dioxide, is transported as the listed three options(b,c,d) in the questions. Therefore bound to oxyheamoglobin is wrong, and it is the correct answer
Final answer:
Option A, bound to oxyhemoglobin, is the incorrect method for carbon dioxide transport in the blood since oxyhemoglobin is related to oxygen transport, not carbon dioxide.
Explanation:
Among the options for how carbon dioxide is carried by the blood, the incorrect method is: A. bound to oxyhemoglobin. This is because oxyhemoglobin is a form of hemoglobin bound to oxygen, not carbon dioxide. The correct methods of carbon dioxide transport in the blood include:
B. as bicarbonate ion (HCO3-), which is the primary form that CO2 is transported in the blood,
C. dissolved in the plasma,
D. bound to an amino acid in hemoglobin, forming carbaminohemoglobin.
These methods enable carbon dioxide to be efficiently transported from the body tissues where it is produced as a waste product, to the lungs where it can be exhaled.
Which statements describe crossing over? increases genetic variation across gametes occurs between homologous chromosomes separates chromosome pairs into gametes occurs between duplicated sister chromatids
Answer:
increases genetic variation across gametes
occurs between homologous chromosomes
Explanation:
Crossing over is the exchange of chromosomal segments between homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis. The process occur after the formation of bivalents/tetrads as a result of synapsed homologous chromosomes.
The exchange of chromosomal segments ensures that resulting meiotic gametes are genetically different from their parents, a phenomenon known as genetic variation.
Hence, the two statements out of the options that describe crossing over are:
increases genetic variation across gametesoccurs between homologous chromosomesCrossing over is an exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis I, which enhances genetic variation in gametes.
Crossing Over in Meiosis
Crossing over is a process that occurs during prophase I of meiosis I, where there is an exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes. This genetic recombination contributes to increased genetic variety in the resulting gametes. During this stage, homologous chromosomes align closely and form a structure known as a tetrad, consisting of four chromatids. The non-sister chromatids can then exchange segments of DNA, leading to new combinations of genes that enhance genetic variation across the resulting gametes.
It is essential to note that crossing over occurs specifically between homologous chromosomes, not between the identical duplicated sister chromatids. Also, crossing over is just one event that increases the genetic diversity; another critical mechanism is independent assortment, which randomly distributes different combinations of chromosomes to each gamete during meiosis.
Therefore, the statement that describes crossing over effectively is that it 'increases genetic variation across gametes' and 'occurs between homologous chromosomes.' However, it does not 'occur between duplicated sister chromatids' and it does not 'separate chromosome pairs into gametes' – that separation is the result of anaphase I and II of meiosis.
After surviving a bottleneck, a population recovers to the point where it consists of as many individuals as it did prior to the bottleneck. Which of the following statements is most likely to apply to this population?
a.The postbottleneck population exhibits less genetic variation than the prebottleneck population.
b.The bottleneck subjected the population to stabilizing selection.
c.The postbottleneck population has less of a chance of going extinct than did the prebottleneck population.
d.The postbottleneck population exhibits more genetic variation than the prebottleneck population.
e.The postbottleneck population has the same probability of going extinct as did the prebottleneck population.
Answer:
c
Explanation:
The post bottleneck population exhibits less genetic variation than the pre bottleneck population.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
To be precise the bottle neck population is a stage where a particular species undergo dramatic reduction in their population size. It may be due to natural or human activity. Whatever reason might be there are some species that fight to thrive to exist among all odds.
Hence they undergo certain genetic variation to withstand the declining rate. Low genetic variation is only exhibited in this population so that they do not become a prey for the deleterious effect caused in the environmental changes.
If a neurotransmitter attaches to a ligand-gated channel and creates a potential that causes the inside of the excitable cell membrane to become less negative, and this potential travels only a short distance before dying out, it is considered to be a(n) _________.
Answer:
If a neurotransmitter attaches to a ligand-gated channel and creates a potential that causes the inside of the excitable cell membrane to become less negative, and this potential travels only a short distance before dying out, it is considered to be a Graded or local potential
Explanation:
Graded potentials, also known as local or generator, are generated by an excitatory neurotranmitter, usually a ligan gated channel, they occur at a localized place on the cell and their potentials are smaller (from 1-50mV) and its magnitude depends on the strength of the stimulus.
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