Answer:
The four tissue present in the body are epithelial tissue, connective tissue, muscle tissue and nervous tissue.
Explanation:
Epithelial tissue:
Epithelial tissue is made up of single or several layers of epithelial cells. These tissue are present around the lining of esophagus, mouth, respiratory tract and urinary bladder. The main function of epithelial tissue is diffusion, secretion and protection of the organism.
Connective tissue:
The main connective tissue of the body is blood, tendons and ligament. Connective tissue mainly consists of fibers and ground substance. The blood helps in transportation of the substances. Tendons and ligaments helps in the connection of bones and cartilage.
Muscle tissue:
Muscle tissue mainly composed of the contractile protein like actin, myosin, tropomyosin and troponin. The main function of the muscle tissue is the movement and contraction of the muscles.
Nervous tissue:
Nervous tissue mainly composed of the dendrites, cell body, axon and axon terminals. The main function of nervous tissue is the propagation of action potential and response towards the external and internal stimuli of the body.
The abbreviation MI stands for
a. myocardial infarction.
b. myocardial ischemia.
c. myocardial inflammation
d. myocardial injury.
Answer:
myocardial Infraction
In a contracted muscle, which of the following extends from ‘Z’ disc to ‘Z’ disc?
A) A-band
B) I-band
C) H-zone
D) M-line
Answer:
The correct answer will be option A - A-band.
Explanation:
The sarcomere is the repeating unit of a myofibril which extends between two z-lines. Under a microscope, a sarcomere can be divided into A- band which is composed of thick myosin only and I-band which consists of thin filament that is actin only.
When a muscle contract then actin and myosin comes in overlapping position due to which I-band shortens and between two z-lines and overlapped structure of thin actin filaments over thick myosin filaments (A-band) is seen.
Therefore, only A-band is seen between two z-lines in a contracted muscle thus, option A is the correct answer.
Echolalia means:
a. involuntary movements such as eye tics or arm thrusting.
b. soiling clothing with feces in a person over the age of five.
c. vocalizing vulgar or inappropriate words.
d. repeating words that someone else has said.
The correct answer is D. Repeating words that someone else has said.
Explanation.
The word "Echolalia" mainly used in certain fields of medicine such as psychology and psychiatry refers to the automatic or involuntary repetition of words or vocalizations made by someone else that is part of imitative behavior and mainly occur without awareness. Additionally, echolalia is related to short-term memory and can also be an indicator of autism, schizophrenia, epilepsy and other diseases or disorders and because of this echolalia has been widely studied in medicine. Therefore echolalia means repeating words that someone else has said.
____________ are microscopic tubular structures which compose the skeleton of a neuron.
Answer:
I think it's nervous tissue.
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There is only one species of Salmonella that affects humans, it is?
a) Salmonella enteriditis
b) Salmonella typhirium
c) Salmonella typhi
d) All of the above are species that affect humans
Answer:
D. All of the above are species that affect humans.
Explanation:
The answer that is accurate is "the hens from which the eggs were produced would be the reservoir for this infection”. Salmonella bacterium can be found in chickens and other live birds. The eggs of the birds can become contaminated with these bacteria.
One can become ill from eating eggs that are uncooked or undercooked. To avoid disease, handle and prepare eggs correctly at all times. When birds lay eggs or after they have been deposited, when the eggs come into contact with bird faeces, salmonella can get on the egg shells. Commercial eggs, such as those one purchase at the grocery store, are not a concern because they are washed before being sent to stores. Salmonella can potentially contaminate the egg's interior as it develops within the bird before the shell is created. Eggs are safer today because far fewer egg-laying hens have this issue than they did in the 1980s and 1990s. However, some eggs continue to contain Salmonella contamination.
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Oxytocin is used during which of the following procedures?
A. bowel resection
B. total abdominal hysterectomy
C. total hip replacement
D. cesarean section
Answer:
(D). cesarean section
Explanation:
Oxytocin is a peptide hormone, synthesized by hypothalamus and secreted by posterior pituitary. Oxytocin plays role in sexual reproduction, lactation, and induce contractions during child birth.
Oxytocin is naturally produced at the time of child birth, but natural oxytocin has a short half-life. Hence, oxytocin infusion is done during child birth or cesarean section as it maintains contraction of uterine wall during the surgery.
Thus, the correct answer is option (D).
With which portion of an epithelial cell in the stomach would food be in contact?
a) Basalsurface
b) Apical surface
c) Basal lamina
d) Reticularlamina
Answer: b) Apical surface
Explanation:
The epithelium is characterized by the juxtaposition of cells and the little extracellular matrix. The region of the cell facing the free surface is the apical pole, while the opposite side is the basal pole. The apical domain is always turned to the outer surface from a closed cavity or tube. The stomach is a dilated portion of the digestive tract where the food cake is macerated and partially digested in a paste, the chimo (from Greek chymos, juice). In adults, holds 1.5L and, when extended, 3L.Given that food enters the stomach and interects with the region facing the surface, food would be in contact with the Apical surface.
Describe age related disorders of two of the following: olfaction, gustation, vision, equilibrium, hearing.
Answer: There are many problems that is related to age. The normal functioning of the body get disturbed as people reach certain age.
There are many defects that is seen in olfaction, vision, equilibrium, hearing, gustation et cetera.
Say, glucoma is a age related disorder in which rise in fluid pressure takes place in eyes, which leads to vision impairment in older age groups.
Hypogeusia is a problem that is associated with the reduced ability to taste things. This also occurs in the people with older age groups.
Answer:
Explanation:
Glaucoma is an age-related disorder of vision. In this, the optic nerve in the eye gets damaged. This is caused by abnormal high pressure on the eye. It is one of the leading causes of blindness in people over 60 years of age.
Presbycusis is an age-related loss of hearing. It is an irreversible age-related loss of hearing that results from the degeneration of cochlea and associated structures in the inner ear or auditory nerves.
Explain physiologially, how urine volume and potassium concentration are altered by the presence/absensce of aldosterone and antidiuretic hormoen both alone and together.
Answer:
Anti-diuretic hormone or ADH is a hormone which increases the permeability of the tubules to increase the reabsorption of water by adding aquaporins in the membranes of the tubules and aldosterone- a steroid hormone which increases the reabsorption of sodium and retention of water in the tubules.
1. In the low concentration of water- more water is absorbed from the kidney due to the production of ADH and aldosterone which reduces the volume of water in the urine and thus the low volume of urine is produced and the potassium ions retain in the body.
2. In high concentration of water- ADH and aldosterone are not produced and the urine is produced in a normal amount. Some potassium ions can be released.
Identify the organs of the respiratory system and describe the functions.
Nose: The function for your nose is to breath.
Mouth: The function of your mouth is to eat, drink, or breath if your nose is clogged up.
Pharynx: The function of you pharynx is to swallow food.
Larynx: The function of your larynx is to talk.
Trachea: The function of your trachea is to provide air flow to and from the lungs
Bronchi: The function of your bronchi is to bring air from your lungs.
Lungs: The function of your lungs is to carry the exchange of gases as we breath.
The respiratory system consists of organs such as the nasal cavity, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and lungs, which facilitate the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the body. The nasal cavity to the bronchioles form the conducting zone while the terminal bronchioles and alveoli form the respiratory zone.
Explanation:The organs of the respiratory system include the nasal cavity, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and lungs. The system's primary function is to obtain oxygen to deliver to the body's tissues, remove carbon dioxide, a cell waste product, aid in speech production and sense odors. The nasal cavity, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles constitute the conducting zone which provides passageways for air to travel in and out of the lungs. The respiratory zone which includes the terminal bronchioles and alveoli, is directly involved in gas exchange. The lungs are the major organs in this system responsible for gas exchange. They receive deoxygenated blood from the pulmonary artery, exchange gases in the alveoli, and the pulmonary veins return newly oxygenated blood to the heart for transport throughout the body.
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Proteins are polymers made of the following monomer molecules?
(a) sugars
(b) fatty acids
(c) nucleotides
(d) amino acids
Answer:D amino Acids
Explanation: School Dawg
Treatment for osteomyelitis include:
a. IV antibiotics.
b. Antipyretics.
c. Narcotic pain management
d. Non-weight bearing on the affected limb.
E. Passive ROM on the affected limb.
Answer:
The answers are A, B, C, E
Explanation:
The treatment of osteomyelitis in general should include the following management:
1- Intravenous antibiotic.
2- Intravenous or oral analgesic.
3 - Keep the affected bone at rest, that is, avoid mobility or weight in it. Passive movements can be made to the affected bone as long as it is tolerated.
4 - Narcotics in case the pain becomes very intense.
5 - Local heat.
If the external (voluntary) sphincter relaxes, what happen? If the external sphincter is not relaxed, what happen?
Answer:
If the external sphincter relaxes, there is an exit of the fecal bolus; if this relaxation does not occur, there is no exit of fecal matter, causing constipation.
If the external urethral sphincter relaxes, urine is expelled from the body. If it remains contracted, it prevents urination. The process of micturition involves coordination between the detrusor muscle and both the internal and external urethral sphincters.
If the external (voluntary) sphincter relaxes, what happens? When the external urethral sphincter, which is a striated muscle controlled by the somatic nervous system, relaxes, urine can leave the body through the external urethral orifice. This relaxation is under conscious, voluntary control in most people.
If the external sphincter is not relaxed, what happens? If the external urethral sphincter remains contracted, it prevents urine from exiting the body. This allows individuals to hold in their urine until they are ready to urinate.
The process of micturition (urination) involves the contraction of the detrusor muscle in the bladder and the relaxation of the internal urethral sphincter, followed by the voluntary relaxation of the external urethral sphincter.
A nurse is monitoring the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?
a. Platelets 300,000/mm3
b. Hematocrit 45%
c. PT 11 seconds
d. aPTT 50 seconds
Answer:
The best answer to the question: A nurse is monitoring the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin. Which of the following values should a nurse report to the provider? would be: D: aPTT of 50 seconds.
Explanation:
Unlike Warfarin and the low-molecular weight heparin, medically speaking, the one diagnostic test that is still being used as a measure of heparin´s therapeutic achievements in a patient with a coagulopathy, is the activated partial thromboplastin time aPTT. Although the measurement in seconds, will depend on the laboratory that is doing the measuring, and despite scientific evidence that points to the fact that aPTT is not the most accurate of laboratory measurements for a patient with heparin, it is still being used today and still is the leading laboratory test for these types of patients.
The laboratory value to report for a patient receiving heparin is an aPTT of 50 seconds, as it indicates the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy and may require adjustments to the dosage to avoid potential bleeding complications.
The question concerns identifying which laboratory value of a patient receiving heparin therapy should be reported to the healthcare provider. The answer is d. aPTT 50 seconds. Heparin therapy's effectiveness and safety are typically monitored through the activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) levels. A normal aPTT ranges from 30 to 40 seconds, but when on heparin therapy, the target therapeutic range is usually about 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal value. An aPTT of 50 seconds may suggest that the patient's heparin dose is within or slightly above the therapeutic range, depending on the specific target range set by the managing physician. However, it's crucial to communicate this value to ensure appropriate management, as excessively prolonged aPTT can increase the risk of bleeding. In contrast, options a, b, and c are within normal limits or irrelevant to heparin therapy: Platelets at 300,000/mm3, Hematocrit 45%, and PT 11 seconds are considered normal values and not directly influenced by heparin.
How are hairs formed?
Answer:
Pilosebaceous follicles are structures that give rise to hair, through a tubular invagination. They consist of a hair bulb and a dermal papilla. The dermal papilla formed by fibroblastic cells is responsible for the control of the hair cycle; while the hair bulb is the proliferative part formed by three or four cell layers precursor to the cellular elements.
Hypovolemic shock resulting from burns is usually caused by:
A. loss of body fluids.
B. bleeding.
C. acute allergic reaction.
D. cardiac arrest
Answer: Option A "Loss of body fluids"
Explanation:
When the body lose blood or other fluids from the body, then the amount of blood in the body is reduced. The Hypovolemic shock happens when a sudden loss of body fluids takes place which is extremely dangerous.
Example:
At the time of delivery, there is blood loss from the body. At the time of injury there is a loss of blood from the body. These processes leads to loss of blood and body fluids.
In case of extensive burns leads to loss of body fluids.
Hence, the correct answer is option A.
Which cells are responsible for bone formation? Resorption? Why are both processes important?
Answer:
Osteoblasts are responsible for formation and osteoclasts are responsible for resorption. Both processes are important to keep balance in bone density and matter. Through the different stages of life the balance varies.
-Childhood: Osteogenesis > Resorption
-Adolescence-30 years: Osteoblasts > osteoclasts
-30-50 years: balance between formation and resorption. >30 years, bone loss begins. (1% per year)
->50 years (in menopause and in andropause) there is greater bone resorption, increases that annual 1%, up to 10% per year; This activity is hormone dependent.
Birth is an event that is celebrated with ritual only in the United States.
a. True
b. False
In discussing descending pathways, we talked about neurons whose conductile processes are in the internal capsule. These neurons:
a. have their cell bodies in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord
b. have their cell bodies in the precentral gyrus of the cerebral cortex
c. have their cell bodies in the ventral horn of the spinal cord
d. have their cell bodies in the postcentral gyrus of the cerebral cortex
Answer:
The correct answer will be option B.
Explanation:
The descending pathway or descending tract is a nervous system which is composed of upper motor neurons which carries the signals from the CNS (brain) to lower neurons.
These upper motor neurons originate in the cerebral cortex of the brain especially "precentral gyrus" or depressions of the cerebrum with their cell bodies in it and axons in the CNS. They pass the impulses via corticospinal tract in which neurons converge and descend through internal capsula.
Thus, option B is the correct answer.
What would stop muscle contraction?
Answer:
Relaxation: Relaxation occurs when stimulation of the nerve stops. Calcium is then pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum breaking the link between actin and myosin. Actin and myosin return to their unbound state causing the muscle to relax.
Explanation:
Final answer:
Muscle contractions cease when neuron signals to the muscle end, tropomyosin blocks myosin binding sites on actin, or when ATP is depleted, leading to muscle fatigue. Pathological conditions or toxins can also impair muscle contractions.
Explanation:
Muscle contraction typically stops when signaling from the motor neuron to the muscle fiber ceases. This halts the influx of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm and prompts their reuptake into the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR). When calcium levels drop in the sarcoplasm, tropomyosin blocks the binding sites on actin strands, preventing myosin from attaching to actin, which effectively stops contraction. Additionally, when a muscle becomes deprived of ATP, it can no longer sustain contraction and becomes fatigued. In pathological conditions or when exposed to certain toxins, such as in myasthenia gravis or botulinum toxin exposure, neuromuscular transmission can be disrupted, leading to impaired muscle contraction.
If ATP were completely depleted in a muscle fiber, the muscle would not be able to contract or relax properly, leading to a state called rigor. ATP is essential for the detachment of myosin heads from the actin filaments during muscle contraction and in providing the energy for the reuptake of calcium ions into the SR during relaxation.
How does emulsification benefit digestion?
Answer:
Emulsification formation is part of the fat digestion process; At this stage the fats are broken down into small particles by the detergent action and the mechanical agitation of the stomach. Bile salts also enter this process resulting in mixed micelles, which serve to transport the fats to the next stage of their digestion, all of which result in an adequate and efficient lipid metabolism, benefiting digestion.
A nurse is planning teaching for a client who has asthma about taking montelukast. Which of the following should the nurse include about the purpose of this medication?
a. Relieves acute bronchospasm
b. Inhibits replication of neutrophils
c. Controls inflammation in the airways
d. Activates beta2-receptors in smooth muscle
Answer:
The answer is C controls inflamation in the airways
Explanation:
Montelukast mechanism of action is to act on the leukotriene cysteine receptors in the lungs and bronchi reducing inflammation. it is used to avoid asthmatic states, and mostly used in the chronic states of asthma.
A generalized swelling of an arm or a leg that occurs after surgical removal of a chain of lymph nodes is known as
a. swollen glands.
b. anemia.
c. lymphedema.
d. lymphoma.
Answer:
C. Lymphedema
Explanation:
This happens due to a buildup of fluid in the soft tissues and occurs in areas of the body where lymph nodes have been removed. Lymphedema is one of the most common side effects of a lymphadenectomy. The treatment focuses in reducing the swelling, relieving pain and preventing infections. Some of these treatments include massage therapy, and compression garnets.
The glands in the duodenum that secrete an alkaline mucus: _________________
Answer:
Brunner's gland
Explanation:
Brunner's gland also called duodenal glands are the portion of duodenum that is present above the sphinter.
Function of Brunner's gland -
The main function of Brunner's gland is to secrete mucus - rich alkaline secretion ( mucous ), that contain bicarbonate.
The secreted mucous is used for -
1. The protection of the stomach from the acidic content of chyme.
2. Create an alkaline medium for to activate the intestinal enzymes.
3. lubricate the intestinal walls.
You are working with a family who is opposed to vaccinations for their new infant. What is your nursing responsibility in this situation?
Answer:
Your nursing responsibility is to provide adequate information of the pros and cons of vaccinating or not vaccinating.
Explanation:
The lubricant that minimizes friction and abrasion of joint surfaces is ________?
Answer: Synovial Fluid.
Explanation:
Synovial fluid is also known as synovia, which is a viscous extracellular fluid which is non Newtonian fluid found in the cavities of the sinovial joints.
This fluid has a consistency of egg white and is non reactive. The main role of this fluid is to provide flexibility and reduce friction during the various types of body movements, between the articular cartilage of the joints.
So, the correct answer is Synovial fluid.
The lubricant that minimizes friction and abrasion of joint surfaces is called synovial fluid.
Synovial fluid is a clear, viscous fluid that is found within the joint cavities of synovial joints. It serves as a lubricant to minimize friction and abrasion between the articulating surfaces of the bones within the joint.
The synovial fluid is secreted by the synovial membrane, which lines the joint capsule. It is composed of a mixture of water, proteins, electrolytes, and other substances. The primary function of synovial fluid is to reduce friction and wear between the cartilage-covered surfaces of the joint. As the joint moves, the synovial fluid spreads and forms a thin film between the articulating surfaces, allowing them to glide smoothly over each other.Thus, the complete sentence is "The lubricant that minimizes friction and abrasion of joint surfaces is synovial fluid".
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Complete the sentence.
The lubricant that minimizes friction and abrasion of joint surfaces is ________?
Olfactory information is sent to all of the following areas EXCEPT the __________.
a. olfactory cortex
b. limbic system
c. hypothalamus
d. thalamus
Final answer:
Olfactory information does not get sent to the thalamus directly. This makes option (d) thalamus the correct answer to the question regarding which area does not receive olfactory information.
Explanation:
Olfactory information is sent to various areas of the brain for processing. However, it does not directly route through the thalamus, unlike other sensory signals. The olfactory signals travel to the olfactory cortex, limbic system, and hypothalamus for processing purposes. Given the options provided, the thalamus is the structure that olfactory information does not get sent to directly.
The descending limb of the nephron loop is impermeable to water while the ascending limb of the nephron is permeable to water.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option B. "False"
Explanation:
Nephron can be defined as the functional unit of the kidney.
Descending limb and ascending limb are the combinly called loop of nephron or henle and are the part of renal tubule in the nephron.
Descending limbs and ascending limbs have different permeabilities to water and salt that causes high osmolarity in the Medulla.
The thin descending limb is having high permeability to water as they have low permeability to ions and urea while the thick ascending limb has impermeablity to water as there is active reabsorption of ions.
Hence, the correct option is B.
The statement is false. The descending limb of the nephron loop is permeable to water and the ascending limb of the nephron loop is impermeable to water.
Explanation:The statement 'The descending limb of the nephron loop is impermeable to water while the ascending limb of the nephron is permeable to water' is false. In reality, the opposite is true. The descending limb of the nephron loop, part of the kidney’s urine-forming apparatus, is permeable to water and impermeable to solutes. Contrarily, the ascending limb of the nephron loop is impermeable to water, but it allows for the passage of ions and sodium chloride.
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Explain the roles of baroreceptors and chemoreceptors in homeostasis.
Explanation:
The circulatory system plays an extremely important role in maintaining the homeostasis of the internal environment as it should provide to all cells of the body the ideal conditions for their metabolism, ensuring adequate nutrient and oxygen metabolic effects of all body tissues. To perform this function, the cardiovascular system is equipped with afferent sensory systems that inform the central nervous system on the general state of circulation. Among the afferent systems that act in the short term control of blood pressure (BP), the most studied are arterial baroreceptors and peripheral chemoreceptors.
In situations of elevated blood pressure, arterial baroreceptors (inserted into the aorta and carotid vascular walls) depolarize and the action potentials are transmitted to the central nervous system (CNS) through their afferences. After processing this information in the CNS, sympathetic and parasympathetic autonomic adjustments are promoted to normalize blood pressure and adequate levels for perfusion of different organs and tissues.
The chemoreceptor reflex acts in the same way as the baroreflex. However, it is stimulated by cells that are sensitive to oxygen deficiency and excess of carbon dioxide. When blood pressure drops, receptors are stimulated by the increase of CO2 and decrease of O2; transmitted signals reach the vasomotor centers exciting them, leading to effects similar to those caused by the activation of the baroreflex.
What does peristalsis accomplish in the small intestine?
Answer:
Peristalsis continues in the duodenum with the mobility of the chyme in order to extract the greatest amount of protein and nutrients, while allowing it to come into contact with bile juices for better digestion.