Answer:
The correct answer is D. resting phase
Explanation:
Diastole is the resting phase when relaxation of heart muscles takes after contraction(systole). In this phase blood from veins and coronary sinus comes into the auricles and ventricles because of the pressure in the heart is less than veins and opening of A-V valve.
When both auricles and ventricles are relaxed it is called joint diastole. Joint diastole is called complete cardiac diastole and is 0.4 sec long. After the joint diastole auricular systole occurs in which auricles are contracted and ventricles are still relaxed called ventricular diastole.
After the end of auricular systole ventricles contraction starts and auricular relaxation occurs called auricular diastole.
An explanation of how simulation might be used to improve
performance in your health services organization or one with which
you are familiar. Be specific, and provide examples.
Answer:
Explanation:
Simulations are the models which can be used to mimic and study the anatomical and physiological make up of the human body. It can help in teaching the fact that low different organs of the body are related to each other and how blood and other body fluids move and excreted out from the body. This can be used to demonstrate the cause of various diseases.
Thus simulations can help in improving the health.
What event occurs following the luteinizing hormone (LH) surge during the female monthly cycle?
a. decline in progesterone secretion
b. ovulation
c. estrogen secretion
d. menstrual flow
Answer:
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
During the follicular phase (first half of female cycle), follicles in the ovary begin developing under the influence of FSH. The follicle that acquires more FSH receptors will become dominant and will produce more estrogen and inhibin hormone than the others. Inhibin will reduce FSH level and as a result the other follicles will fail to keep growing. At this stage the dominant follicle will become FSH independent.
Estrogen produced by the dominant follicle will stimulate LH secretion. After approximately 24-36 hours from when LH reaches its peak level, the dominant follicle releases an ovocyte. This event is called ovulation.
The Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge in the female monthly cycle triggers the process of ovulation, where a mature egg is released from the ovary.
Explanation:The Luteinizing Hormone (LH) plays a crucial role in the female reproductive system. A surge in this hormone, usually around midway through the menstrual cycle, triggers a process known as ovulation. In ovulation, a mature egg is released from the ovary and becomes available for fertilization if sperm are present. So, the correct answer to this multiple-choice question would be: b. ovulation
Here's a brief breakdown of the series of events: After the start of the menstrual cycle, the levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and estrogen rise, which nurture the development of several ovarian follicles. One of these follicles matures, and its growing size prompts a surge in estrogen levels. When estrogen levels peak, they stimulate a substantial release of LH, leading to the 'LH surge'. About a day or two after the LH surge, the mature follicle ruptures, releasing ovum (egg), marking the event of ovulation.
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Which of the following would be expected to alter hormonal levels?
A. Changes in mineral and nutrient plasma levels
B. Pituitary tumor
C. Transatlantic flight
D. Training for the Olympics
E. All of the above
Answer: E. All of the above
Explanation:
Hormones are called as the chemical messengers. These are secreted by the specialized cells of body and their action is on other cells of the body that are called as the target. The following can alter the hormonal levels in the body:
A. Changes in mineral and nutrient plasma levels: The minerals and nutrients can supports the amount of secretion of the hormones.
B. Pituitary tumor: The pituitary gland is a secretor of various hormones if the tumor produces over the pituitary gland then this will lead to the inhibition of hormone secretion from pituitary.
C. Transatlantic flight: The flight above the dense ocean is called as transatlantic flight. This may be responsible for increase in secretion of hormones which are responsible for increasing the stress and anxiety.
D. Training for the Olympics: In such a situation, the hormones which can increase the performance will be released such as testosterone.
When the Mean Arterial Pressure is less than 10 mmHg above the diastolic blood pressure then blood will move to slowly serve the tissues and clot much more easily.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The answer to the question: When the Mean Arterial Pressure is less than 10mmHg above the diastolic blood pressure, then blood will move too slowly to serve the tissues and clot much more easily, would be, A: True.
Explanation:
In general terms, people always tend to think about blood pressure as those two numbers that doctors usually give us: 120/80. This means that during systole, and at the end of diastole, when the heart is filling up again with blood to pump, our blood exerts pressure over our blood vessels in order to move and especially to be able to exchange nutrients and oxygen, as well as recover waste and CO2, with the tissues. However, there is another measurement called the MAP (Mean Arterial Pressure) that is much more important for healthcare professionals, as it tells them whether during a heart cycle the body´s pressure is enough to ensure proper exchange, especially in such organs as the coronaries, the brain, and other vital organs. Usually, normal ranges for MAP are between 70 and 100mmHg. If MAP goes below 70, which would already be 10mmHg below diastolic normal numbers, then it would mean that the blood being pumped is not having enough pressure to ensure exchanges with the tissues and also, because of lower flow, clotting mechanisms will initiate, especially in the distal parts, where capillaries are.
In the kidney, facultative re-uptake of water and sodium occurs at the level of _______ under the influence of ________ & __________.
a) glomerular capsule aldosterone, vasopressin
b) Loop of Henle, aldosterone, vasopressin
c) Collecting duct, oxytocin, angiotensin
d) Proximal convoluted tubule, aldosterone, vasopressin
e) Collecting duct, aldosterone, vasopressin
Answer:
The correct answer is e) Collecting duct, aldosterone, vasopressin
Explanation:
ADH( antidiuretic hormone) is called vasopressin formed by the hypothalamus gland and released when the body is under stress of shortage of water.
This hormone binds to the water channel receptors present in the collecting duct and opens them. Then the water is released in the interstitial space and returns to the blood by reabsorption.
Decrease in the blood flow results in the release of aldosterone which regulates the blood pressure by absorbing the water and sodium ions from the collecting duct increasing blood volume and osmolarity.
Name two conditions that would result in a person having blood in the urine.
Answer:
Kidney or bladder cancer and polycystic kidney disease
Explanation:
Hematuria is a serious medical condition characterized by the presence of the red blood cells or erythrocytes in the urine. This leakage of blood into the urine can be from the urinary tract or the kidney and can be paniful or painless.
The visible red or brown discoloration of the urine is known as visible hematuria or gross hematuria.
Some of the causes of hematuria are kidney or bladder cancer, kidney stone, infection of the lower urinary tract, polycystic kidney disease.
A reflex that occurs without traveling to the CNS for integration is known as a ____________ reflex.
Answer:
The answer to the question: A reflex that occurs without traveling to the CNS for integration is known as a:___ reflex, would be: arc reflex, which is divided into monosynaptic and polysinaptic reflexes.
Explanation:
The reflex arc shows that when there is neural stimulation, this stimuli will not always reach the brain for integration. Most reflexes are reactions to a stimuli that do not involve brain integration or involvement and are dealt with directly in the spinal cord. This arc is divided into two groups: monosynaptic, meaning that only one neural pathway has been stimulated and thus only a specific region will react, or polysinaptic, which means that more than one neural pathway has been stimulated and will generate a reaction from the regions that they ennervate.
What is the name of the medical term for an abnormal condition of artery hardening and why it is dangerous to have this disease?
Answer:
The correct answer to the questions: What is the name of the medical term for an abnormal condition of artery hardening, and why is it dangerous to have this disease? would be as follows:
1. The name of the disease in which the walls of the arteries become hardened and the lumen of the vessels through which the blood flows become constricted, is atherosclerosis, or also arteriosclerotic vascular disease. This disease speaks about the deposition of fatty and triglyceride globes on the walls of the arteries, causing an obstruction of the lumen, and therefore difficulting the passage of blood through them. Also, these deposits make the normal flexibility and resilience of the arteries much less, which is why it seems like the vessels were becoming hardened.
2. It is a very dangerous condition precisely because of what it implies. First, by reducing the blood flow through the arteries, the organs that depend on the proper arrival of oxygenated blood to them, and the removal of waste, for proper functioning, start to suffer the consequences. One such organs are the kidneys, whose cells begin to die, and the organ to be damaged, due to a lack of proper oxygenation, and because they have to work double to filter the blood that flows to them. The other reason is that the body responds to the lowering of blood flow by increasing arterial pressure on the walls. This further decreases flow due to obstruction, and also increases the suffering of the organs, like the kidneys. If atherosclerotic disease is not controlled, it can lead to permanent loss of organs, and even death.
Arteriosclerosis is the medical term for artery hardening. This disease is dangerous because it reduces or blocks blood flow, leading to serious complications like heart attacks, strokes, or heart failure.
Explanation:The medical term for an abnormal condition of artery hardening is Arteriosclerosis. This disease is dangerous because it can lead to serious complications. Arteries are blood vessels that carry oxygen and nutrients from your heart to the rest of your body. When these arteries harden and lose their elasticity, blood flow can be reduced or blocked. This can lead to heart attacks, strokes, or other serious health problems. The hardened arteries also make it harder for the heart to pump blood, which can strain the heart and potentially lead to heart failure.
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Velocity of blood is relatively constant as blood flows from the aorta toward the capillaries.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The answer to the question: velocity of blood is relatively constant as blood flows from the aorta towards the capillaries, would be, B: False.
Explanation:
One way to figure this one out is knowing that the velocity of the blood as it flows through the aorta, comes from the pumping strength of the heart. However, as the blood starts traversing the length of the different arteries, arterioles, and finally reached the capillaries, it encounter two things; first, the speed with which it was originally launched by the heart into the aorta, has already diminished as it moves away from the heart. Second, blood will encounter a series of barriers, not the least of which is resistance from the blood vessels themselves, that will lower the speed with which it will reach the capillares. And this is just as well, as capillaries are much more fragile than arteries themselves, their purpose actually being to serve as exchange points between the cardiovascular system and the different tissues of the body. Their structure is much thinner, and thus needs less speed, in order for exchanges to take place. This is why it is false.
The velocity of blood is not constant as it flows from the aorta toward the capillaries; it decreases dramatically due to the large cumulative diameter of the capillary beds before increasing again as blood returns to the heart.
The statement that the velocity of blood is relatively constant as blood flows from the aorta toward the capillaries is false. Blood pressure and blood velocity are closely related in the cardiovascular system and vary throughout different parts of the blood vessel network. As blood is pushed away from the heart by each rhythmic pump, entering the aorta, it travels at a high velocity of approximately 30 cm/sec. However, as blood reaches the arterioles and moves into the capillary beds, the velocity drops dramatically to about 0.026 cm/sec, which is one-thousand times slower than in the aorta. The law of continuity states that fluid should travel faster through a narrower tube, but the overwhelming cumulative diameter of the capillary beds slows the blood flow to allow for effective exchange processes. Post-capillary, blood velocity increases again as it returns to the heart through veins.
Which of the following is not a subdivision of the thoracic cavity?
a. Left pleural division
b. Right pleural division
c. Medial pleural division
d. Mediastinum
The thoracic cavity has three main subdivisions: the left pleural cavity, right pleural cavity, and the mediastinum. The medial pleural division is not a standard subdivision.
Explanation:The thoracic cavity, an important component of human body, is subdivided into three primary areas. These are: the left pleural cavity, right pleural cavity, and the mediastinum. The left and right pleural divisions house the lungs while the mediastinum contains the heart and other vital organs. However, the medial pleural division is not a recognized or standard subdivision of the thoracic cavity, thus 'c' is the correct answer to your question.
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The thoracic cavity has three main sections: the left pleural division, the right pleural division, and the mediastinum. The option 'Medial pleural division' doesn't exist in standard anatomical terms.
Explanation:The thoracic cavity, part of the human body's anatomy, consists of three main subdivisions: the left pleural division, the right pleural division, and the mediastinum. The left and right pleural divisions house the lungs, while the mediastinum contains the heart and other crucial structures. The answer to the question, 'Which of the following is not a subdivision of the thoracic cavity?', is therefore c. Medial pleural division, as this is not recognized as a standard subdivision in anatomy.
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Which of the following statements is false regarding 1RM testing?
a. Before beginning maximal strength testing in beginners, the fitness professional should allow several practice sessions with each strength testing protocol.
b. Untrained clients often misinterpret submaximal effort for maximal effort.
c. Maximal and near-maximal strength testing is not safe for those with risk factors for coronary heart disease.
d. Clients should maintain strict posture and maintain a constant speed of contraction.
Answer: c. Maximal and near-maximal strength testing is not safe for those with risk factors for coronary heart disease.
Explanation:
The one -repetition maximum or 1RM is a test that is performed so as to assess the strength capacity of the individuals in typical non-laboratory environments. It can be define as the maximum weight that an individual can lift for one repetition only with the implementation of the correct technique.
The C is false this is because of the fact that 1RM testing is actually safe for people with the coronary heart disease. But it is not suitable for orthopedic patients.
Describe the position of the pulmonary capillaries to the alveoli.
Answer:
The process of gas exchange, meaning the entrance of oxygen and exhalation of carbon dioxide, is a pretty complex process that depends on quite a few factors to be successful.
One such factor is the position of the capillaries that branch off from both the pulmonary veins and pulmonary arteries towards the alveoli, which is where blood and air will come into indirect contact (divided by a layer of cells only, and fluid) to be able to exchange their gases. As such, when the pulmonary arteries, and veins, branch out, they form an intricate mesh around each individual alveoli, basically surrounding it, and joining together. This means that capillaries both from the veins and the arteries come together to form a sort of net that surrounds individual alveoli in the lungs. This formation allows for maximum surface contact and increaseses the exchange capabilities.
Answer:
the process of gas exchange
Explanation:
Describe and explain one presynaptic and one postsynaptic mechanism
that pharmaceuticals can use to modify synaptic transmission.
Explanation:
Presynaptic mechanism: one way to modify the synaptic transmission before it happens is affecting transmitters release, one example is calcium channel blockers (for example, verapamil), this action won't allow transmitters out, therefore, there won't be a synaptic transmission.Postsynaptic mechanism: one method to modify synaptic transmission after it happens is blocking the transmitter receptors, one example of this is antipsychotic drugs that block dopamine receptors.I added some images with another examples for both cases. I hope you find this information interesting! Good luck!
The "zona reticularis" of the adrenal cortex produces
A. Androgens.
B. Glucocorticoids.
C. Mineralocorticoids.
D. Epinephrine.
E. Norepinephrine.
Answer:
The answer to the question: The "zona reticularis" of the adrenal cortex produces:___, would be, A: Androgens.
Explanation:
The adrenal glands, also known as suprarenal, are glands that sit atop the kidneys and are central to the production of several hormones that mediate on metabolism, sexual characteristics and reproduction activities, among many others. The two glands, one on each kidney, has a very particular shape, and both are divided into the following layers: adrenal cortex and medulla. The cortex is further divided into three layers itself: glomerulosa, fasciculata and finally, the innermost is known as the zona reticularis. This particular layer produces androgens, most important of which is androstenedione (precursor for testosterone) and DHEA. These hormones will later move on to the gonads where they will be activated.
This drug used in treating angina acts by dilating the blood vessel.
a. beta adrenergic blocker
b. nitroglycerin
c. calcium channel blocker
d. ACEi
Answer:
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Nitroglycerin is a medication that produces relaxation of vascular smooth muscle. This happens because nitroglycerin is converted into nitric oxide (NO) in the body. NO then activates the enzyme guanylyl cyclase, which converts guanosine triphosphate into guanosine 3',5'-monophosphate (cGMP). cGMP then activates many protein kinase-dependent phosphorylations, resulting in the dephosphorylation of myosin light chains within smooth muscle fibers.
This causes the relaxation of smooth muscle and as a result blood vessels dilatate.
Suppose that 1% of all people have a particular disease. A test for the disease is 99% accurate. This means that a person who has the disease has a 99% chance of testing positive for the disease, while a person who doesn't have the disease has a 99% chance of testing negative for the disease. If a person tests positive for the disease, what is the chance (rounded to the nearest hundredth) that he or she actually has the disease?
Answer:
A positive result shows that the person is having the particular disease which he was tested for and negative result shows that the person does not have the disease for which he was tested.
If a test for the disease is 99% accurate that means that a person who has the disease has a 99% chance of testing positive for the disease, while a person who doesn't have the disease has a 99% chance of testing negative for the disease.
Therefore if a person tests positive for the disease than there is 99% chance that the person has that disease because the test is 99% accurate.
To find the probability that someone actually has a disease given a positive test, we apply Bayes' theorem considering the disease prevalence and test accuracy. With a disease prevalence of 1% and a test accuracy of 99%, the chance that someone has the disease given a positive test result is 50%.
To calculate the probability that a person actually has a disease given a positive test result, we must consider both the accuracy of the test and the base rate of the disease in the population. This is often referred to as Bayes' theorem. We are given a disease prevalence of 1%, and a test accuracy of 99%. We will use a hypothetical population of 10,000 people for this example.
100 people actually have the disease (1% of 10,000).9,900 people do not have the disease (99% of 10,000).The test will correctly identify 99 of the 100 diseased individuals (99% of 100).However, the test will also incorrectly identify 99 of the healthy individuals as diseased (1% of 9,900).So now, we have a total of 99 true positives and 99 false positives, giving us 198 positive tests. To find the probability that a person with a positive test actually has the disease, we divide the number of true positives by the total number of positive tests:
Probability = True Positives / (True Positives + False Positives) = 99 /(99 + 99) = 0.50
Therefore, even with a test that is 99% accurate, if a person tests positive, there is only a 50% chance that they actually have the disease, when the disease prevalence is 1%.
15. P.M. asks, "Is a vaginal examination done at every visit?" Select the best response and explain your answer. a. "Yes, an examination is done with each visit because it allows the examiner to note any possible infections that may be developing." b. "Yes, an examination is done with each visit because it offers vital information about the status of the pregnancy." c. "No, a vaginal examination will not be done again until you go into labor." d. "No, vaginal examinations are not routinely done until the final weeks of your pregnancy."
Answer:
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Pelvic examination during pregnancy is performed at early stages of the pregnancy to check for infections, a Pap smear may also be performed.
If there are no complications, the next examination will occur at around 36 weeks, to check for changes to the cervix.
If the woman is experiencing contractions, the doctor will perform an exam as often as needed to determine if the patient is in labor.
Final answer:
The correct response is d, with vaginal exams not being routine until the later stages of pregnancy, unless specific concerns or diagnostic procedures necessitate them.
Explanation:
The best response to the question, "Is a vaginal examination done at every visit?" would be d. "No, vaginal examinations are not routinely done until the final weeks of your pregnancy." Routine vaginal examinations at every prenatal visit are not standard practice. They are typically reserved for the final weeks of pregnancy to assess the progression of labor and are not performed with the same frequency during earlier stages of pregnancy. The exceptions include checks for infections or other problems when symptoms are present, or specific diagnostic procedures when needed. Amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling (CVS), for example, are invasive procedures done when an abnormality is indicated by non-invasive methods such as ultrasounds or analysis of maternal serum. Vaginal examinations may also occur during the three phases of vaginal birth, particularly in the first stage to monitor dilation.
When a hormone is present in normal or increased amounts but the expected actions of the hormone are not present, this is said to be a case of ____________-.
Answer:
This case is called hormonal resistance.
Explanation:
Hormonal resistance is a situation in which a hormone is present in normal or increased amounts but there´s no biological effect. This can occur as the result of a defective receptor or decrease in the affinity of this with its specific ligand (the hormone). Hormonal resistance is caused by genetic alterations or mutations.
For example, there is a pathology called resistance to thyroideus hormones which is majorly caused by mutations in the receptors of thyroideus hormones. This situation implies an alteration to the response of the action of thyroideus hormones what leads to an increase in this hormone, but the expected effect is not seen. Thyroideus hormones play an important role in the regulation of the metabolism, brain development, and others. So, the previous situation leads to a dysregulation principally in the metabolism in the body. if is a central resistance the person will have hypothyroidism but if it is peripheric the person will present hyperthyroidism
Another example of hormonal resistance could be the insulin resistance, which is seen in so many diabetics patients in those days. The insulin regulates the metabolism of glucose, so when this situation is observed, the patients although they have levels of this hormone in normal or higher concentration, the physiological effect is not observed.
Discuss the process of epidermal growth and repair.
Explanation:
The cells of the stratum basale continue to go through mitosis at the same rate that the cells are shed from the surface of the skin.
Injury stimulates an increased rate of mitosis, and continued abrasion will form a thickening of the stratum corneum called a callus.
Epidermal growth and repair involve the formation of a blood clot, rapid division and mobilization of fibroblasts to deposit collagen, and increased blood circulation. Immune cells also prevent infection. The EGF receptor is critical in signaling for cell proliferation and tissue repair during this process.
Process of Epidermal Growth and Repair
The process of epidermal growth and repair is a complex biological function crucial for maintaining skin integrity and health. When skin is injured, an intricate set of cellular events unfolds to heal the wound. Initially, a blood clot forms to prevent further bleeding. The next phase involves fibroblasts, which are mobilized to the wound site. These cells rapidly proliferate and start depositing collagen, resulting in the formation of granulation tissue.
Simultaneously, blood capillaries extend towards the fibroblasts, enhancing blood circulation and oxygen supply to the damaged area, which is crucial for successful tissue repair. Immune cells, particularly macrophages, play a defensive role by engulfing pathogens and reducing the risk of infection.
On the molecular level, the epidermal growth factor (EGF) receptor (EGFR), a receptor tyrosine kinase, plays a pivotal role in regulating cell proliferation during wound healing. When EGF binds to EGFR, it triggers a series of downstream signaling events that prompt cells to grow and divide, thus contributing to tissue repair. However, unregulated activation of EGFR can lead to uncontrolled cell proliferation, highlighting its importance in epidermal homeostasis.
Daniel has small stones that are lodged in the left renal pelvis. His doctor recommends passing them naturally. Which of the following choices describes the path that these stones must take to exit the body?
a)Distal convoluted tubule- Ureter- Bladder
b)A loop of Henle- Proximal convoluted tubule- Urethra- Bladder
c)Urethra- Bladder- Ureter
d)Ureter- Bladder- Urethra
Answer:
d) Ureter- Bladder- Urethra
Explanation:
The renal pelvis is located just outside the renal parenchyma, it is the place where the renal calices meet to form the ureter, a long a tubular structure that extends to reach the bladder, where urine is collected and stored to be finally excreted through the urethra, a single tubular structure that connects the bladder with the exterior.
The Loop of Henle- Proximal convoluted tubule and Distal convoluted tubule are structures located inside the renal parenchyma, at the medullary and cortical portion of the kidney, way up the renal pelvis.
Air inhaled through the mouth would be __________ than air inhaled through the nose.
a. warmer
b. dirtier
c. moister
d. All of the above are correct.
Answer:
The correct answer is option B. dirtier.
Explanation:
Air inhaled through the mouth would be dirtier than air inhaled through the nose. The layer of the mucous membrane of the nasal cavity assists the nose to filter the air and moist it. This membrane helps in trapping dirt and other particles and prevents to get in the lungs.
Whereas inhaling through the mouth it is not the case filter is not present however it provides moisture and warmth but as much as the nose provides.
Thus, the correct answer is option B. dirtier.
Which of the following pancreatic enzymes acts on glycogen and starches
a) Nucleosidase
b) Phosphatase
c) Chymotrypsin
d) Amylase
e) Trypsin
Answer:
B.Phosphatase
Explanation:
Try.I DonKnow
Amylase is a pancreatic enzyme that works on glycogen and starches. Amylase is an enzyme that catalyses starch hydrolysis into sugars.
What is pancreatic enzyme?Your pancreas produces natural juices known as pancreatic enzymes to aid in digestion. These juices are transported through your pancreas by ducts. They empty into the duodenum, the upper portion of the small intestine. Your pancreas produces approximately 8 ounces of digestive juice containing enzymes each day.Pancreatic enzyme products are required when the pancreas does not produce enough enzymes to break down food. Patients with conditions that cause poor absorption may be prescribed digestive enzymes, including pancreatic enzymes. These products aid in food digestion and absorption. Exocrine glands in the pancreas produce enzymes that aid digestion. Trypsin and chymotrypsin are enzymes that digest proteins; amylase is an enzyme that digests carbohydrates; and lipase is an enzyme that breaks down fats.To learn more about pancreatic enzyme, refer to:
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12. After her examination, P.M. states that she is worried because her sister had an ectopic pregnancy and had to have surgery. She asks you, "What are the signs of an ectopic pregnancy?" Which of these are correct? Select all that apply. a. Fullness and tenderness in her abdomen, near the ovaries b. Pain, either unilateral, bilateral, or diffuse over the abdomen c. Nausea d. Dark red or brown vaginal bleeding e. Increased fatigue
ANSWER:
The correct options are B: Pain, unilateral, bilateral or diffuse in the abdomen and D: Dark red or brown vaginal bleeding.
EXPLANATION:
Ectopic pregnancy occurs when the embryo plants itself outside the uterus and not inside the uterus. Ectopic pregnancy is usually tough to handle and women usually experience constant abdominal pain that can be sharp, dull or in the form of cramps. In most cases, the foetus in unable to survive in this type of pregnancy.A group of many similar cells that work together to perform a specific function is referred to as this level of organization.
A. Cellular
B. Organ
C. Tissue
D. Chemical
Answer:
The best answer from the list of choices for the question: A group of many similar cells that work together to perform specific function is referred to as this level of organization:___, would be, C: Tissue.
Explanation:
Just like other systems, the human body is also organized in hierarchical structures. Our most basic unit is called the cell, and as the stepladder ascends, these cells join together and have similarities among them, so that all of them can perform similar functions, or the same function, all at once. When this level is reached, in which the organization of cells performs the same specific function, as a group, we are talking about tissues. Organs are the conjunction of several tissues that come together and work as a group. And, an organization of organs, whose purpose is very similar in manner, that work as a team, are known as organ systems, like the GI system, or the nervous system. In the case of the question, we have tissues first.
Sperm is stored and matures in the epididymis.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The correct answer is a. True
Explanation:
Sperms are produced in the seminiferous tubules from where they are transferred to epididymis where they are stored and matured. Epididymis is like coiled tubes which connects seminiferous tubules in testis to vas deference.
Epididymis is divided into three parts i.e., head, body and tail. Head is the upper part of epididymis receives immature sperms. Immature spermatozoa usually matures in head and body and then transferred to tail region where it get stored before being ejaculated. In epididymis sperms acquires the ability to fertilize and motility which immature sperms do not have.
Gingivitis involves the gum tissue and bone loss around the tooth.
A. True
B. False
Answer: False
Explanation:
Periodontitis is a gum infection in which the soft tissues of the gums and the bone that supports your teeth are destroyed. Periodontitis can cause loss of tooth by teeth loosening. Gingivitis is a common type of periodontal disease. In gingivitis the gums become red and puffy, that bleed while brushing of teeth.
What are the functions, bacteria, enzymes, and hormonal activities
of the GI tract?
Answer:
The answer to these multiple questions is pretty broad and long because the GI tract is probably one of the most diverse, complex, and function-filled systems of the human body.
1. To begin with, the GI tract has a main purpose, which is to ingest, digest, process, absorb and excrete the unnecessary waste that comes from the processes mentioned before. All of these have to do with fulfilling the main function of the GI tract, which is, to provide nutrients to the body through food and fluid intake. In order to fulfill this purpose, the tract is packed with muscles, accessory organs, blood vessels, nerve terminals and innervation and lymphatic vessels that willl aid in this process.
2. During the passage of food through the system there are a series of chemical steps that need to be taken, in order to be able to substract the necessary nutrients from food. In order to do this, the body counts with enzymes, chemical proteinic substances produced by different GI organs to ensure proper digestion and absorption of nutrients. Among the ones that we have are: amylase, pepsin, tripsin, pancreatic lipase, deoxyribonuclease and ribonuclease. All of these work on different molecules in food, like fats and carbs, and will allow the body to use them.
3. The GI tract also has hormonal activities, mostly related with the correct functioning of the entire system when food is present and nutrition is a must. Some of the enteroendocrine hormones are: gastrin, cholesystokinin and secretin, only to mention some.
4. The bacteria that populates our GI tracts are known as enterobacteria, they are mostly gram negative bacteria, like E. Coli, whose function is to further aid in the extraction and digestion of nutrients in food, once the chyme reaches the large intestine. These bacteria are from the enterobacteriaceae family and comprise more than 200 species.
The neutrophil blood cells perform phagocytic function during an inflammatory reaction.
a. True
b. False
Answer: True
Explanation:
Neutrophiles are the most numerous type of white blood cells that is found in blood.
This is one of the most important member of immune system as it has a job of eliminating the pathogens from blood during the time of inflammatory reaction.
Neutrophills kill the bacteria by the process of phagocytosis, process in which the cell engulfs, digests and destroys another cell or bacteria.
hence, the given statement is True.
How does sleep deprivation affect your ability to drive? A recent study measured the effects on 19 professional drivers. Each driver participated in two experimental sessions: one after normal sleep and one after 27 hours of total sleep deprivation. The treatments were assigned in random order. In each session, performance was measured on a variety of tasks including a driving simulation.
Answer:
Sleep deprivation in general, is a very serious situation because it will affect the entire human system, and it can lead to severe health conditions, and even death.
In performing activities that require high levels of focus and coordination, like driving, a person requires all of his senses to be on keen alert, and all his reflexes and movements must be under control and coordinated.
However, sleep deprivation is considered today as serious as consuming alcohol when driving, because this situation deprives the brain, and the body at large, from that much needed coordination and control that it would have if it were rested. As such, when a person is sleep deprived, depending on the severity of the deprivation, they can loose coordination, loose control of their reflexes, lose focus, have memory and judgement impairment and even go so far as to suffer from narcolepsy, a condition in which the person literally loses all control of his body due to sleep deprivation. Basically, they fall asleep in the car. This can cause accidents that lead to death.
Answer:
Due to sleep deprivation drivers are seen to be drowsy while driving.
Explanation:
According to the experiment on the drivers, it has been seen that drowsy driving is the reason behind several tragic accidents in U.S.A. Drowsy driving has the reason of sleep deprivation behind it.
If a driver drives without having sufficient sleep, it is quite obvious for him to fall asleep while driving. This hampers the concentration of the driver while driving and make him unable to drive properly. So, getting enough sleep is important for driving.
IP3 is thought to produce its biologic effects by
a) directly activating calmodulin.
b) directly stimulating protein kinase C.
c) promoting release of calcium from intracellular stores into the cytoplasm.
d) activating the alpha subunit of G proteins.
e) both b and c.
Answer:
The best answer to the question: IP3 is thought to produce its biologic effects by:___, would be, C: promoting release of calcium from intracellular stores into the cytoplasm.
Explanation:
The means by which a cell may respond to stimuli generated from the outside of it, be it by a neurotransmitter, or a hormone, or any other substance, is pretty complex, and a ball dance of chemical components. However, there is one pathway of intracellular activation that requires IP3. IP3 (Inositol 1,4,5-triphosphate) is a second messenger, found in the cytoplasm of the cell and which will be in charge of relying signals delivered to the cell through the plasma membrane towards the organelles, and especially the endoplasmic reticulum, where calcium ions are stored. IP3 will bind chemically to its own receptor (IP3R), which is bound to calcium channels in the ER. When IP3 binds to this receptor, the channels will open and the ER will release its stored calcium ions into the cytoplasm.