Answer:
As brain and heart are vital organ they affected negatively when oxygen is lower as they generally require a lot of energy by oxidizing the glucose available so if oxygen is lower glucose available can't be well utilized thus lower energy and poor performance
In the presence of oxygen, cells produce more ATP through aerobic respiration. When oxygen is absent, cells rely on anaerobic respiration and produce less ATP. This explains why brain and heart functions are quickly affected when a person cannot breathe.
Explanation:In the presence of oxygen, cells can produce a large amount of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) through aerobic respiration. This process occurs in the mitochondria and is much more efficient than anaerobic respiration. On the other hand, when oxygen is absent, cells rely on anaerobic respiration, which produces a significantly smaller amount of ATP.
The brain and heart require a continuous supply of ATP to function properly. When a person cannot breathe, their oxygen levels drop, leading to decreased ATP production. This lack of energy affects these vital organs quickly and can result in dizziness, confusion, and loss of consciousness.
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The polymerase chain reaction has revolutionized genetics because
a) it is capable of making copies of DNA with very little starting material.
b) it is capable of making virtually unlimited copies of DNA for study.
c) it is capable of making large numbers of DNA copies very quickly. All of these
Answer: All of these
Explanation:
The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) revolutionized the field of molecular biology because PCR uses a small amount of DNA as a template.Paired with two primers which side to the target sequence, nucleotides, and thermostable DNA polymerase amplifies a specific region of DNA. In this way a large amount of DNA is obtained from a very small sample.
What does the body use iodine for? What kind of transport is necessary to transport this molecule into a cell?
Answer:
Iodine is a mineral which is present in the food such as diary products, sea foods, fruits, vegetables, and iodized salts. Body needs iodine to synthesize thyroid hormones, and these hormones helping in the control body metabolism, and other functions. Thyroid hormone is also playing an important role in brain, and bone development during infancy.
Thyroid gland have ability to transport iodide (concentrate) from blood which is required for produced thyroid hormones. In this process sodium-iodide symporter is playing the key role to transport iodine molecules into the cell.
Iodine is used by the body for the formation of thyroid hormones, which are involved in various physiological functions. Active transport is necessary to transport iodine into a cell.
Explanation:The body uses iodine for the formation of thyroid hormones, specifically thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3). These hormones are involved in various physiological functions such as cellular oxidation, growth, reproduction, and the activity of the central and autonomic nervous systems.
Active transport is necessary to transport iodine into a cell. The follicle cells of the thyroid actively transport iodides (anions of iodine) from the diet into their cytoplasm, resulting in a concentration that is approximately 30 times higher than in blood.
"The RNA polymerase II C-terminal domain (CTD) consists of multiple repeats of the heptapeptide sequence YSPTSPS, with the number of repeats varying among organisms. Hyperphosphorylation of the CTD is a key step in the transition of the enzyme complex from the initiation to the elongation stage. What does the term "hyperphosphorylation" mean in this context?
Answer:
Multiple copies of the heptapeptide repeat are phosphorylated on some combination of serine, threonine, and tyrosine residues.
Explanation:
The most likely explanation for the observation that round is dominant to wrinkled in Mendel's peas is
a. the wrinkled allele encodes a functional enzyme, the round allele encodes a defective enzyme, and the round trait could arise with only one functional gene for the enzyme.
b. the round allele has an uppercase letter.
c. the round allele poisons the wrinkled allele.
d. the wrinkled allele encodes a functional enzyme, the round allele encodes a defective enzyme, and the wrinkled trait could arise with only one functional gene for the enzyme.
e. the round allele encodes a functional enzyme, the wrinkled allele encodes a defective enzyme, and the round trait could arise with only one functional gene for the enzyme.
Answer:
The correct option is e) the round allele encodes a functional enzyme, the wrinkled allele encodes a defective enzyme, and the round trait could arise with only one functional allele for the enzyme.
Explanation:
The allele in a gene which suppresses the effect of the other allele is known as the dominant allele. The allele which gets masked by the dominant allele is called as a recessive allele.
As we can observe that only one allele was enough to show the round types, hence the round types should be considered dominant.
Both the alleles should be recessive for the wrinkled trait to occur. Hence, it is a recessive trait.
Determine the sequence of genes along a chromosome based on the following recombination frequencies:
A-B 8 map units
A-C 28 map units
A-D 25 map units
B-C 20 map units
B-D 33 map units
The most probable sequence of genes along a chromosome based on the given recombination frequencies is A, D, C, B. This order is determined by analyzing recombination frequencies, with the closest genes having the lowest frequencies and confirming the sequence through the addition of map units between linked genes.
To determine the sequence of genes along a chromosome based on the given recombination frequencies, we can utilize the concept that genes closer together on a chromosome have lower recombination frequencies. The given recombination frequencies are between gene pairs: A-B (8 map units), A-C (28 map units), A-D (25 map units), B-C (20 map units), and B-D (33 map units).
Starting with the closest genes, A and B are 8 map units apart. Since the recombination frequency between B-C is 20 map units and A-C is 28, it suggests that gene C lies farther from A and B.
Additionally, B-D's recombination frequency is 33 map units, which is higher than A-D's 25 map units, suggesting that D is closer to A; thus, gene D lies between A and C. To confirm the sequence, we can verify the sum of recombination frequencies between three linked genes; for example:
A-B + B-D = 8 + 33 = 41 map units
A-D + D-C = 25 + 3 (calculated since A-C is 28 and A-D is 25) = 28 map units
Given this information, A-D-C is the more likely arrangement because the sum of the recombination frequencies matches the recombination frequency of A-C. Therefore, the most probable order of genes along the chromosome is A, D, C, B.
When scientists classify living things, they do not include viruses. This is because viruses_______.
A) cause disease.
B) do not contain DNA.
C) are not made of one or more cells.
D) are much smaller than other organisms.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
USA Test Prep!
In the genetic code,a.some codons specify more than one amino acid.b.some codons consist of two nucleotides.c.some amino acids are not specified by any codons.d.many amino acids are specified by more than one codon.
Answer:
D
Explanation:
In the central dogma of genetic expression, a codon is a triplet nucleotide sequence in a mRNA that specifies a particular amino acid. Each group of codon contains information for one amino acid.
There are only four nucleotides in an mRNA; Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine and Uracil. If these nucleotides are sequenced three at a time, there will be 64 combinations (where 61 of these combinations code for an amino acid while the remaining three represent stop codons; UAA, UAG, UGA) of the 4 nucleotides i.e. 4^3 or 4×4×4.
There are only 20 different amino acids, meaning that there are more possible codons than the amino acid they code for. Due to this reason, most amino acids are indicated by more than one codon i.e more than one codon can code for a particular amino acid in the genetic code. This phenomenon is referred to as DEGENERACY or REDUNDANCY in genetic coding.
For example; Phenylalanine, an amino acid, is coded for by UUU and UUC codons. Also, leucine is coded for by CUU, CUC, CUA and CUG codons.
Note that, all amino acids except tryptophan (coded for by only one amino acid, UGG) is coded for by 2 or more codons.
These degenerate pattern is important to the genetic code because it helps minimize the effect incorrect placement of nucleotides can have on protein synthesis i.e. a nucleotide can be incorrectly placed due to mutation and still not affect the synthesis of protein. e.g. a nucleotide sequence of UUU can be incorrectly placed as UUC, but because the codons both code for one amino acid, no harm is done.
In the genetic code, every amino acid is defined by a three-nucleotide sequence called a codon. A single amino acid can be encoded by multiple different codons, a concept referred to as degeneracy. Codons are always triplets, there are stop codons that terminate protein synthesis, and the AUG codon which initiates translation.
Explanation:
The genetic code contains instructions for protein synthesis where amino acids are coded by three nucleotide sequences called codons. It is important to note that in some cases a single amino acid can be specified by more than one codon, which is also known as degeneracy of the genetic code. Degeneracy helps reduce the potential negative impact of random mutations, as a single-nucleotide substitution might specify the same or a chemically similar amino acid, thus preventing the protein from getting rendered completely non-functional.
Notably, each codon is composed of three nucleotides, not two. This is because there are only 16 possible two-nucleotide combinations, which wouldn't be sufficient to specify every one of the 20 commonly occurring amino acids. In contrast, there are 64 possible three-nucleotide combinations or codons, which covers all the amino acids and even allows for some redundancy or degeneracy.
Additionally, of the 64 possible triplets, three do not code for an amino acid but terminate protein synthesis, these are called stop codons. Also, the codon AUG, besides denoting the amino acid methionine, typically functions to initiate translation as the start codon.
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If, in one population of pupfish all of the individuals have a blood pigment that is extraordinarily effective at carrying oxygen, but this trait is not seen in any of the other populations, what likely happened?
A) Because oxygen was low where these pupfish lived, a new allele for an effective blood pigment arose.
B) This population was lucky to have an individual with a random mutation for an effective blood pigment, and the frequency of this allele was increased in subsequent generations through natural selection.
C) The ancestral population probably had this type of blood pigment, but it was lost through genetic drift in the other 29 populations.
D) The other populations did not need this pigment, so they did not evolve it.
The most likely explanation for the distinct blood pigment in one pupfish population is a random mutation combined with the beneficial allele being favored and spread by natural selection.
Explanation:If, in one population of pupfish, all of the individuals have a blood pigment that is extraordinarily effective at carrying oxygen, but this trait is not seen in any of the other populations, it suggests a specific evolutionary event has occurred. Option B suggests that this population was lucky to have an individual with a random mutation for an effective blood pigment, and the frequency of this allele was increased in subsequent generations through natural selection. This is the most likely scenario because the allele for the effective blood pigment would offer a significant survival advantage in environments where oxygen was scarce, and those individuals with the mutation would be more likely to survive and reproduce, passing the beneficial allele on to future generations.
Muscle cells in oxygen deprivation convert pyruvate to ______ and in this step gain ______.
Answer:
Lactate, and NAD+
Explanation:
In the process of glycolysis the product is pyruvate. When muscle don't contain enough oxygen they will go through anaerobic glycolysis they don't perform the citric acid cycle and converting the pyruvate to lactate and NAD+. NAD+ is required for the keep going glycolysis.
So, the answer is Lactate and NAD+.
Muscle cells in oxygen deprivation convert pyruvate to lactic acid and gain two ATPs in the process. This occurs during strenuous exercise when cells need high amounts of energy. Accumulation of lactic acid during this process can cause muscle fatigue.
Explanation:When muscle cells are in a state of oxygen deprivation, they convert pyruvate to lactic acid. This is an anaerobic process during which high amounts of energy are necessary but cannot be supplied by oxygen to the muscles. The conversion of pyruvate into lactic acid allows the recycling of the enzyme NAD+ from NADH, a necessity for the process of glycolysis to continue, resulting in a gain of two ATPs per glucose molecule.
This process occurs largely during strenuous physical activity when the energy demand is high. However, the accumulation of lactic acid in the muscles may contribute to muscle fatigue. Glycolysis, besides not utilizing glucose very efficiently, also cannot be sustained for a very long period. It is, however, useful in providing short bursts of high-intensity output.
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The phrases or terms describe different fundamental processes of nucleic acids. Classify each phrase or term as relating to replication
Answer:
The replication of DNA occurs through the following phases - unwinding of strands, binding of RNA primers, elongation, removal of primers, DNA repair and termination of replication.
Explanation:
There are two types of nucleic acids one is RNA and the other is DNA. DNA makes a new copy by the process of DNA replication. The replication of DNA is semiconservative type.
It consists of different steps. The first is an unwinding of the two strands of DNA. This occurs by helicase enzyme which acts like a scissor. The point where this enzyme acts and strat the unwinding is called the origin of replication.
The second step is the synthesis of an RNA primer at the point of origin. It is formed from the DNA template. This RNA primer helps to synthesize new DNA strands and elongates the DNA. This process is called elongation. It forms two strands- leading and lagging strands.
The lagging strand consists of many RNA primers that should be removed.
The RNA primers are removed by DNA polymerase I and it helps in adding complementary strands of DNA. As a result, one new DNA forms from the older one. The final step is DNA repair, which has done by enzyme nuclease.
The enzyme nuclease removes the wrong nucleotides and DNA polymerase fills the space with correct complementary nucleotide.
Assembly of amino acids according to the genetic information carried by mrna is called
The process of assembling amino acids as directed by the genetic information in mRNA is known as translation. It involves the conversion of nucleotide sequences in mRNA into a sequence of amino acids that form proteins. The genetic code, which is nearly universal, employs codons to specify amino acids during this process.
Explanation:Translation of mRNA in Protein Synthesis
The assembly of amino acids according to the genetic information carried by mRNA is called translation. During this process, the genetic code inscribed in the mRNA sequence is interpreted to synthesize proteins. Translation is a complex biological mechanism that involves various molecules and cellular structures, including mRNA, transfer RNA (tRNA), ribosomal RNA (rRNA), ribosomes, and numerous enzymes.
Each amino acid is specified by a three-nucleotide sequence known as a codon, and the process is facilitated by tRNA molecules that match these codons to specific amino acids. The ribosome acts as the site where this process unfolds, reading the mRNA codons and linking the corresponding amino acids to form a polypeptide chain, which ultimately folds into a functional protein. The genetic code that leads to this translation process is nearly universal among all species on Earth, governing the intricate translation from nucleotide sequences to amino acids—the building blocks of proteins.
This elucidation of protein synthesis is fundamental in understanding how genetic information dictates the structure and function of proteins within biological systems.
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Cardiovascular disease and ________ account for approximately 29% of U.S. a. deaths each year. b. stroke lung cancer c. leukemia d. diabetes
Answer: diabetes mellitus
Explanation:
This is a disease condition associated with elevated blood glucose levels.
It is due to abnormalities of the Pancreas. The pancreas coordinates two hormones INSULIN AND GLUCAGON in its cells.
INSULIN converts excess sugar to GLYCOGEN while GLUCAGON breaks down GLYCOGEN to sugar when blood glucose/glucose levels drops.
If the pancreas beta-cells of glucose are faulty, INSULIN fails to converts excess glucose to glycogen; therefore glucose builds up in the blood plasma,and failed to enter the needed cells. Large amount of glucose is wasted in urine.This is diabetes Mellitus.
The two types of diabetes are:
Type 1 and Type 2.
A pheasant breeder starts with two birds in the P generation, one of which is AA and the other is aa. If he takes two of the birds from the F1 generation and breeds them together, what can he expect in his F2 offspring?
The fertilized egg is totipotent, which means: it forms the membranes that surround and support the developing embryo. it can give rise to a complete organism. it can be removed and donated to a surrogate womb. it only contains genetic material from the female. the Y chromosome does not create interference to the expression of X-linked genes.
Answer:
It can give rise to a complete organism.
Explanation:
The zygote is the product of the sexual reproduction formed by the union of the sperm and ova. The zygote is the diploid in nature whereas the gametes are haploid in nature.
The fertilized egg has the ability to differentiate into the different cell type. The single cell can give rise to all the different organ of the body is known as totipotency. The fertilized egg has the ability to give rise to the whole organisms and shows totipotency.
Thus, the correct answer is option (2).
Diploid nuclei of the ascomycete Neurospora crassa contain 14 chromosomes. A single diploid cell in an ascus will undergo one round of meiosis, followed in each of the daughter cells by one round of mitosis, producing a total of eight ascospores. If a single, diploid G2 nucleus in an ascus contains 400 nanograms (ng) of DNA, then a single ascospore nucleus of this species should contain how much DNA (ng), carried on how many chromosomes?
Answer:
Amount of DNA in a diploid G2 nucleus after S phase has already undergone DNA replication hence the amount of DNA in a diploid nucleus in G1 would be 200 ng. As the organism is diploid, 200 ng of DNA would be carried on 14 chromosomes.
A single ascospore nucleus of Neurospora crassa should contain 200 nanograms (ng) of DNA, carried on 7 chromosomes.
Explanation:The process described in the question involves both meiosis and mitosis as part of the life cycle of the ascomycete Neurospora crassa. As it begins with a diploid G2 nucleus containing 400 ng of DNA and 14 chromosomes. During meiosis, this number is halved, resulting in four daughter cells, each with half of the original DNA (200 ng) and seven chromosomes. Further mitosis, which doesn't change the amount of DNA or number of chromosomes, doubles the number of cells, results in eight ascospores each containing 200 ng of DNA and seven chromosomes.
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An elk herd is observed over many generations. Most of the full-grown bull elk have antlers of nearly the same size, although a few have antlers that are significantly larger or smaller than this average size. The average antler size remains constant over the generations. Which of the following effects probably accounts for this situation?
Answer:
Stabilizing selection
Explanation:
Stabilizing selection can be described as a kind of natural selection in which a specific trait remains constant over generations and it is shown more than the other traits. We can say that stabilizing selection favours those traits that are seen to be in majority in a population. It does not support the extreme phenotypes. The stabilizing trait can also be known as the average trait of that particular population.
Which layer of the alimentary canal contains not only glands and blood vessels but also a nerve plexus that helps regulate digestive activity? Group of answer choices serosa muscularis externa submucosa mucosa
Answer: The external submucosa I'd the layer of the alimentary canal that contain the blood vessels,glands and nerve plexus that help to regulate digestive activity.
Explanation:
The alimentary canal or gastrointestinal tracts is the organ in the body that helps to break down ingested food into pieces that can be absorbed by human body and expels unwanted food as wastes. The alimentary canal consists of structures from mouth to the anus. The alimentary canal have four distints layers which are the the mucosa, submucosa,muscular layer and serosa.
The mucosa is the inner layer of alimentary canal and it surrounds the lumen. This layer have direct contact with digested food.
The submucosa consists of dense connective tissues, blood vessers, glands and nerve plexus. It regulate digestive activity.
The muscular layer consists of inner circular layer and longitudinal circular layer. It prevents food from going backward.
The serosa is the external layer of the alimentary canal and iits have several connective tissues.
Final answer:
The submucosa is the layer of the alimentary canal containing glands, blood vessels, and the submucosal plexus that helps regulate digestive activity.
Explanation:
The layer of the alimentary canal that contains not only glands and blood vessels but also a nerve plexus responsible for regulating digestive activity is the submucosa. The submucosa layer consists of dense connective tissue that binds the overlying mucosa to the underlying muscularis. It includes blood and lymphatic vessels which facilitates the transport of absorbed nutrients. This layer also contains submucosal glands that release digestive secretions. Furthermore, the submucosa houses the submucosal plexus (plexus of Meissner), which is part of the enteric nervous system and plays a crucial role in regulating digestive secretions and responses to the presence of food.
Which best defines homeostasis? a.modifying the external environment b.maintaining a stable internal environment
c.controlling what enters and exits the cell
d.movement of materials into the cell
Answer:
B. maintaining a stable internal environment
Explanation: The purpose of homeostasis is to maintain a stable internal environment by careful regulation of bodily temperatures and other methods.
A particular recessive genetic disorder is fatal before birth, so there are no homozygous recessive individuals. In a particular population, one in 15 individuals is a carrier for this disorder. What are the allele frequencies of the dominant (p) and recessive (q) alleles in this population?
A) p = 1.0, q = 0.0B) p = 0.933, q = 0.067C) p = 0.955, q = 0.045D) p = 0.967, q = 0.033
Answer:
The answer is letter D.
Explanation:
The allele frequencies of the dominant population is: p = 0.967
And the recessive population is: q= 0.033.
The eggs released by sponges during reproduction have proteins on their surfaces that prevent sperm from different sponge species from binding to the eggs. What type of reproductive isolation would include this example?
Answer:
Gamete compatibility
Explanation:
Function with games is important for sexual reproduction. Wolbachia are endosymbiotic bacteria that are maternally transmitted and exploit gamete function in many types of arthropod.
In Drosophila, Wolbachia-infected males ' fertilization of uninfected eggs by sperm often results in an early developmental arrest.
Therefore the answer is -
Gamete compatibility
The pathophysiology instructor will emphasize that the cells of the proximal tubule have a fine, villous structure that increases surface area, allowing for which physiologic function to occur with fluids?
Answer:
The pathophysiology instructor will emphasize that the cells of the proximal tubule have a fine, villous structure that increases surface area, allowing for active transport processes to occur with fluids.
Explanation:
The proximal tubule is a part of the nephron and it controls the "pH of the filtrate" by exchanging "hydrogen ions for bicarbonates". It also secretes organic acids like creatinine and bases to be mixed with the filtrate, so that it is neutralized. Thus it helps in the transportation of the filtrate and is also responsible for absorption and re-absorption of the fluids.At one time, biologists thought that fungi were merely forms of plants that had lost their chlorophyll and had returned to saprotrophy to gain food. Why is this no longer considered a solid theory?
Answer & explanation:
Fungi have long been regarded as organisms that were part of the Plantae kingdom (plants), mainly because they have cell walls in their cells, reproduce by spores, and the fact that some of them are sessile (attached to the ground).
However, fungi are no longer considered as plants because they do not have chlorophyll or specialized cells, such as chloroplasts and vacuoles. In addition, fungi have heterotrophic nutrition (plants are autotrophic), needing to absorb organic substances to survive.
Nowadays, fungi are studied in isolation and are inserted in their own kingdom, the Fungi kingdom.
HCl secretions convert pepsinogen to the active hormone pepsin. What cells in the gastric pits produce pepsinogen?
A. parietal cells
B. chief cells
C. G cells
D. paracrine cells(also known as enteroendocrine cells)
Answer:
option B. chief cells
Explanation:
The inner wall of stomach contain gastric pits. The pits contain certain cells that secretes chemicals. The cheif and parietal cells are present in gastric pits. The Hcl secreted by parietal cells. The hcl is involved in conversion of pepsinogen to pepsin. The pepsinogen is the inactive form and it become activated by hcl. The inactive zymogen (pepsinogen) is released into gastric juice. The chief and mucus cells secrete pepsinogen. The active pepsin is responsible for digesting proteins. Thus, option B is correct.
A power lifter has been advised by his coaches that he needs to lose some weight while still maintaining his rigorous training schedule. When evaluating this athlete's diet, which macronutrient will likely need to be monitored closely and possibly limited?
A. Fat
B. Carbohydrate
C. Protein
D. Water
Answer:
The correct answer is A. Fat
Explanation:
Fat is one of the macronutrient that is present in our food and fat is accumulated in the body on the liver and in adipose tissue and provide storage form of energy to the body. So fat accumulation contributes to weight gain.
Fats contributes to more calory per gram than other macronutrient like carbohydrates and proteins, therefore, reducing the amount of fat by taking low calory diet which have less fat amount is important to reduce weight.
Therefore here to lose some weight by powerlifter fat will likely need to be monitored closely and possibly limited.
whats a longer way to say Photosynthesis
Answer:
Well there is a equation of photosynthesis:6CO2 + 6H20 + (energy) → C6H12O6 + 6O2
Explanation:
The conditions on earth around the time of the of the molecules present were likely produced by volcanic eruptions. Critical formation of small molecules containing which of the following? origin of life were very different from those of today. Most to the origin of life was the
a. nitrogen and methane
b. oxygen and hydrogen
c. sulfur and carbon
d. ammonia and methane
e. carbon and hydrogen
Answer:
The aswer is letter E
Explanation:
Most to the origin of life was the carbon and hydrogen
Volcanic eruptions on early Earth likely produced the conditions necessary for the origin of life. The molecules present during this time contained nitrogen and methane.
Explanation:The conditions on Earth around the time of the origin of life were likely produced by volcanic eruptions. The critical formation of small molecules needed for the origin of life were very different from those of today. The molecules present during this time contained nitrogen and methane, so the correct answer is a. nitrogen and methane.
Which of the following choices would be the most logical third step in Connell's experimental procedure, permitting him to either accept or reject his hypothesis of competitive exclusion?
The experimental group:________
a. The half of each rock that contained both Balanus and Chthamalus was the experimental group.
b. The experimental group tests to see if the presence of Balanus in some manner prevents Chthamalus from growing.
Answer: B) The experimental group tests to see if the presence of Balanus in some manner prevents Chthamalus from growing.
Explanation:
The most logical third step in Connell's experimental procedure, permitting him to either accept or reject his hypothesis of competitive exclusion is the experimental group tests to see if the presence of Balanus in some manner prevents Chthamalus from growing.
Balanus is a species of crustacean, as know as sea acorns, whereas Chthamalus is a species of barnacles that can easily be found in the northern hemisphere's coasts.
To test Connell's hypothesis of competitive exclusion, the logical step would be to observe and compare the growth of Chthamalus in areas where both species are present, and where Balanus is excluded.
Explanation:In Connell's experimental procedure, the most logical third step to accept or reject his hypothesis of competitive exclusion would be to observe the growth and interaction patterns between the Balanus and Chthamalus in the experimental group. This can be done by comparing the areas where both species are present with those where Balanus is excluded. If the growth of Chthamalus is significantly more in the absence of Balanus, this would serve as an evidence of competitive exclusion by Balanus. If no significant difference is noted, then the hypothesis might need to be reconsidered or rejected.
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The presence of a mutualist might allow what to happen in terms of population dynamics? a) The species could surpass its carrying capacity.
b) The growth rate would decrease.
c) The competition coefficient would become negative.
d) N would go to 0.
The presence of a mutualist might allow what to happen in terms of population dynamics - a) The species could surpass its carrying capacity.
Population dynamics is the study of how and why populations change in size and structure over time.
The factors in population dynamics include - rates of reproduction, death, and migration.Mutualism is the interaction between two different species that leads to positive effects on per capita reproduction and/or survival of the interacting populations.as in this case, the association is beneficial for both the species which leads to an increase in the carrying capacity.Thus, the presence of a mutualist might allow what to happen in terms of population dynamics - a) The species could surpass its carrying capacity.
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Amino acids with hydrophobic r groups are most often found buried in the interior of folded proteins. true or false
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Hydrophobicity is the aversion to the water of a molecule (or part of it). Amino acids with a hydrophobic R group (glycine, alanine, valine, leucine, isoleucine, proline, phenylalanine, methionine, and tryptophan) will fold with the R groups in the interior to avoid water. This behavior is one of the most important forces in protein folding. You can see it exemplified in the image I added.
I hope you fidn this information useful and interesting! Good luck!
Final answer:
Amino acids with hydrophobic R groups are most often found in the interior of folded proteins to minimize their interaction with water in aqueous environments, confirming the statement as true.
Explanation:
The statement is true. Amino acids with hydrophobic R groups are typically found buried within the interior of folded proteins. This is because in an aqueous environment, such as the cytoplasm, it is energetically favorable for proteins to fold in a way that the hydrophobic side chains are shielded from water, thus reducing the ordered structure of surrounding water molecules and increasing entropy. On the other hand, the exterior of proteins is generally hydrophilic, allowing interaction with the aqueous environment.
Hydrophobic R groups interact with each other through van der Waals forces and contribute to the stability of the protein's three-dimensional structure. This structural organization is a key aspect of protein folding, in the context of both globular proteins in aqueous environments and membrane proteins within the hydrophobic interior of lipid bilayers.
Which receptors is not a membrane receptor?
Intracellular receptors, such as steroid hormone receptors and thyroid hormone receptors, are examples of receptors that are not membrane receptors. They are located within the cell, as opposed to being on the cell's surface.
Explanation:In biology, the types of receptors that are not categorized as membrane receptors are commonly called intracellular receptors. Unlike membrane receptors, which are located on the cell’s surface and interact with external signaling molecules, intracellular receptors are located inside the cell. Typical examples of intracellular receptors include steroid hormone receptors and thyroid hormone receptors. These receptors bind to hormones that have the ability to cross the cell membrane due to their lipid-soluble nature.
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Intracellular receptors are the type of receptors that are not membrane receptors. These receptors are housed inside the cell and bind to nonpolar molecules like steroids. In contrast, membrane receptors are located in the plasma membrane and interact with external ligand molecules.
Explanation:In the context of cell biology, the receptors that are not membrane receptors are called intracellular receptors. These types of receptors are located within the cell rather than on its membrane. One example is the steroid hormone receptor. Molecules that are nonpolar, such as steroids, can diffuse across the cell membrane and bind to these intracellular receptors. The receptor-ligand complex then moves to the nucleus and interacts with cellular DNA, influencing gene expression. On the other hand, cell-surface receptors or membrane receptors are embedded in the plasma membrane of the cell. They interact with external ligand molecules and are involved in signal transduction processes that convert external signals into intracellular ones.
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