Describe the nephron, including all parts. Explain what processes take place in this structure as well as the ions that enter and leave the system during these processes.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

The structural and functional unit of the kidney is called nephron. Nephron is made up of two parts renal corpuscles and renal tubule. The function of nephron is to filter the blood to remove waste materials from it.

Renal corpuscles

Renal corpuscles are made up of glomerulus which is a tuft of capillaries originates from incoming afferent arteriole and bowman's capsule which surrounds the glomerulus. The function of renal corpuscles is to filter blood from glomerulus and pass it to the renal tubule.

Renal tubule is made up of three parts PCT(proximal convoluted tubule), loop of Henle and DCT(distal convoluted tubule).

PCT: It is the main site of reabsorption and reabsorption of most of the ions like K⁺, Na⁺, Cl⁻and HCO₃⁻, water, glucose, and other essential molecules takes place in this section. Ions like H⁺ and NH⁴⁺ is secreted in the PCT.

Henle's loop: It contains descending and ascending loop. The descending loop is impermeable to ions but permeable to water and ascending loop is impermeable to water and permeable to ions like Na⁺,k⁺, Cl⁻. It plays the main function in urine concentration.

DCT: The main function of DCT is to maintain urine pH by reabsorbing ions like Na⁺, Cl⁻,HCO₃⁻ from it and secretion of ions like H⁺, K⁺ , and NH₄⁺ in it.


Related Questions

Steroid hormones are usually released in large quantities into the blood.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer:

The answer to the question: Steroid hormones are usually released in large quantities into the blood, would be, B: False.

Explanation:

Essentially, hormonal activity has one purpose, to stimulate and excite the activities of target cells. Steroid hormones produced by the gonads and also the adrenal glands, also have this purpose, to induce target cells to perform a specific function. Because their purpose is excitatory, large amounts of them released into the blood could cause serious stress to the body, and in any case, the body itself has regulatory systems that, once a certain exitatory threshold has been reached, regardless of the amount of new hormones arriving at a cell, this one will not respond, because there will be no further receptors for it. Steroid hormones, thus, are released in small amounts usually, in order to maintain the target cells functioning as they should. Large amounts will NOT be USUALLY released into the bloodstream, unless there is a situation that merits this burst in them. But normally, steroid hormones are not released in large quantities into the bloodstream.

The ability to taste PTC is a dominant trait. If you cross a heterozygous taster with a non-taster, choose the correct answers below to complete the punnett square.
A. T
B. t
C. Tt
D. tt
E. TT

Answers

Answer:

Tt and tt

Explanation:

Dominant alleles are written with capital letters.

Recessive alleles are written with lowercase letters.

When an allele is dominant, the individual only needs one copy of it in order for the trait it codes to be expressed.

When an allele is recessive, the individual needs to have two copies of it in order for the trait it codes to be expressed.

Given the gene T/t, which determines the ability to taste PTC, there are 3 possible genotypes for a person:

TT, homozygous taster.Tt,  heterozygous tastertt, homozygous non-taster

The cross between a heterozygous taster with a non-taster would be:

   Tt  x  tt

Endocrine cells
A) release their secretions onto an epithelial surface.
B) are a type of nerve cell.
C) release their secretions directly into body fluids.
D) are modified connective-tissue cells.
E) contain few vesicles.

Answers

Answer:

The coreect answer is C)  release their secretions directly into body fluids.

Explanation:

Endocrine cells are found in endocrine glands which are also called ductless glands and release their secretions directly into the body fluids. The secretions are mainly hormones and they reach their target organs through blood.

The major endocrine glands are pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, pancreas, adrenal, ovaries and testicles. Hormones released by these glands regulate the functional activity of their target cells and organs.

Some of the glands like hypothalamus and thymus contain cells which secrete hormones also comes under endocrine system but are not called endocrine gland.

Final answer:

Endocrine cells secrete their products, such as hormones, directly into the bloodstream or surrounding tissues, distinguishing them from exocrine glands that use ducts.

Explanation:

Endocrine cells release their secretions directly into body fluids without the use of ducts, which is a defining characteristic of this type of gland. In contrast, exocrine glands secrete substances through ducts to an epithelial surface or the exterior of the body. Endocrine glands are comprised of epithelial cells that have been modified for their specific secretory function, secreting hormones into the interstitial fluid and bloodstream, influencing various physiological processes. Endocrine secretions include hormones, which regulate many bodily functions and processes.

Test shows that glucose is absorbed as expected by a patient if sucrose, lactose and glucose is ingested, but not if complex starches are ingested. These data indicate a defect in which of the following?
A. Bile acid secretion
B. Brush border enzyme level
C. Epithelial sodium-coupled glucose transport
D. Pancreatic enzyme secretion
E. Villus surface area

Answers

Answer:

The best answer for the question: These data indicate a defect in which of the following? when talking about a patient who is able to absorb disaccharides, like maltose, fructose and lactose, but not complex polysaccharides, like starch, would be, D: Pancreatic enzyme secretion.

Explanation:

The importance of the pancreas for human nutrition, cannot be stated enough. It is this organ that is responsible for the secretion of the majority of the enzymes responsible for breaking apart the molecular unions of complex nutrients, such as starchs, fats, and proteins, to reduce them to their more basic units, so the body can absorb them and use them. If these pancreatic enzymes are either absent, or faulty, then complex nutrients cannot be broken down, regardless of what other enzymes might be working properly after. If the main chemical bonds of the molecules cannot be undone, then other enzymes cannot do their own work. Panceatic amylase is central for starch break up into smaller mono and disaccharide units, and from there, brush border enzymes in the small intestine take over to further break these into basic units that will be absorbed. In the case of this patient, amylase is probably absent, or is faulty, which is why he cannot absorb glucose from starch, but he can if he eats simpler foods with more basic sugars. This is why the answer is D.

Which of the following Gl and functions as an exocrine and endocrine gland?
A. Adrenal Cortex.
B. Parathyroid gland.
C. Thyroid gland.
D. Pancreas.
E. Pituitary gland.

Answers

Answer:

D. Pancreas

Explanation:

The pancreas is a gland that has several functions, one of the main functions is as an exocrine gland by secreting digestive enzymes, such as amylase and lipase into the GI tract when the food is passing through the duodenum, these enzymes contribute to break down fats and proteins into small portions so these can be absorbed easily by the large intestine. The second most important function of the pancreas is as an endocrine gland during insulin secretion through the islets of Langerhans. Insulin is a hormone that is released in the bloodstream during digestion and it is responsible for regulating blood sugar levels by distributing it in the different organs.

The contraction phase of the cardiac cycle refers to diastole.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer to the question: The contraction phase of the cardiac cycle refers to diastole, would be, B: false.

Explanation:

The cardiac cycle is defined as the process by which the heart fills up with both oxygenated and de-oxygenated blood, and pumps one towards the lungs for oxygenation and the other towards the body, to delived oxygen and other nutrients to the organs. In order to accomplish this function, the heart has two parts in its cycle, the sistole and diastole. The sistole is the part of the cycle when the heart literally squeezes its chambers, both the atria and mostly the ventricles, to pump out the blood present in them. Distole is the part of the cycle when the chambers relax, and open to their fullest extent, to permit the entrance of the necessary blood from the vessels, so that a new cycle can begin. This is why the answer would be false. Diastole is when the heart is relaxed and getting filled with blood.

Muscles are stronger eccentrically than concentrically.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Final answer:

Muscles are indeed stronger during eccentric contractions than concentric contractions, with the former occurring when a muscle lengthens under force and the latter when it shortens.

Explanation:

The statement 'Muscles are stronger eccentrically than concentrically' is true. An eccentric contraction occurs when the muscle lengthens while producing force, often acting as a braking force to protect joints. The muscle is resisting a force greater than the force it is producing, and this type of contraction is more powerful than when the muscle shortens, as in a concentric contraction.

For example, when you lower a hand weight, your biceps perform an eccentric contraction. During eccentric contractions, muscles can absorb and control more force than during concentric contractions, where the muscles shorten to move a load, like lifting the weight upwards. This difference in strength during these types of contractions is utilized in various exercises and movements that require control, balance, and resistance to opposing forces. Hence, the correct answer is a. true.

Which of the following is the most efficient form of energy storage?
a) Muscle
b) Glucose
c) Glycogen
d) Lipids

Answers

Answer: Glycogen

Explanation:

Glycogen is the most efficient form of energy storage. This is because the energy is stored  in the form of glucose can be easily converted into glucose to be used by the body.

Primarily the energy is stored in the form of glycogen only. It is stored in the liver and muscle cell of the body.

The energy required to break the bond of glycogen to convert into glucose is less as compared to other macromolecules.

Hence, the correct answer is option C

Answer:

The correct answer is d) Lipids

Explanation:

Lipids are fat molecule which contains mainly triglyceride made up by the body when extra energy is consumed. Body store lipids to provide energy to the body when there is no glucose left to provide the energy so it acts as a energy reserve.

It is the most efficient form of energy storage because it can provide more calory of energy per gram than protein and carbohydrate.1 gm of lipid can yield 9 kcal while 1 gm of carbohydrate only yields 4 kcal.

So body can go long(weeks) without food due to the energy provided by stored lipids. Glycogen can only provide energy for one or two days.

The ECGs QRS complex is the stimulus for atrial diastole.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer will be option-A

Explanation:

Electrocardiogram or ECG is the recording and representation of the electrical changes that are taking place during the cardiac cycle.

The QRS complex is preceded by the P wave or atrial systole or atrial depolarization after which the electrical signals are passed on to the AV node.  

As soon as the AV node passes the electrical signals to bundle of His, it is observed in as the QRS interval which represents the atrial diastole and the onset of ventricular depolarization.

Thus, option-true is the correct answer.

Immunological memory is only observed in Helper T cells.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer: b. False

Explanation:

Immunological memory is the feature or quality of the immune system of the body to immediately and recognize a foreign antigen which was previously encountered and generate the immune response against it. Generally it helps in producing the secondary, tertiary and other s immune responses for the same antigen. It is observed in helper T cells but also by the B cells.

At the Holy Frijoles restaurant, you order a burrito grande with extra sour cream and cheese and an order of tortilla chips with guacamole. You're very satisfied with your meal–it's a lot of food–and as you finish off the last of the chips, the satiety center in your ________ starts letting you know that you've had enough to eat now

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer to fill in the blank for the question: At the Holy Frijoles restaurant, you order a burrito grande with extra sour cream and cheese and an order of tortilla chips with guacamole. You´re very satisfied with your meal- it´s a lot of food- and as you finish off the last of the chips, the satiety center in your:____, starts letting you know you´ve had enought to eat now, would be: ventromedial nucleus of the Hypothalamus.

Explanation:

The center that has been known in the brain to be associated with the sensation of satiety when eating is the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus. As the stomach distends with the contents in it, nerve centers there start firing towards the hypothalamic centers, where this ventromedial nuclei receives the message and produces the sensation that satiety has been reached, and fullness has been reached. It is this message that will stop the feeling of hunger from taking over and this is what has happened to the person who ate the huge burrito.

Final answer:

The satiety signals, indicating that you've eaten enough, are controlled by the hypothalamus in the brain. This process is influenced by an increase in blood glucose levels, gastrointestinal passage of food, and the release of leptin by fat cells.

Explanation:

At the Holy Frijoles restaurant, after enjoying a hearty meal, the satiety center in your hypothalamus starts signaling that you've had enough to eat. When you eat, various physiological mechanisms work in concert to regulate the feeling of fullness or satiety. The increase in blood glucose levels after eating prompts the pancreas and liver to send signals to the brain to curtail hunger. Furthermore, the passage of food through the gastrointestinal tract generates satiety signals that are detected by the brain.

Additionally, the hormone leptin, released by fat cells, plays a crucial role in signaling satiety. Overall, it is the hypothalamus region of the brain that controls the signals of hunger ("time to eat") and satiety ("time to stop eating"), with high fatty acid foods promoting a greater sense of satiety compared to foods predominantly comprised of carbohydrates.

Which of the following restorations is the strongesti?
A. Veneer
B. Composite
C. Amalgam
D. Plastic

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option C. Amalgam restoration.

Explanation:

Amalgam is the material that uses in the restoration of the teeth. For a long period of time amalgam is the first choice of dentists for restoration. Amalgam consist of the silver tin alloy reacted with the liquid mercury that results in strong silver-gray material.

Amalgam is most common as it is strong than other materials used for restoration. These are durable and cost-effective too.

Thus, the correct answer is option c. Amalgam.

Final answer:

Amalgam is the strongest restoration material.

Explanation:

The strongest restoration among the options given is Amalgam, which is a material that dentists use to fill cavities. Amalgam fillings are known for their high strength and durability. They are made up of a mixture of silver and other metals, including mercury.

Concerning half-life of hormones
A. Hormones with shorter half-life are maintained at more constant levels in the blood.
B. Hormones with shorter half-life regulate activities with a slow onset and long duration
C. Lipid soluble hormones generally have a longer half-life.
D. Lipid soluble hormones are degraded rapidly by enzymes
E. Water soluble hormones usually combine with plasma proteins.

Answers

Answer: a. lipid-soluble hormones generally have a longer half-life.

Explanation:

The hormones are the chemical substances which are produced by the glands it in the body to conduct a specialized function in the body. The biological half life of the hormone can be define as the time it takes so as to reduce half of it's functional or physiological activity.

The lipid soluble hormone does not easily solubilize in the body fluids. It is easily diffuse through the cell membrane and performs it action. It generally have a longer half life. The examples of the such hormones includes progesterone, testosterone and aldosterone.

Describe the function of both bronchial arteries. Are these vessels components of pulmonary circulation or systemic circulation?

Answers

Answer and explain:

Bronchial arteries are provenient of thoracic aorta. Their origin is in systemic circulation and their function is provide oxygen blood to big vessels, visceral pleura and walls and glands of bronquios. Also, bronchial arteries are encharged of humidify the air to reduce it loses by evaporation in alveolar surface.

Bronchial arteries are components of systemic circulation.  

Bronchial arteries give the nutritional circulation to the non-respiratory structures in the lungs. The left bronchial arteries are usually 2, they directly emerge from the thoracic aorta, while the right bronchial artery emerges from the third intercostal artery or from the left superior bronchial arteries. That the bronchial arteries emerge from aorta explains how they made a part of systemic circulation.

Before these arteries penetrate the lungs, they also give some branches to pericardium, lymphatic ganglia’s, esophagi and bronchioles. This circulation is characterized for having a high pressure but a low flux. The pressure that these arteries manage has no significant differences whit the aortic pressure. 

Blood viscosity is highly variable in healthy individuals under resting conditions
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer:

I would say that the answer to the question: Blood viscosity is highly variable in healthy individuals under resting conditions, would be, B: False.

Explanation:

Blood viscosity is the density present in the blood due to its charge of cells (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets) in relation to the amount of serum, or water, in the mix. This viscosity then, is highly dependent on hematocrit, or the count mostly of red blood cells. There are conditions that can make hematocrit counts rise severely, and make blood more viscous, like extreme temperature conditions, dehydration, or an illness, as well as blood loss. However, in general, under normal conditions, in a healthy person, under resting situations, the hematocrit tends to remain normally at 40%, and blood viscosity remains at a normal level. If hematocrit changes, rises, or falls, then viscosity will also change, but for this to happen, the person must not be meeting resting, and normal, conditions.

The atrium of the heart secretes _____________.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer will be- Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF).

Explanation:

The atrium of the heart plays important role in regulating the blood volume and blood pressure.  The mechanical stretching of the atria leads to the release of an important hormone called atrial natriuretic factor.

ANF acts by increasing the excretion of sodium and inhibition of renin in the kidney as well as antagonizing vasoconstriction and shifting the fluid from  intravascular to the interstitial compartment in the cardiovascular system.

Thus, Atrial natriuretic factor is the correct answer.

In what way are aldosterone and atrial natriuretic hormones antagonists?

Answers

Explanation:

Aldosterone is steroidal hormone which is produced by outer-section of adrenal cortex in adrenal gland. It acts on distal tubules and the collecting ducts of kidney to cause conservation of the sodium by facilitating the secretion of the potassium and increased water retention.

Atrial natriuretic hormones are natriuretic peptide hormone which are secreted from cardiac atria. Main function of the hormone is causing reduction in the volume of the expanded extracellular fluid by increasing the renal sodium excretion.

Thus, Atrial natriuretic hormones causes sodium and the Water loss while Aldosterone helps in the conservation of the sodium and water retention.

Aldosterone and atrial natriuretic hormones (such as ANP) are antagonists because aldosterone promotes the reabsorption of sodium and water, increasing blood pressure, whereas ANP promotes their excretion, reducing blood pressure. ANP inhibits the release of aldosterone, renin, and ADH, ensuring balanced regulation of blood volume and pressure.

In what way are aldosterone and atrial natriuretic hormones antagonists? Aldosterone and atrial natriuretic hormones serve opposite functions in the regulation of blood volume and pressure. Aldosterone promotes the reabsorption of sodium (Na+) and water in the kidneys, an action that increases blood volume and pressure. In contrast, atrial natriuretic hormones, such as atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP), counteract this effect by promoting the excretion of Na+ and water, leading to a decrease in blood volume and pressure. ANP achieves this by inhibiting the release of aldosterone, renin, and ADH (Anti-Diuretic Hormone), effectively reducing Na+ and water reabsorption in the kidneys. This antagonistic relationship between aldosterone and ANP ensures a balanced regulation of blood pressure and volume, responding to physiological needs such as the need to lower blood pressure in conditions like heart failure.

Which of the following is NOT true regarding normative strength scores?
a. They are derived from a very diverse sample of subjects.
b. The normative data are generally derived using certain types of resistance training equipment.
c. Client scores should be compared with norms that were generated from the same testing protocol used during the testing of the client.

Answers

Answer:a. They are derived from a very diverse sample of subjects.

Explanation:

A is incorrect option this is because of the fact that if sample data is collected from the diverse subjects of the population. Then some some subjects may be weak and others may be strong. The data obtain will not be reliable and cannot be used for comparing the strength among individuals.

Answer:

A

Explanation:They are derived from a very diverse sample of subjects.

If the pediatric dosage of chlorothiazide (DIURIL) is 10 to 20
mg/kg of body weight per day in a single dose or two divided doses,
not to exceed 375 mg/day, calculate the daily dosage range of an
oral suspension containing 250 mg chlorothiazide per 5 mL that
should be administered to a 48-lb child.

Answers

Final answer:

To calculate the daily dosage range of chlorothiazide for a 48-lb child, convert the weight to kilograms and use the pediatric dosage recommendation of 10 to 20 mg/kg per day.

Explanation:

To calculate the daily dosage range of an oral suspension containing 250 mg chlorothiazide per 5 mL for a 48-lb child, we need to convert the weight from pounds to kilograms. 48 lbs is equal to 21.8 kilograms.

Now, we can calculate the dosage range using the pediatric dosage recommendation of 10 to 20 mg/kg per day. For a 48-lb child, the dosage range would be:

10 mg/kg x 21.8 kg = 218 mg/day20 mg/kg x 21.8 kg = 436 mg/day

Therefore, the daily dosage range for the 48-lb child would be 218 mg to 436 mg of chlorothiazide per day.

The daily dosage range of the oral suspension for a 48-lb child is approximately 0.87 mL to 1.5 mL.

To calculate the daily dosage range for a 48-lb child, we first need to convert the weight from pounds to kilograms.

1 lb is approximately 0.453592 kg.

So, 48 lbs is:

48 x 0.453592 ≈ 21.77 kg.

Now, we'll calculate the dosage range based on the pediatric dosage guidelines:

For a child weighing 21.77 kg:

- Minimum dosage: 10 mg/kg/day

- Maximum dosage: 20 mg/kg/day

Let's calculate:

Minimum dosage:

10 mg/kg x 21.77 kg = 217.7 mg/day

Maximum dosage:

20 mg/kg x 21.77 kg = 435.4 mg/day

Since the maximum dosage should not exceed 375 mg/day, we'll consider the maximum dosage as 375 mg/day.

Now, let's calculate the dosage range in terms of mL of the oral suspension:

Given that the oral suspension contains 250 mg of chlorothiazide per 5 mL, we can calculate the dosage range:

Minimum dosage (in mL):

217.7 mg / 250 mg/mL = 0.8708 mL/day

Maximum dosage (in mL):

375 mg / 250 mg/mL = 1.5 mL/day

The bones that form the floor of the nasal cavity are the __________ and __________ of the maxilla bone.

Answers

Answer:

The answer is: horizontal plate of palatine bone and palatine process of the maxilla bone.

Explanation:

The nasal cavity is the bilateral air-filled space present above the roof of the mouth and behind the nose, that forms the interior of the nose.  

The hard palate forms the roof of mouth and floor of the nasal cavity. The bones of the hard palate that are present on the floor of nasal cavity are the horizontal plate of palatine bone and palatine process of the maxilla bone.

Final answer:

The bones that form the floor of the nasal cavity are the palatine processes and the horizontal plates of the maxilla bone. These components of the maxilla bone shape part of the nasal cavity's floor and part of the face's structure.

Explanation:

The bones that form the floor of the nasal cavity are the palatine processes and the horizontal plates of the maxilla bone. The palatine processes of the maxilla make up the anterior three-quarters of the hard palate, and the horizontal plates of the palatine bones make up the posterior one-quarter.

The maxilla bone is one of the most significant facial bones, shaping not only the middle third of the facial structure but also providing the basis for the eye socket and the nasal cavity. The term 'process' in the phrase 'palatine process' refers to the protrusion of a bone. Therefore, the 'palatine process' is a part of the maxilla bone that extends to form a portion of the nasal cavity's floor.

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List the four central nervous system malformations that cause
polyhydramnios.

Answers

Explanation:

The Central nerve system malformations which causes polyhydramnios are as follows -

1 . The baby born with an underdeveloped and malformed brain and skull , Anencephaly .

2. The Malformation in the development of the spinal cord , Spina bifida .,

3. The abnormal size of the cranium and the head .

4. The accumulation of the excessive fluid in the brain cavities , Hydrocephalus .

Pc02 is ________ in alveolar air and _________ in tissues
a) 158 mmHg, 100 mmHg
b) 100 mmHg, 40 mmHg
c) 760 mmHg, 158 mmHg
d) 40 mmHg, 45 mmHg
e) 40 mmHg, 100 mmHg

Answers

Answer:

The answer to fill in the blanks in the question: PCO2 is:____ in alveolar air and ____ in tissues, would be, D: 40mmHg for alveolar air and 45mmHg, for the blood that is returning from the tissues.

Explanation:

The reason for this comes from the purpose and the places that respiration takes place. Respiration has two purposes: take in oxygen from the air, and release CO2, a waste of cellular respiration processes, produced by the cells in tissues. The reason for the differences in molecules of CO2 being higher in the blood that comes from tissues, and not in the air from the alveoli is that in the alveoli, oxygen dissolves into the tissue of the alveoli and passes to the blood that is prepared to capture as many of the molecules as possible, to carry them to the cells. But in tissue blood, since oxygen has already been used in respiration, there is a high production of CO2. These molecules will dissolve in the blood and will be carried to the lungs, but this time to be released out of the body.

Final answer:

The partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2) is 40 mmHg in alveolar air and 45 mmHg in tissues, which facilitates the diffusion of CO2 from blood to the alveoli for expulsion.

Explanation:

The question pertains to the partial pressures of carbon dioxide (PCO2) in different parts of the body, specifically in alveolar air compared to tissue. The correct answer is d) 40 mmHg, 45 mmHg'. Alveolar PCO2 is about 40 mmHg, which is lower than the PCO2 in the surrounding capillaries, which is about 45 mmHg. This gradient allows carbon dioxide to diffuse from the blood into the alveoli, where it is then expelled from the body during exhalation.

Which of the following does not cross the elbow joint?
a. supinator
b. brachialis
c. biceps brachii
d. triceps brachii

Answers

Answer: b. brachialis

Explanation:

The brachialis is the muscle that is present in the upper arm of the flexes of the elbow joint. It lies below biceps brachii. It forms the part of the cubital fossa. It does not cross the elbow joint. It is the prime mover of the flexion of the elbow of the hand.

Final answer:

The supinator does not cross the elbow joint; it is responsible for supination of the forearm. The brachialis, biceps brachii, and triceps brachii all cross the elbow joint and are involved in either flexion or extension of the forearm. The correct answer is a. supinator.

Explanation:

The muscle that does not cross the elbow joint is the supinator. It is solely involved in turning the forearm anteriorly, which is known as supination. The other options, brachialis, biceps brachii, and triceps brachii, all cross the elbow joint.

The brachialis and biceps brachii are responsible for flexing the forearm, while the triceps brachii is the muscle that extends the forearm. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is the supinator, as it does not participate in elbow joint movement like flexion or extension.

What do you view as important issues within healthcare
delivery?

Answers

Answer:

The answer to the question: What do you view as important issues within healthcare delivery, would be: the availability of more and better resources to ensure that all patients are treated with efficiency and effectiveness, depending on their individual needs, and the possibility to have more, and better-prepared office staff, like secretaries and receptionists, so that healthcare providers can focus entirely on patient care, and not on the mountains of paperwork, phone calls and documentation that insurance companies require to authorize a simple procedure that would improve a patient´s life.

Explanation:

Although there are a lot more issues that need to be addressed regarding patient care delivery, these two have proven to become real obstacles. First, although some hospitals and clinics are blessed with resources, this is not always the case, especially for public hospitals. The result of this is that patients at public hospitals are not always given the best care that could be given to them due to lack of resources and this lowers the efficiency of healthcare. The second issue is that healthcare professionals are becoming encumbered more and more with the amount of paperwork and documentation that is demanded by insurance companies simply to authorize the payment of a procedure. This also limits the effectiveness of treatment, as healthcare professionals do not have access to all the resources that are available to ensure the best treatment. This is why, to me, these two are some of the most important issues to face right now.

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A. endocardium - covers the inner surface of the heart
B. myocardium - cardiac muscle
C. trabeculae carneae - interior walls of ventricles
D. pectinate muscles - muscles that close valves
E. chordae tendineae -connective tissue strings that connect to cusps of valves

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is D.

Explanation:

Papillary muscles, attached via chordae tendineae, help to close the valves and prevent regurgitation.

Pectinate muscles are parallel ridges in the walls of the atrium of the heart, mainly in right atrium. They can stretch during adverse loading conditions, to help the right atrium to dilate without much wall stress.

Final answer:

The mismatched pair is D. pectinate muscles - muscles that close valves. Pectinate muscles are actually located in the atria of the heart and they don't perform the role of closing heart valves.

Explanation:

The mismatched pair in the options you've provided are D. pectinate muscles - muscles that close valves. Pectinate muscles are actually found in the atria of the heart. They do not close valves, rather they help in the contraction of the atria emptying the heart chambers during a cardiac cycle. Option D is incorrect because pectinate muscles have no role in closing the heart valves which is actually performed by papillary muscles.

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Hydrostatic weighing first uses Archimedes' principle to calculate body _________, and then it uses this information to calculate body _________.
a. volume; density
b. density; volume
c. mass; density
d. volume; mass

Answers

Answer:(c)mass, Density

Explanation:

First the mass of the body is calculated using the buoyant force and then the density of the body is calculated.

[tex]F_B=mg=\rho _f\cdot v_d\cdot g[/tex]

where [tex]F_B[/tex]=buoyant force

m=mass of object

[tex]\rho _f[/tex]=density of fluid

[tex]v_d[/tex]=displaced volume

The pressure gradient in the ventricles exceeds the pressure in the pulmonary artery and aorta.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer:

TRUE

Explanation:

In the cardiovascular system, the blood flows from high pressure to low pressure.

In the ventricular ejection phase, when the muscles of the ventricles contract, the pressure gradient in ventricles rises. This increases in the pressure in the ventricles exceeds the pressure in the pulmonary artery and aorta, thus opening pulmonary and aortic valves and ejecting the blood from the heart.

Waves of muscular contractions that propel the contents of the digestive tract are called
A) pendular movements.
B) peristalsis.
C) churning movements.
D) mastication.
E) segmentation.

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is: B) peristalsis

Explanation:

Peristalsis is the involuntary wave-like contractions and relaxations of the smooth muscles of the gastrointestinal tract of the humans.

These alternating contractions and relaxations produces a peristaltic wave that pushes the food down the esophagus of the digestive system. The peristaltic movement prevents the food from moving backwards and pushes the food forward.

Final answer:

The appropriate term for the waves of muscular contractions that help move the content in the digestive tract is peristalsis. It is part of the digestive process and is not to be confused with other processes like mastication or segmentation.

Explanation:

The waves of muscular contractions that propel the contents of the digestive tract are referred to as peristalsis. This is a crucial process in the digestive system as it allows for the movement of digested food substances from one point to another. It can be differentiated from the other options because while mastication refers to the act of chewing, pendular movements pertain to a type of mixing wave in the small intestine, segmentation refers to the back-and-forth motion in the intestines that breaks down food, and churning movements refer to the stomach's process of mechanically breaking down food.

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How many teeth are in the primary dentition?
A. 25
B. 32
C. 20
D.10

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is C. 20

Explanation:

Primary dentition is also called deciduous teeth, milk teeth  or baby teeth. The primary dentition contains 20 teeth 10 on upper side 10 on lower which contains 4 molar, 2 canines and 4 incisors containing two central and two lateral incisors.

Central incisors appears between 6-12 months then lateral incisors comes between 9-16 months. First molar comes in between 13-19 months and second molar comes in 25-33 months. Canines comes between 16-22 months. These teeth are lost between 6-12 years and permanent teeth takes their place.

Discuss the 'important things to know' about proper instillation
of topical eye medication.

Answers

Answer:

Some of the important things to know regarding the proper instillation of topical eye medication are as follows:  

a. After demonstrating the procedure, wash the hand properly and wear the gloves on both the hands in order to prevent the spread of microbes.  

b. Expose only the part of the eye, where medicine is to be administered.  

c. Tilt the head of the patient backward and place the index finger on the delicate spot just underneath the lower lid, and slowly and carefully pull down to produce a pocket for instilling the medication.  

d. Apply for medicine from inner canthus to the outer canthus of eye.  

e. The concentration or number of drops to be administered should be based on instructions provided by the physician.  

f. After administration of the medicine close the eyes for proper absorption of the medicine.  

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