Answer:
Explanation:
Volume and Pressure are inversely related. Temperature is held constant.
P * V = P1 * V1 is the formula for Boyle's Law.
I think what you need to put in the blank is
volume is inversely related to pressure.
A one word answer is nothing going to say that.
Boyle's Law is a basic law in chemistry describing the behavior of a gas held at a constant temperature. The law, discovered by Robert A. Boyle in 1662, states that at a fixed temperature, the volume of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure exerted by the gas.
One of the following is not correctly matched. Which is it?
a. The olfactory epithelium lies in a mucous membrane powering the inferior nasal conchae.
b. Hairs in the nasal vestibule help remove large particles from the air.
c. Conchae and their meatuses increase surface area and help moisten entering air.
d. Mucus in the nasal cavity helps moisten air and removes smaller dust particles.
e. Most of the air inhaled does not directly enter the paranasal sinuses.
Answer:
The answer is E: Most of the air inhaled does not directly enter the paranasal sinuses.
Explanation:
The paranasal sinuses are cavities located in the bones of the face, which communicate through holes and ducts with the nasal cavity. They are upholstered by the same mucosa of the nose. One of its main functions is to moisten and heat the air, which enters through its cavities into the airway.
The statement that is not correctly matched is that the olfactory epithelium lies in a mucous membrane powering the inferior nasal conchae. In reality, the olfactory epithelium is found deeper in the nasal cavity for odor detection.
The student's question pertains to which statement about the nasal cavity and related structures is not correctly matched. Let's evaluate each statement provided:
The olfactory epithelium lies in a mucous membrane powering the inferior nasal conchae: The olfactory epithelium actually lies deeper in the nasal cavity and is primarily involved in odor detection.Hairs in the nasal vestibule help remove large particles from the air: This is correct. The hairs filter large debris as air enters the nasal cavities.Conchae and their meatuses increase surface area and help moisten entering air: This is accurate, as conchae increase surface area and disrupt air flow for better air conditioning.Mucus in the nasal cavity helps moisten air and removes smaller dust particles: Mucus production by goblet cells is indeed a key factor in trapping debris and moisturizing inhaled air.Most of the air inhaled does not directly enter the paranasal sinuses: This is typically true as the primary function of the paranasal sinuses does not involve direct air passage.The statement that is not correctly matched is therefore option a).
It is the fluid from the Prostate gland.
Answer:
Prostate fluid
Explanation:
Prostate fluid comes from the Prostate gland.
It propels seminal fluid into the urethra.
You have a patient who has a very strange disorder. In this disorder, ADP sticks permanently to the myosin head. From your knowledge of excitation contraction coupling, describe how this patient will present.
Answer:
one thing might be muscle contractions
Explanation:
Describe the role of pancreatic enzymes and bile in chemical digestion in the small intestine.
Explanation:
The arrival of food in the small intestine stimulates the duodenal mucosa to produce the hormones secretin and pancreatin, which in turn stimulate the pancreas to secrete pancreatic juice. Secretin is produced in response to the stimulation of the acidity of the bolus reaching the small intestine. Pancreatic juice, which arrives in the duodenum, is highly rich in bicarbonate and neutralizes the acidity of the bolus and thus guarantees the action of the pancreatic enzymes that only work at slightly alkaline and neutral pH.
Another attachment to the digestive tract is the gallbladder that stores a fluid called bile. Bile emulsifies fats, and is produced by the liver from old red blood cells and is stored in the gallbladder. It has no digestive enzymes. It has bile salts (glycolate and sodium taurocholate) that emulsify fats, facilitating the action of lipases (increase the surface action). Another function of bile salts is to solubilize the final products of lipid digestion, thus facilitating their absorption through the intestinal mucosa.
The muscle used for pouting and to express horror is the __________.
Answer:
Platysma.
Explanation:
Platysma is the sheet of muscle that arise from the chest and deltoid muscle. The muscle rises over the clavicle.
Platysma muscle comes upward from the slanting manner by the sides of the neck. This muscle draws the corners of the mouth and lower lip. Hence, platysma muscle is used to express horror and for the pouting.
Thus, the answer is platysma.
Final answer:
The orbicularis oris is the muscle used for pouting and expressing horror, as it is responsible for moving the lips and creating various facial expressions.
Explanation:
The muscle used for pouting and to express horror is the orbicularis oris. This facial muscle is a circular muscle that moves the lips. Along with various other facial muscles, such as the orbicularis oculi, which is responsible for closing the eyes, the orbicularis oris plays a critical role in conveying facial expressions. These muscles are capable of a wide range of movements, from expressing disgust and anger to forming the shapes necessary for speech and eating. Unlike muscles that move the skeleton, many of the muscles of facial expression, including the orbicularis oris, insert into the skin, allowing them to create subtle and complex expressions by moving the skin around the eyelids, nose, and mouth.
Describe a normal plantar reflex.
Answer:
the plantar reflex or babinski sign, is the one we find when rubbing with a swab or a blunt object the sole of the foot, which will produce an extension of the big toe idem while the toes open in the form of a fan, his appearance is considered normal until twelve months of age; If this sign occurs in an adult, it indicates the presence of an injury in the pyramidal way.
The plantar reflex is a neurological test used in newborns and adults to assess neuromuscular function. A normal reflex in infants shows a positive Babinski sign, while in older children and adults, it causes toe curling and plantar flexion, indicating a healthy nervous system.
Explanation:The plantar reflex is a common neurological test for the Babinski sign, used to assess neuromuscular function in newborns and to check the integrity of the corticospinal tract in adults. In newborns, a normal plantar reflex elicited by stimulating the sole of the foot results in a positive Babinski sign, characterized by dorsiflexion of the foot and extension and splaying of the toes. In older children and adults, a normal plantar reflex involves the curling of toes and moderate plantar flexion. It is an important reflex for maintaining balance while walking, as a negative Babinski sign indicates proper functioning of the lower motor neurons and corticospinal tract. The presence of a positive Babinski sign in adults suggests potential neurological issues, such as reduced myelination of the spinal tract.
Intracapsular ligaments include the ACL, and PCL:
a. Hip
b. Knee
c. Ankle
Answer:
Knee.
Explanation:
Knee joins the legs with the thighs. Knee consists of patellofemoral joint and tibiofemoral joint. Knee helps in the process of extension and flexion.
Cruciate ligamnets stabilize the knee structure. The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) are the intracapsular ligaments of knee.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
The ACL and PCL are intracapsular ligaments found in the knee joint, providing necessary stability by limiting certain movements.
Explanation:The intracapsular ligaments mentioned, the Anterior Cruciate Ligament ( ACL ) and the Posterior Cruciate Ligament ( PCL ), are found within the knee joint. So the answer to the question is: 'b. Knee'. These two ligaments are key structures contributing to stability in the knee joint. They prevent unwanted forward and backward movement as well as rotation within the knee.
Intracapsular ligaments include the ACL (anterior cruciate ligament) and PCL (posterior cruciate ligament).
These ligaments are found in the knee joint, which is responsible for stabilizing the knee and preventing excessive movement.
They play a crucial role in maintaining the integrity of the knee joint and are often injured during activities involving sudden changes in direction or impact.
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Which of the following are symptoms associated with pernicious anemia? (Select all that apply)
a. Sore tongue
b. Diarrhea and upset stomach
c. Insomnia
d. Paresthesias
e. Arthralgia
f. Weakness and fatigue
Answer:
the correct answer is option a, b, d, and f.
Explanation:
When the body is not able to make enough healthy RBCs due to B-12 deficiency this condition called pernicious anemia. It is a treatable condition with the help of the B-12 shots or pills. The major reason is the lack of a stomach protein known as Intrinsic factor which is essential for the absorption of the B-12.
Symptoms associated with this condition are -
Fatigue, shortness of breath, cold hands and feet, Paresthesias, feeling dizzy, chest pain, pale or yellow skin, depression, and trouble focusing and others.
Thus, the correct answer is option a, b, d, and f.
Which of the following is not included in the autonomic reflexes?
A) withdrawal
B) cardiovascular
C) pupillary
D) gastrointestinal
Answer: A) withdrawal is not included in the autonomic reflexes.
Explanation:
As autonomic reflex involves the response of glands, cardiac muscles, regulates organs and smooth muscles. So, that is why cardiovascular, pupillary and gastrointestinal are autonomic reflexes. Whereas, withdrawal is somatic type as it involves the skeletal muscles and spinal cord. The main difference between both the reflexes is that target tissues are effectors.
A specific form of cancer that develops in the connective tissue of the dermis is called? It is common in the elderly and HIV patients.
A. Kaposi's Sarcoma
B. Leukoderma
C. Carbuncle
Answer: Kaposi's Sarcoma
Explanation:
The Kaposi's sarcoma remains one of the most common cancer in people suffering from HIV. It is caused by the virus known as herpes virus 8.
It is developed when the cells that line the lymph or blood vessels begins to divide without stopping and starts spreading in the adjacent tissues.
It has the ability to start in several parts of the body at once.
Hence the correct answer is" Kaposi's Sarcoma "
The recording of the electrical currents produced by contraction of skeletal muscle is called a(n): _______
Answer:
An Electromyography (EMG)
Explanation:
An electromyography is a technique of recording the electric activity produced by the contractions of the skeletal muscles. An electromyography is performed with the help of the instrument called Electromyogram.
It is a medical diagnosis in which the electrical activity of the body is recorded or the response of the body to external stimuli signals is measured, to find out information about the disease present in the body.
Therefore, the electrical currents produced by the contraction of the skeletal muscles are recorded by an Electromyography (EMG).
A fundus is a portion of an organ opposite its opening. The fundus of the uterus is opposite which opening?
a. What organ in the digestive system has a fundus?
Answer:
The correct answer is the stomach.
Explanation:
The thick walled organ located between the esophagus and the duodenum of the small intestine is the stomach. It lies on the left side of the abdomen. The fundus is the upper part of the stomach which is inferior to the diaphragm. The fundus is the upper body and below it is the main part of the stomach.
The fundus has an important function as it stores both gases that are formed during chemical digestion and undigested food. Food may rest in the fundus for a while before being mixed with the chyme.
Thus, the correct answer is the stomach.
The fundus is a part of an organ that is opposite from its opening. The fundus of the uterus is opposite of the cervix. In the digestive system, the organ with a fundus is the stomach, which is opposite to the pyloric canal.
Explanation:The term fundus is used in anatomy to refer to the part of an organ that is opposite from its opening. In the context of the uterus, the fundus of the uterus is located at the top, opposite to the cervix which is the opening.
Just like the uterus, a part of the digestive system also has a fundus. The organ in the digestive system with a fundus is the stomach.
The fundus of the stomach is labeled so because it is opposite to the pyloric canal, which is the opening of the stomach leading into the small intestine. Because the fundus is the highest point of the stomach, it often contains a gas bubble when the person is in the upright position.
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Which of the following does NOT apply to an enzyme:
a. Catalyst
b. Inorganic
c. Protein
d. All of the above apply to an enzyme
Answer:
Inorganic
Explanation:
Enzymes are bio catalyst that increase the rate of a biochemical reaction occurring in living organisms. Enzymes lowers the activation energy of the reaction and increases the rate of formation of product
Enzymes are organic molecules and works at optimum temperature and pH. Inorganic cannot apply to the enzymes because they are made upof protein.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Enzymes are organic molecules and do not contain inorganic elements. Therefore, the correct answer is b. Inorganic.
Explanation:A. Catalyst: Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up chemical reactions in cells by lowering the activation energy required for the reaction to occur.
B. Inorganic: Enzymes are organic molecules, composed mainly of proteins, and do not contain inorganic elements.
C. Protein: Enzymes are proteins, which are long chains of amino acids that fold into complex three-dimensional shapes.
D. All of the above apply to an enzyme: This statement is incorrect as enzymes are not inorganic, but rather organic molecules.
Therefore, the correct answer is b. Inorganic.
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Which of the following is NOT part of the larynx?
a. thyroid cartlage
b. carina
c. cricoid cartilage
d. arytenoid cartilage
Answer:
Carina.
Explanation:
Larynx is also known as voice box. This organ is involved in food aspiration and produce sound. Larynx manipulates the pitch and voice of an individual.
The main parts of larynx are cricoid cartilage, thyroid cartilage and arytenoid cartilage. The carina is a part of trachea, not the larynx.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
Layer of connective tissue that separates a muscle into small bundles called fascicles.
Answer:
Perimysium
Explanation:
Perimysium is a layer of connective tissue that strengthen and increases the muscle fitness. Perimysium shows direct connection with muscle fibers and epimysium.
The perimysium layer separates the muscle into the small bundles called fascicles with different dimensions. Perimysium regulates the role of epimysial fascia in motor coordination.
Thus, the answer is perimysium.
Which of the following muscles is located at the shoulder?
A. platysma
B. sternocleidomastoid
C. deltoid
D. pectoralis minor
Answer:
Pectoralis minor
Explanation:
Pecoralis minor is a thin, triangular muscle lies beneath the pectoralis major muscle. This muscle arises from the third ribs, fourth and fifth ribs.
The pectoralis muscles fans out from the shoulder upper ribs area. This muscle is involved in the coracoid process of scapula. The pectoralis muscle helps in the depression point of the shoulder.
Thus, the correct answer is option (D).
Where is the thymus located?
a. posterior to the stomach
b. superior to the heart
c. near lymphatic capillaries
d. posterior to the sternum
Answer:
d. Posterior to the sternum.
Explanation:
The thymus is a very large gland active during childhood, that is located right behind the sternum, in the middle of the two lungs. This area is part of the Mediastinum. The Mediastinum is a region inside the thorax that contains the great vessels (aorta artery, pulmonary artery), the heart, the trachea, the esophagus, the thymus, and many lymph nodes.
The thymus is important because before birth and during childhood produces a substance called thymosin that stimulates the production of lymphocytes.
The thymus cannot be posterior to the stomach, because in this location is the peritoneum that is a thick layer of fatty tissue with the function of sticking the abdominal organs to its place.
The thymus cannot be superior to the heart, because right there we could find the aorta artery and pulmonary veins which are big enough to fill that place.
Near lymphatic capillaries is not a place for a big gland as the thymus. Because these tiny structures are located in the intercellular space, so it is too small to have the thymus in it.
The thymus is located posterior to the sternum.
Explanation:The thymus is located posterior to the sternum, which is the bone in the middle of the chest. It is positioned behind the breastbone and extends upward towards the neck. The thymus is part of the immune system and plays a crucial role in the development and maturation of T cells. The thymus is an important part of the immune system. In humans, it is located in the chest, specifically, posterior to the sternum. This position means that it is situated behind the sternum, a bony structure in the middle of your chest that connects to the rib bones. The thymus is also superior to the heart, meaning it is located above the heart. However, it is not related to the location of lymphatic capillaries or posterior to the stomach.
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At the neuromuscular junction, what specific receptor is located at the muscle cell?
a. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
b. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptor
c. Glutamate receptor
Answer:
Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor.
Explanation:
Nicotonic acetylcholine receptors has the ability to respond towards the acetylcholine molecule. These receptors are used for the transmission of signals.
Muscarinic acetylcholine receptor is located on brain, at neuromuscular junction and in the muscle cell. These receptors are released from the post ganglionic fibers.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).
Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor is located at the muscle cell in the neuromuscular junction, allowing for muscle contractions to take place.
Explanation:The specific receptor located at the muscle cell in the neuromuscular junction is the Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor. This receptor is responsible for muscle contractions in our body. When a signal travels down the nerve, acetylcholine is released, which then binds to the Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor, causing an influx of ions and leading to muscle contraction.
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A muscle responsible for most of a movement is called a(n) ____________.
Answer:
The correct answer is skeletal muscle.
Explanation:
Skeletal muscles are voluntary muscle which helps in movement of the body. These muscles can be controlled and are attached to the bones.
Skeletal muscle are attached to the bone via tendons and nerves which covers our bones and form a distinct muscle tissue organ. On contractions these muscle pulls on the tendons which causes the shortening of the muscles and the body part move.
Thus, skeletal muscle is the correct answer.
In which of the following types of surgical procedure is a Lowman used?
A. cardiovascular
B. orthopedic
C. ophthalmic
D. gynecologic
Answer:
Orthopedic
Explanation:
Lowman joint is an instrument which is used during the surgery of bones. This instrument holds the bone in right position during the time of surgery.
This instrument is made of stainless steel with a satin finish and can be used again and again during the time of surgery.
This instrument is available in different sizes depending on the size of bone whose surgery is being done.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B
The correct answer is Orthopedic, option B. The Lowman clamp is mainly used in orthopedic procedures to hold bone fragments together securely.
The Lowman clamp is a specialized surgical instrument primarily used in orthopedic procedures.
It is widely known for its application in holding bone fragments together during surgeries, particularly when setting fractures or performing repairs on the skeletal system.Orthopedic surgeries are complex medical procedures that involve the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of disorders and injuries related to the musculoskeletal system. This can include bones, joints, ligaments, tendons, and muscles. The Lowman clamp, also known as the "bone clamp," is specifically designed with a series of teeth that allow it to grip bone securely without causing significant damage or compromising the blood supply to the bone tissue.For example, during a surgical procedure to fix a fractured femur, a surgeon might use a Lowman clamp to hold the bone fragments in proper alignment while securing them with screws, plates, or other orthopedic hardware.This ensures that the bones heal correctly and restores functionality to the affected limb.
The Lowman clamp is primarily used in orthopedic surgeries to hold bone fragments together. It is an essential tool in the surgical repair and alignment of skeletal structures.
This makes the correct answer to the question Orthopedic, option B.
After 2 weeks JP complains of a painful rash on her back. JP is diagnosed with herpes zoster. What explanation can the nurse give for the occurrence of this new diagnosis?
Answer: the herpes zoster is a viral infection caused by the same varicela virus. If JP had varicela before, the virus could reactivate in a way that does not produce varicela, but zoster.
Explanation: Herpes zoster is an infection caused by varicela-zoster virus. When someone had varicela, this virus remains "latent" in the nervous tissue and could be reactivated in elderly people, or in those with diseases like HIV; when the immune system is not so strong.
The classic presentation is a painful eruption in the skin, mostly located in the back.
Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction icd 10 code?
Answer:
Diastolic (congestive) heart failure
The 2019 edition of ICD-10-CM I50.3 became effective on October 1, 2018. This is the American ICD-10-CM version of I50.3 - other international versions of ICD-10 I50.3 may differ.
Explanation:
heart failure with preserved ejection fraction, the ICD-10 code is I50.30. T
Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF) is a type of heart failure where the heart's ability to pump blood remains adequate, but the heart muscle is stiff and does not fill properly with blood.
Definition: Heart failure is when the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs.
Classification: Heart failure can be classified into two main categories:
HFrEF (Heart Failure with reduced Ejection Fraction): where the heart's pumping ability is weakened.HFpEF (Heart Failure with preserved Ejection Fraction): where the movement and pumping force of the heart are sufficient, but the heart does not fill properly.Symptoms: Common symptoms include:
Shortness of breathFatigueSwelling in the lower extremities, abdomen, or neck veinsDiagnosis & Management: Diagnosis typically involves a combination of physical examinations, imaging tests (like echocardiograms), and laboratory tests. Treatment strategies often include lifestyle changes, medications, and, in some cases, surgical interventions.
The inflammatory response is a set of responses that often occurs in the body following tissue damage, such as damage caused by bacteria, as the body attempts to restore homeostasis. Which of the following are characteristic signs and symptoms of inflammation, in this example?
a. heat and redness caused by increased blood flow to the damaged tissue area
b. tissue swelling caused by increased vascular permabililty, which helps phagocytic WBC's and other beneficial proteins to reach the damaged tissue area
c. defending the body against infection and disease
d. both a. and b.
Answer:
Both (a) and (b).
Explanation:
Inflammation is a type of defense mechanism in the body. This is a type of innate immunity present in the organism from birth. The acute or chronic reaction determines the symptoms of inflammation.
The redness and heat occurs in the inflamed area due to the increase blood flow in the affected area. Tissue swelling or edema may occur due to the accumulation of fluid that increases the phagocytic activity of WBCs and other useful chemicals that can reach to the damaged area.
Thus, the answer is option (d).
Answer:
the correct answer d
Explanation:
Bergmann’s rule:
A)is based on the principle that heat is retained at the body surface
B)concerns the relationship between climate and shape and size of appendages
C)state that bodies with increased mass or volume to surface area are optimal for cold climates
D)states that a linear body with long arms and legs is optimal for cold climates
Answer:
The answer is C: state that bodies wit increased mass or volume to surface are optimal for cold climates.
Explanation:
The bergmann rule establishes that the species of animals that maintain their body temperature within normal limits regardless of the ambient temperature, when they live in cold weather, tend to be of greater volume and weight than those of the same species that live in other warmer regions. A clear example of this are the North Pole penguins, which are larger than African penguins.
Where within the Gl tract does carbohydrate digestion begin? Where is carbohydrate digestion completed?
Answer:
The digestion of carbohydrates begins in the mouth and ends in the small intestine.
Explanation:
The absorption of carbohydrates, depending on whether they are simple or complex, will begin their digestion in the mouth by the action of saliva in food, where starches are initially separated; Once this food bolus reaches the stomach, the hydrochloric acid acts, to end later in the small intestine. Amylase, a component of pancreatic juice, ends the digestive process of carbohydrates by transforming starches into maltose, which are then transformed into monisacarides (glucose, galactose, fructose), which is the way they are absorbed by the body. In the liver they are again transformed into glucose.
Write a brief description of the following:
a. synovial membrane
b. mesothelium
c. articular cartilage
d. cutaneous membrane
e. mucous membrane
f. goblet cell
g. bursa
h. lamina propria
i. keratohyalin
j. serous membrane
Answer:
i think its a.b.c.d.e.f.g.h.i.j
Explanation:
because they all have to be in one sentence.
The valve located between the right atrium and right ventricle is the:
a. tricuspid valve.
b. pulmonary valve.
c. mitral valve.
d. bicuspid valve.
Answer:
The answer is A tricuspid valve
Explanation:
The tricuspid valve is called that because it has three pillars that are located in the right heart between the atrium and the ventricular idem.
It is responsible for giving way to systematic blood for subsequent oxygenation at the level of the lungs.
Final answer:
The valve between the right atrium and right ventricle is the tricuspid valve, which is an atrioventricular valve that prevents the backflow of blood. So the correct option is a.
Explanation:
The valve located between the right atrium and right ventricle is known as the tricuspid valve. This valve is one of the two atrioventricular valves (AV valves), with its counterpart being the mitral valve on the left side of the heart. The tricuspid valve consists of three flaps of tissue that open to allow blood to flow from the right atrium to the right ventricle and close to prevent backflow of blood. The mitral valve also referred to as the bicuspid valve or left atrioventricular valve, consists of two flaps and functions similarly between the left atrium and left ventricle.
White matter of the brain and spinal cord is formed from aggregations of?
a. the brain and spinal cord
b. myelinated axons from many neurons
c. The lipid part of myelin
Answer:
The correct option is b. myelinated axons from many neurons
Explanation:
White matter is an area which is present in the brain and the spinal cord, that are mainly consists of bundles of myelinated axons, also called tracts. The myelinated axons are the nerve fibres that are surrounded by a lipid-rich substance called myelin.
The presence of the myelin gives the tissue the white colored appearance in contrast to the cerebral cortex which is the grey matter.
Therefore, the myelinated axons from many neurons aggregate together to form the white matter present in the brain and the spinal cord.
Luke, a 17-month-old, failed treatment with amoxicillin for otitis media. At the two-week recheck, his TM was still erythematous and you cannot see the landmarks. He has persistent nasal congestion, he is not sleeping at night, and he has a 101°F fever. What is the next best step for Luke?
Answer:
The next step is to start treatment with third generation cephalosporin combined or not with B-lactams according to the evolution of the symptoms.
Explanation:
Hello!
Let's solve this!
What you have to keep in mind is:
It is an obstruction of the eustachian tubes.
We have to take the following measures:
Do not breastfeed or take a bottle lying down, do it in a sitting or semi-sitting position due to tubal obstruction. Nebulizations to decongest (with physiological solution)
betamethasone 1 drop / kg 3 times a day, orally for 3 days then twice a day for three days and lie once a day two days
children's paracetamol 5cm every 8 (according to temperature)
It is a congestive catarrhal otitis media compatible with tubal obstruction (eustachian tube
at the nasal level)
Which of the following structures are gonads?
A) seminal vesicles.
B) vas deferens.
C) prostate gland .
D) testes.
E) A, B and C are correct
Answer:
D) testes
Explanation:
Gonad is also known as a sex gland or a reproductive gland. It is a gland that primarily produces both sex cells and sex hormones.
In females,
The reproductive cells are egg cells that are produced by the ovary.
In males,
The reproductive/sex cells are the sperms that are produced by the testes in the form of spermatozoa.
Seminal vesicles, vas deferens, prostate gland are parts of male reproductive system and are not gonads. They do not produce sperms.
Option D is correct.
Answer:
D) testes
Explanation: