Cylinder cushions at the ends of the cylinder speeds the piston up at the end of the stroke. a)- True b) False

Answer:

Reynolds number determines whether a flow is laminar or turbulent flow.

Explanation:

Reynolds number is defined as ratio of inertia force to the viscous force. it is a dimension less  number. Reynolds number is used to describe the type of flow in a fluid whether it is laminar flow or turbulent flow. Reynolds number is denoted by Re.

When Reynolds number is in the range of 0 to 2000, the flow is considered to be laminar.

When Reynolds number is in the range of 2000 to 4000, the flow is considered to be transition.

And when Reynolds number is more than 4000, the flow is turbulent flow.

                     The boundary layer thickness for a fluid is given by

                                      δ = [tex]\frac{5\times x}{\sqrt{Re}}[/tex]

where δ is boundary layer thickness

           x is distance from the leading edge

           Re is Reynolds number

Thus from the above boundary layer thickness equation, we can see that the boundary layer thickness varies inversely to square root of reynolds number.

Answer: False

Explanation: No, brass is not a ferrous alloy.  

      Ferrous alloys are those alloy which contain iron like cast iron, steel, strain-less steel, high carbon steel. Brass on the other hand does not contain any composition. of iron hence it can not be considered as a ferrous alloy. Brass comes under the category of non- ferrous made with a composition of copper and zinc, however their proportion is not strict and we can add other elements like aluminium or lead to alter its durability or corrosiveness.  

Answer:

Rankine cycle less efficient as compare to Carnot cycle operating betwwen same temperature limit.

Explanation:

We know that Carnot's cycle is an ideal cycle for all heat engine which operating between same temperature.It is a reversible cycle which have all process reversible that is why it have maximum efficiency.

On the other hand Rankine cycle is a practical working cycle so it is impossible to make all process reversible .In practical there will be always loss due to this any process can not make 100 % reversible.That is why Rankine cycle have low efficiency as compare to Carnot cycle operating between same temperature limits.

Answer:

0.1788 ,180°,90°,60°

Explanation:

CONVERSION FROM DEGREE TO RADIANS: For converting degree to radian we have to multiply with [tex]\frac{\pi}{180}[/tex]

using this concept 10.25°=10.25×[tex]\frac{\pi}{180}[/tex]=0.1788

CONVERSION FROM RADIAN TO DEGREE: For converting radian to degree we have to multiply with[tex]\frac{180}{\pi}[/tex]

using this concept π=π×[tex]\frac{180}{\pi}[/tex]

                                  =180°

  [tex]\frac{\pi}{2}[/tex]= [tex]\frac{\pi}{2}[/tex×[tex]\frac{180}{\pi}[/tex]

                                    =90°

  [tex]\frac{\pi}{3}[/tex]= [tex]\frac{\pi}{3}[/tex]×[tex]\frac{180}{\pi}[/tex]

                                    =60°

Answer:

10.25° = 0.1790 radians

π radians = 180°

π/2 radians = 90°

π/3 radians = 60°

Explanation:

The conversion of degree into radians is shown below:

1° = π/180 radians

So,

10.25° = (π/180)*10.25 radians

Also, π = 22/7

So,

[tex]10.25^0=\frac{22\times10.25}{7\times180}radians[/tex]

Solving it we get,

10.25° = 0.1790 radians

The conversion of radians into degree is shown below:

1 radian = 180/π°

(a)

π radians = (180/π)*π°

Thus,

π radians = 180°

(b)

π/2 radians = (180/π)*(π/2)°

[tex]\frac {\pi }{2} radians=\frac{180}{\not {\pi }} \times \frac{\not {\pi }}{2}^0[/tex]

π/2 radians = 90°

(c)

π/3 radians = (180/π)*(π/3)°

[tex]\frac {\pi }{3} radians=\frac{180}{\not {\pi }} \times \frac{\not {\pi }}{3}^0[/tex]

π/3 radians = 60°

Answer:

[tex]\omega_y,\omega_x,\omega_Z[/tex]  all are zero.

Explanation:

We know that if flow is possible then it will satisfy the below equation

[tex]\dfrac{\partial u}{\partial x}+\dfrac{\partial v}{\partial y}+\dfrac{\partial w}{\partial z}=0[/tex]

Where u is the velocity of flow in the x-direction ,v is the velocity of flow in the y-direction and w is the velocity of flow in z-direction.

And velocity potential function [tex]\phi[/tex] given as follows

 [tex]u=-\frac{\partial \phi }{\partial x},v=-\frac{\partial \phi }{\partial y},w=-\frac{\partial \phi }{\partial z}[/tex]

Rotationality of fluid is given by [tex]\omega[/tex]

[tex]\frac{\partial v}{\partial x}-\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}=\omega_Z[/tex]

[tex]\frac{\partial v}{\partial z}-\frac{\partial w}{\partial y}=\omega_x[/tex]

[tex]\frac{\partial w}{\partial x}-\frac{\partial u}{\partial z}=\omega_y[/tex]

So now putting value in the above equations ,we will find

[tex]\omega =\frac{\partial \phi }{\partial x},u=\frac{\partial \phi }{\partial x},[/tex]

[tex]\omega_y=\dfrac{\partial^2 \phi }{\partial z\partial x}-\dfrac{\partial^2 \phi }{\partial z\partial x}[/tex]

So [tex]\omega_y[/tex]=0

Like this all [tex]\omega_y,\omega_x,\omega_Z[/tex] all are zero.

That is why  velocity potential flow is irroational flow.

Answer:

Differential entropy differ's from the normal entropy as in case of differential entropy random variable needs not to be discrete.

The differential concept of entropy is as follows

Let X be a random variable which is continuous

Let[tex]f(x)[/tex] be it's probability distribution function

We have differential entropy h(X) defined as

[tex]h(X)=-\int _{X}f(X)log[f(X)]dx[/tex]

The random variable 'X' need not to be discrete and it is continuous.

Answer:

(a)Volume in liters=5.3 liters.

(b)Volume in liters/minute=31.8 liters/minute.

Explanation:

Given:  

   Diameter of cylinder ,D=150 mm

                         Stroke,L=300 mm

                         Time ,t=10 sec

we know that swept volume of cylinder

          [tex]V_{s}=\dfrac{\pi }{4}\times D^2\times L[/tex]

So [tex]V_{s}=\dfrac{\pi }{4}\times 0.15^2\times 0.3 m^{3}[/tex]

     [tex]V_{s}=0.0053 m^3[/tex]

(a) Volume in liters =5.3 liters         ( 1[tex]m^3[/tex]=1000 liters)

(b) When we divide swept volume  by time(in minute) we will get liters/minute.

 We know that 1 minute=60 sec

⇒10 sec=[tex]\frac{10}{60}[/tex] minute

So volume displace in liters/minute=31.8 liters/minute.

Answer Explanation :

ACCELEROMETERS:  Accelerometers are used for sensing the vibration. basically accelerometers are used for measuring high as well as low frequency. when a transducer is used in addition with another device to measure vibration is called pickups. Seismic instruments are commonly used  vibration pickups

PROXMITY PROBE: Proximity probe is used for the measurements of vibration the vibration sensitivity is highest around 8 to 16 hertz

Answer:

θ=0.0288 radian

Explanation:

resolution limit is the minimum angular separation of  two sources that can be viewed  distinctly    by telescope

[tex]\theta =\frac{1.22\times \lambda}{D}[/tex]

[tex]\lambda=6000\times 10^{-8} cm=6 \times 10^{-5} cm[/tex]

[tex]d=100 inch=100\times 2.54=254cm[/tex]

[tex]\theta = \frac{1.22 \times 6 \times 10^{-5}}{254}[/tex]

θ=0.0288 radian

Answer:

Yes

Explanation:

Given Data

Temprature of source=750°c=1023k

Temprature of sink =0°c=273k

Work produced=3.3KW

Heat Rejected=4.4KW

Efficiency of heat engine(η)=[tex]\frac{Work produced}{Heat supplied}[/tex]

and

Heat Supplied [tex]{\left (Q_s\right)}=Work Produced(W)+Heat rejected\left ( Q_r \right )[/tex]

[tex]{Q_s}=3.3+4.4=7.7KW[/tex]

η=[tex]\frac{3.3}{7.7}[/tex]

η=42.85%

Also the maximum efficiency of a heat engine operating between two different Tempratures i.e. Source & Sink

η=1-[tex]\frac{T_ {sink}}{T_ {source}}[/tex]

η=1-[tex]\frac{273}{1023}[/tex]

η=73.31%

Therefore our Engine Efficiency is less than the maximum efficiency hence the given claim is valid.

Answer:

 Different types of equipment are required for proper conditioning of air because every air conditional space faces some geometrical and environmental issues or problems. There are some different types of equipment used for conditioning of air that are air system, water system and air-water system. In many cases the air conditioning of the system varies with size of the equipment.  

Answer:

Amplitude of A is 4.975 mm and total force is 94.3 N

Explanation:

given data in question

mass (m) = 2 kg

stiffness (k) = 15 kN/m

viscous damping (c) = 5Ns/m

amplitude (F) = 25 N

angular frequency (ω) = 100 rad/s

to find out

amplitude of the forced  and maximum force transmitted

Solution

static force for transmitted is mg i.e 2 × 9.81 = 19.6 N .............. 1

we know the amplitude formula i.e.

Amplitude of A = amplitude /   [tex]\sqrt{c^{2}\omega^{2} + (k - m \omega^{2})^{2}[/tex]

now put the value c k m and ω and we find amplitude

Amplitude of A = 25 /   [tex]\sqrt{5^{2} * 100^{2} + (15000 - 2 * 100^{2})^{2}[/tex]

Amplitude of A = 4.975 mm

now in next part we know the maximum force value when amplitude is equal displacement i.e.

maximum force = amplitude of A [tex]\sqrt{k^{2}+c^{2}\omega^{2}}[/tex]

now put all these value c , ω k and amplitude and we get

maximum force = 4.975 [tex]\sqrt{15000^{2}+5^{2} * 100^{2}}[/tex]

maximum force = 74.7 N                          .......................2

total force is combine equation 1 and 2 we get

total force 19.6 + 74.7 = 94.3 N

Answer:

Water surface tension

Explanation:

The water around the paperclip forms a kind of elastic surface, deforming, in which the clip can stay afloat.

This is because the molecules that are on the surface of the water, already in contact with the air, try to cling to those that are next to them and those that are immediately below.

If we added even if it were just a drop of soap in the water, the clip would go to the bottom, because the soap has the ability to decrease the surface tension of the water.

Answer:

the torque capacity is  30316.369 lb-in

Explanation:

Given data

OD = 9 in

ID = 7 in

coefficient of friction = 0.2

maximum pressure = 1.5 in-kip = 1500 lb

To find out

the torque capacity using the uniform-pressure assumption.

Solution

We know the the torque formula for uniform pressure theory is

torque = 2/3 × [tex]\pi[/tex] × coefficient of friction × maximum pressure ( R³ - r³ )    .....................................1

here R = OD/2 = 4.5 in and r = ID/2 = 3.5 in

now put all these value R, r, coefficient of friction and  maximum pressure in equation 1 and we will get here torque

torque = 2/3 × [tex]\pi[/tex] × 0.2 × 1500 ( 4.5³ - 3.5³ )

so the torque =  30316.369 lb-in

Answer:

A body is said to be in thermal equilibrium where all the system temperatures are the same.

A body is said to be in thermodynamic equilibrium if all three requirements of equilibrium are met

Explanation:

A body is said to be in thermal equilibrium where all the system temperatures are the same. In this case, there will be no temperature gradient between the system and the environment.

while, A body is said to be in thermodynamic equilibrium if all three requirements of equilibrium are met, i.e. mechanical equilibrium, chemical equilibrium and thermal equilibrium.

Answer:

Isolated system

Explanation:

By definition of a closed system it means that a system that does not interact with it's surroundings in any manner

The other options are explained as under:

Isothermal system : It is a system that does not allow it's temperature to change

Control Mass system : It is a system whose mass remains conserved which means the mass entering the system equals the mass leaving the system

Open system: It is a system that allows transfer of mass and energy across it's boundary without any opposition i.e freely.

Answer:

b) False

Explanation:

Work done by a system is not a property because it doesn't define the system's state. Work is mechanical energy exchanged across the system's boundaries.

Answer:

Quality of vapor is equal to 17.3%.

Explanation:

We know that if we know only one property in side the wet region then we will find the other property by using steam property table.

So pressure at saturation temperature 20°C

[tex]v_f= 0.001\frac{m^3}{Kg} ,v_g= 57.76\frac{m^3}{Kg}[/tex]

So specific volume v

[tex]v=v_f+x(v_g-v_f)\frac{m^3}{Kg}[/tex]  

Where x is quality of mixture

Now putting the values ,given that [tex]v=10m^3/kg[/tex]

[tex]10=0.001+x(57.76-0.001)\frac{m^3}{Kg}[/tex]  

x=0.173

So quality of vapor is equal to 17.3%.

Answer:

a)-Bin stock items free issue

Explanation:

Bin stock items free issue items are similar to the free issue items, but their access is limited.

Bin stock items free issue items are similar to the free issue items, but their access is limited.

Answer Explanation:

the efficiency of the the engine is given by=1-[tex]\frac{T_2}{T_1}[/tex]

where T₂= lower temperature

           T₁= Higher temperature

we have given efficiency =70%

lower temperature T₂=27°C=273+27=300K

higher temperature T₁=627°C=273+627=900K

efficiency=1-[tex]\frac{T_2}{T_1}[/tex]

                =1-[tex]\frac{300}{900}[/tex]

                 =1-0.3333

                 =0.6666

                 =66%

66% is less than 70% so so inventor claim is wrong

Answer with Explanations:

We are given:

a(t)=4*t^2-2............................(1)

where t= time in seconds, and a(t) = acceleration as a function of time.

and

x(0)=-2 .................................(2)

x(2) = -20 ............................(3)

where x(t) = distance travelled as a function of time.

Need to find x(4).

Solution:

From (1), we express x(t) by integrating, twice.

velocity = v(t) = integral of (1) with respect to t

v(t) = 4t^3/3 - 2t + k1     ................(4)

where k1 is a constant, to be determined.

Integrate (4) to find the displacement x(t) = integral of (4).

x(t) = integral of v(t) with respect to t

= (t^4)/3 - t^2 + (k1)t + k2  .............(5)   where k2 is another constant to be determined.

from (2) and (3)

we set up a system of two equations, with k1 and k2 as unknowns.

x(0) = 0 - 0 + 0 + k2 = -2  => k2 = 2   ......................(6)

substitute (6) in (3)

x(2) = (2^4)/3 - (2^2) + k1(2) -2  = -20

16/3 -4 + 2k1 -2 = -20

2k1 = -20-16/3 +4 +2 = -58/3

=>

k1 = -29/3  ....................................(7)

Thus substituting (6) and (7) in (5), we get

x(t) = (t^4)/3 - t^2 - 29t/3 + 2   ..............(8)

which, by putting t=4 in (8)

x(4) = (4^4)/3 - (4^2 - 29*4/3 +2

= 86/3, or

= 28 2/3, or

= 28.67 (to two places of decimal)

The answer is "28.87 m" and the further calculation can be defined as follows:

Given:

[tex]\to a=(4t^2-2)\ \frac{m}{s}\\\\ [/tex]

When

[tex] \to t=0 \ \ \ \ \ \ \ v= 2\ m\\\\ \to t=2 \ \ \ \ \ \ \ v= 20\ m\\\\ \to t=4\ \ \ \ \ \ \ v=?[/tex]

To find:

value=?

Solution:

[tex]V(t)=\int a(t)\ dt=\int (4t^2-2)\ dt=\frac{4}{3}t^3-2t+C_1\\\\ x(t)=\int V(t)\ dt =\int (\frac{4}{3}t^3-2t+C_1)\ dt=\frac{1}{3}t^4-t^2+C_1t+C_2\\\\ x(0)=-2=\frac{1}{3} 0^4-0^2+C_1(0)+C_2\to C_2=-2\ m\\\\ x(2)=-20=\frac{1}{3} 2^4-2^2+C_1(2)-2\to C_1=-\frac{29}{3}\ \frac{m}{s}\\\\ x(4) = \frac{1}{3}4^4-4^2 -\frac{29}{3}4-2 = 28.87 \ m \\\\[/tex]

The particle will be at 28.87 m at the right of the origin.

Learn more about velocity:

brainly.com/question/24376522

Answer:

a)[tex]\eta_{st}=\dfrac{\Delta h_{actual}}{\Delta _{ideal}}[/tex]

b)[tex]\eta_{sc}=\dfrac{\Delta h_{ideal}}{\Delta _{actual}}[/tex]

c)[tex]\eta_{sn}=\dfrac{\Delta h_{actual}}{\Delta _{ideal}}[/tex]

Explanation:

a)

Adiabatic turbine

Adiabatic turbine means turbine can not reject or take heat from surrounding.

Isentropic efficiency of turbine can be define as the ratio of actual work out put to the Ideal or isentropic work out put.Ideal means when turbine will give maximum work and there is no any friction losses we can say when process is isentropic.

Isentropic efficiency of turbine=(Actual work output)/(Ideal work output)

[tex]\eta_{st}=\dfrac{\Delta h_{actual}}{\Delta _{ideal}}[/tex]

b)

Adiabatic compressor

Isentropic efficiency of compressor can be define as the ratio of ideal or isentropic work in put to the actual work  in put.

Isentropic efficiency of turbine=(Ideal work input)/(actual work input)

[tex]\eta_{sc}=\dfrac{\Delta h_{ideal}}{\Delta _{actual}}[/tex]

c)Adiabatic nozzle

We know that nozzle is device which used to accelerate the fluid.

Basically it covert pressure energy to kinetic energy.

Isentropic efficiency of nozzle can be define as the ratio of actual enthalpy drop put to the Ideal or isentropic enthalpy drop.

[tex]\eta_{sn}=\dfrac{\Delta h_{actual}}{\Delta _{ideal}}[/tex]

Answer: True

Explanation:Typical metals have a property of ductility and malleability that is  metals can be drawn into wires or any other shape by beating or stretching the metal by putting the tensile strength or shear strength that pulls them apart . But while compression the metals are squeezed together which affects the hardness of a metal and they are not able to bear the compression force well and thus cannot show elastic-plastic behavior while compression .Therefore the statement given is true typical metals show elastic-plastic behavior in tension and shear but not in compression.

Answer:

Explained

Explanation:

Cutting tools:

 1. Cutting tools can either be single point or multi point.

2. Cutting tools can have variety of material depending on use like ceramics, diamonds, metals, CBN, etc.

3.Cutting tools have definite shapes and geometry.

Abrasive machining tools

1. Abrasive tools are always multi point tools.

2. Abrasive tools composed of abrasives bounded in medium of resin or metal.

3. They do not have definite geometry of shape

Cutting tools engage materials with a sharp edge for aggressive material removal, while abrasive machining tools employ hard particles to wear away material for high precision and smoothness in finishing operations.

The differences between cutting tools and abrasive machining tools are fundamental in the processes they are used for and their operational principles. Cutting tools are typically used in operations like turning, milling, and drilling where the tool itself engages the material to be cut with a sharp edge, removing materials in the form of chips. These tools are often made of high-speed steel, carbide, ceramics, or other hard materials and are precisely shaped according to the specific cutting operation.

On the other hand, abrasive machining tools, which include grinding wheels, sandpaper, and abrasive belts, remove material through the action of hard, abrasive particles that are either bonded to the tool's surface or are used as loose grains. Abrasive machining is used for finishing surfaces to a high degree of smoothness, precision, and complex shapes that cutting tools cannot achieve. These tools are made of materials like aluminum oxide, silicon carbide, diamond, or cubic boron nitride.

To summarize, cutting tools use a sharp edge to remove material in a defined shape, while abrasive tools use hard particles to wear away material for finishing and shaping. Moreover, cutting tools are applied in more aggressive material removal processes and quicker operations like shaping or roughing out material, whereas abrasive machining is associated with finishing operations that require high precision and smoothness.

Answer:

(a) water height =408.66 in.

(b) mercury height=30.04 in.

Explanation:

Given: P=14.769 psi     ( 1 psi= 6894.76 [tex]\frac{N}{m^2}[/tex] )

we know that   [tex]P=\rho\times g\timesh[/tex]

where [tex]\rho =Density,g=9.81\frac{m}{s^2}[/tex]

     h=height.

Given that P=14.769 psi ⇒P= 101828.6 7[tex]\dfrac{N}{m^2}[/tex]

(a) [tex]P=\rho_{w}\times g\times h_{w}[/tex]  

     [tex]\rho_{w}=1000\frac{Kg}{m^3}[/tex]

⇒101828.67=[tex]1000\times 9.81\times h_{w}[/tex]

[tex]h_{w}[/tex]=10.38 m

So water barometer will read 408.66 in.            (1 m=39.37 in)

(b)  [tex]P=\rho_{hg}\times g\times h_{hg}[/tex]

     [tex]\rho_{hg}[/tex]=13600

So 101828.67=[tex]13600\times 9.81\times h_{hg}[/tex]

[tex]h_{hg}[/tex]=0.763 m

So mercury barometer will read 30.04 in.

Answer:

b). Occurs at the outer surface of the shaft

Explanation:

We know from shear stress and torque relationship, we know that

[tex]\frac{T}{J}= \frac{\tau }{r}[/tex]

where, T = torque

            J = polar moment of inertia of shaft

            τ = torsional shear stress

             r = raduis of the shaft

Therefore from the above relation we see that

            [tex]\tau = \frac{T.r}{J}[/tex]

Thus torsional shear stress, τ is directly proportional to the radius,r of the shaft.

When r= 0, then τ = 0

and when r = R , τ is maximum

Thus, torsional shear stress is maximum at the outer surface of the shaft.

Answer:

In the question given out of the four options

option B. Leftover propellant

is correct.

Explanation:

Solid rocket motors have rocket engines that uses solid fuels or propellants such as HTPB and PBAN as the most commonly used binders.

These rockets always have the propellant in adequate amount can be powered for long enough without much fuel degradation and therefore are reliable and mostly used in military applications.

Since these have fuel or propellant storage and therefore to indicate it, solid rocket motor identifies the left over propellant as ' a silver' .

Answer:

(b) 56%

Explanation:

the maximum thermal efficiency is possible only when power cycle is reversible in nature and when power cycle is reversible in nature the thermal efficiency depends on the temperature

here we have given T₁ (Higher temperature)= 600+273=873

lower temperature T₂=110+273=383

Efficiency of power cycle is given by =1-[tex]\frac{T2}{T1}[/tex]

=1-[tex]\frac{383}{873}[/tex]

=1-0.43871

=.56

=56%