Answer:
The components of tobacco are chemical substances that are related to many diseases in the body, one of the most affected organs are the lungs, where they are the main cause of lung cancer, very common cancer and high malignancy. Another very common disease associated with tobacco is chronic bronchitis; In this disease there is abundant secretion in the lungs because the airways are already injured and have difficulty expelling them.
The coupling of muscle excitation & muscle contraction involves the 2nd physiologic event. This process is best described by which of the following?
A) An action potential propagates along the motor axon innervating the muscle fiber.
B) The synaptic end bulb releases a neurotransmitter, causing the muscle to contract.
C) Ca2+ channels, stimulated by depolarizing T-Tubules, open and release Ca2+ ions to the sarcoplasm.
D) Crossbridge cycling & muscle contraction.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option D.
Explanation:
Excitation–contraction coupling is a link process which converts the electrical impulse to a mechanical response. It links the action potential of the sarcolemma to the muscle contraction.
In this process, when acetylcholine binds to the receptors it leads to the generation of the action potential. This action potential travels down via T-tubules from the sarcolemma to sarcoplasmic reticulum due to which calcium ions are released into the sarcoplasm. These calcium ions bind to the troponin which leads to the binding of the myosin to actin forming cross-bridge. This cross-bridge pulls the actin causing muscle contraction. This impulse generation and muscle contraction repeat again.
Thus, option D is the correct answer.
The coupling of muscle excitation and contraction is best described by calcium channels being stimulated by depolarizing T-Tubules, which then open and release calcium ions into the sarcoplasm. This leads to the initiation of muscle contraction.
Explanation:The process you're referring to, which involves the coupling of muscle excitation and muscle contraction, is best described by option C: Ca2+ channels, stimulated by depolarizing T-Tubules, open and release Ca2+ ions to the sarcoplasm. This is an integral part of the excitation-contraction coupling mechanism which happens within muscle cells during contraction.
In this process, an action potential travels along the sarcolemma (the muscle cell membrane), and into the T-tubules, which are essentially inward extensions of the sarcolemma. The depolarization of the T-tubules causes the adjacent calcium channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane to open and release calcium ions into the sarcoplasm, where they then interact with contractile proteins to initiate muscle contraction.
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Why do you have to test reflexes on both sides?
What are the 9 bones that make up the nasal cavity?
Answer:
Explanation:
Nasal bones are normally oblong and small. The function of the nasal bone in human body is to bind with the cartilage tissues to form nose shape and contours.
The internal septum of the nasal bone separates the nasal cavity into two nostrils. The following are the 9 bones that makes up the nasal cavity.
The nasal bone includes the pair of maxilla and palatine bones and one nasal bone.
The nasal bone is associated with the two cranial and two facial bones.
Describe the roles of the nervous system in two of the following:
a. Parkinson’s disease
b. Rabies
c. Cerebral Palsy
d. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis
e. Alzheimer’s Disease
f. Multiple Sclerosis
Answer:
Role of nervous system in Parkinson's disease:
Parkinson's disease is a neuro disorder that affects the nerve cells. The neurons responsible for the body movement is affected in this disease. The neurons that produce dopamine, dies in the parkinson's disease and result in the conditions like slowness, tremor and stiffness.
Role of nervous system in Alzheimer's disease:
Alzheimer's disease is a type of dementia that loses the individual's ability to think and memorize the things. The brain tissue is degenerated in this disease. The nerve cell loses its function and the protein beta amyloid get deposited in this disease.
Answer:
C.
Alzheimer disease
Explanation:
Describe the structures and functions of the organ of Corti.
All EKG leads monitor the same electrical events but do so from different perspectives.
a.True
b. False
Answer:
The answer to the question: All EKG leads monitor the same electrical events but do so from different perspectives, is, true.
Explanation:
The EKG is a diagnostic test whose purpose is literally to observe the electrical current that circulates the myocardial muscle as the heart begins to move to pump blood towards the body and towards the lungs for oxygenation. The EKG is a machine, with electrodes, that are capable of tracing the pattern, direction, and strength, of these electrical currents as the heart muscle depolarizes and repolarizes during a cycle. This means that all the leads in the EKG perform the same task, to measure the electrical current, but they do so from different directions, to measure how the current activates and stimulates the contraction and relaxation of the different parts of the heart. The positions of the leads, will depend on what part of the heart, during a cycle, wants to be observed electrically. Usually, the most common EKG asked for by doctors is the 12-lead EKG, which literally monitors all surfaces of the heart involved with this electrical current.
A hematoma usually forms at a fracture site.
a. True
b. False
A hematoma, which is a collection of blood outside of blood vessels, commonly forms at a fracture site. The statement is true.
What is a hematoma?
A hematoma is a localized collection of blood outside of blood vessels, usually within tissues or an organ.
When a bone is fractured, blood vessels in the surrounding area are often damaged, leading to bleeding and the accumulation of blood in the tissues.
This collection of blood forms a hematoma, which can cause swelling, pain, and discoloration around the fracture site.
The hematoma serves as a natural response to the injury and plays a role in the healing process by providing a scaffold for the influx of cells involved in bone repair.
Treatment options can include rest, application of ice or heat, compression, the elevation of the affected area, and, in some cases, medical drainage or surgical intervention.
Thus, the statement is true.
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Glucose levels remain higher than normal in this kind of diabetes.
a. Type 1
b. Both type1 and type 2
c. Type 2
Answer:
Both type 1 and type 2
Explanation:
Diabetes is a condition of the body in which an individual blood glucose levels remains high. The common form of diabetes is diabetes mellitus. Type I and Type II Diabetes are the types of diabetes mellitus.
Type I diabetes is more common in children and the individuals body does not produce insulin as the immune system attacks the beta cells of pancreas. Type II is most common diabetes in which body is not able to use insulin. Hence, the glucose levels remains high in both Type I and Type II diabetes.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
A nurse is discussing adverse reactions to pain medications in older adult clients with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as risk factors for an adverse drug reaction? (Select all that apply.)
a. Decreased percentage of body fat
b. Polypharmacy
c. Multiple health problems
d. Increased rate of absorption
e. Decreased renal function
Answer:
The answer is B, C, E
Explanation:
Older patients tend to be people with multiple pathologies, which forces them to be taking different medications for each of them, this polypharmacy can lead to an adverse alteration in the senile patient. knowing that they are older adults they will have a certain degree of renal dysfunction which will not allow the elimination of the metabolites of these medications.
Define the following terms.
a. Voluntary
b. Striated
c. What causes the formation of striations in skeletal muscle?
Answer:
a. Voluntary.
Voluntary means the work which can be done according to the individual's will. Skeletal muscles are under voluntary control that maintains the movement of hand, legs and muscles movement.
b. Striated.
Striated means the presence of dark and light bands of skeletal muscles when placed under the microscope. Cardiac muscles also shows striation.
c. Reason of striation.
The presence of actin and myosin protein present in the muscle is responsible for the striations of the skeletal muscle. The thick filament is formed by myosin and thin filament is formed by actin protein.
The opening of Na+ voltage-gated channels is associated with which of the following?
A. repolarization
B. hyperpolarization
C. depolarization
D. inhibition potential
Answer: C) depolarization
Explanation:
The opening of Na+ voltage-gated channels is associated with depolarization as, it is defined as change in membrane potential it is known as depolarization. Due to influx of positive charge ions sodium and the membrane potential rise towards positive value in depolarization.
The opening of voltage gated sodium channel increases intra-cellular sodium ion concentration, which lead to depolarization.
The opening of Na+ voltage-gated channels is associated with the depolarization of a neuron's membrane. Depolarization is caused by the influx of Na+ ions into the cell when these channels open, which occurs when the voltage threshold is reached during an action potential.
Explanation:The opening of Na+ voltage-gated channels is associated with depolarization of the neuronal membrane. During an action potential, when the neuronal membrane's voltage reaches a certain threshold, these channels open and allow Na+ ions to rush into the neuron. This rapid influx of positive Na+ ions decreases the charge difference across the membrane, leading to depolarization. If the threshold of excitation is reached, all Na+ channels open, leading to a further decrease in voltage across the membrane and propelling the action potential down the axon.
During repolarization, the inactivation gate of the Na+ channel closes, and no more Na+ can enter the cell. After repolarization, hyperpolarization may occur, but it is not associated with the opening of Na+ channels; instead, it is typically associated with the opening of K+ channels allowing K+ ions to leave the cell, making the inside of the cell more negative compared to the outside.
The most dangerous adverse reaction to the administration of methimazole is:
a. Hypothyroidism
b. Arthralgia
c. Jaundice
d. Agranulocytosis
e. Renal toxicity
Answer: Agranulocytosis
Explanation:
Methimazole is used to cure hyperthyroid and and there are many side effects of this medicines.
It is one of the most widely used anti-thyroid drugs. They are given for a longer period of time and there are many side effects of this medicine.
The adverse reaction that is seen in 0.1 to 0.5 % patients is agranulocytosis. In this condition severe leukopenia and neutrophils lowers down in number. Neutropenia also takes place in this condition.
Describe the bone matrix of organic and inorganic components.
Final answer:
The bone matrix consists of organic components, mainly collagen fibers, which provide strength and flexibility, and inorganic components, predominantly calcium phosphate salts that form hydroxyapatite, granting hardness and resistance to compression.
Explanation:
Bone Matrix Components:
The bone matrix is comprised of both organic and inorganic components. The organic part consists primarily of collagen fibers and proteoglycans, which lend strength and flexibility to the bone. This organic matrix is similar to other connective tissues and contains not just collagen but also a small amount of elastic fibers. On the other hand, the inorganic matrix is mainly made up of calcium salts, predominantly in the form of hydroxyapatite, which is a crystalline structure formed from calcium phosphate. The hydroxyapatite gives the bone its hardness and the ability to withstand compressive forces. Together, these two components allow bone to be strong yet flexible enough to avoid being brittle and support the various stresses it encounters from daily activities and movements.
The fluid portion of the blood is the:
a. plasma.
b. lymphocyte.
c. thymus.
d. erythroblast.
Answer:
plasma
Explanation:
it is the liquid part of the blood, that contains 70%of water
During an emergency cesarean section, large bleeders are clamped and not ligated because:
A. electrosurgery will harm the baby.
B. coagulation agents will be given by anesthesia personnel.
C. bleeding will stop over time
D. bleeding will be addressed after the delivery
Answer: Option d
Explanation:
In case of Cesarean section, large bleeders are clamped and not ligated because there is a chance of postpartum hemorrhage which is very fatal for the mothers.
It has been recorded that almost 1 to 5% of the women die after giving birth to the baby because of excessive blood loss.
So, it is better to clamp the placenta rather than to ligate it as it would not prevent blood loss.
During contracion of heart muscle celis _________
a. calcium is prevented from entering cardiac fibers that have been stimulated
b. the action potential is prevented from spreading from cell to cell by gap junctions
c. some calcium enters the cell from the extracellular space and triggers the release of larger amounts of calcium
d. the action potential is initiated by voltage-gated slow calcium channels
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During contraction of heart muscle cells C) some calcium enters the cell from the extracellular space and triggers the release of larger amounts of calcium
Answer:
C Is the correct answer
If reactivated by stress after being latent, varicella zoster can lead to a painful condition in the peripheral nerves known as:
A. shingles.
B. papilloma virus
C. small pox.
D. chicken pox.
Answer:
Shingles.
Explanation:
Shingles is the condition of the reactivation of viral infection that may leads itching, pain and burning sensation in the affected individual. This is the second eruption of chicken pox virus in an individual.
Shingles causative agent is Varicella zoster and may get reactivated by stress. The virus may get activated at the peripheral nerves and causes pain and blisters in the skin.
Thus, the correct answer is option (A).
The electrical charge needed for nerve cell firing" is the result of ion exchange in and around the cell.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
Action potential occurs when the membrane potential of a cell changes. The electrical charge is needed for the transmission of action potential.
Sodium ions are present more outside the cell than inside whereas the concentration of potassium ions is higher inside the cell. The nerve cell firing occurs due to the unequal distribution and movement of ions inside and outside the cell. Three sodium ions are move into the cell whereas two potassium ions are move outside the cell. Hence, the electrical charge is required fro the neuron cell firing that results due to the ions exchange inside and outside of the cell.
Thus, the answer is true.
Final answer:
The statement is true; the electrical charge for nerve cell firing results from the exchange of ions, such as Na+, K+, and Ca++, across the neuron's membrane, which changes the cell's electrical potential and triggers nerve impulses.
Explanation:
The statement that the electrical charge needed for nerve cell firing is the result of ion exchange in and around the cell is true. Nerve impulses, which are electrical in nature, result from a difference in electrical charge across the membrane of a neuron. This difference is created by the movement of ions, specifically the exchange of ions such as sodium (Na+), potassium (K+), and calcium (Ca++), across the cell's membrane.
When a neuron is at rest, there is a voltage across its membrane created by different concentrations of ions inside and outside the cell, leading to a net negative charge inside. During the firing of a nerve cell, or action potential, specific ion channels open, allowing Na+ to rush in, followed by the exit of K+, which changes the electrical potential and triggers the nerve impulse. This rapid change in membrane potential allows signals to be transmitted along the neuron, enabling communication within the nervous system.
Which tissue is not a structural/supporting connective tissue?
A) hyaline cartilage
B) fibrocartilage
C) bone
D) dense regular CT
E) elastic cartilage
Answer:
D) dense regular CT
Explanation:
There are four basic types of animal tissue:
Epithelial tissue, Muscle tissue, Nervous tissue and Connective tissue.
Connective tissues are found in between the other tissues in the body everywhere.The functions of connective tissues are:
1. Binding and support
2. Protection
3. Insulation
4. Transportation (for blood)
There are four main types of CT:
Connective Tissue Proper: 1. Loose connective (areolar, adipose, reticular) 2. Dense connective tissue (regular, irregular, elastic).
Bone Tissue: 1. Compact bone 2. Spongy bone.
Cartilage: 1. Hyaline cartilage 2. Elastic cartilage 3. Fibrocartilage.
Blood
Bone and cartilage are supportive and structural connective tissues which provide strength and structure to body. They also protect the soft tissues.
Hence, D) Dense regular CT is not a structural/supporting connective tissue.
A 60-year-old man is unable to walk more than 100 yards without experiencing severe pain in his left leg; the pain is relieved by resting for 5-10 minutes. He is told that the arteries of his leg are becoming occluded with fatty material and is advised to have the sympathetic nerves serving that body region severed. Explain how such surgery might help to relieve this man's problem.
Answer:
Cutting the nerves will open up the blood flow to the arteries. Since the sympathetic nerves will be severed, it will result in reduced vasoconstriction and vasodilation will occur.
Explanation:
The severe leg pain in the man could be due to atherosclerosis, reduced blood flow to his leg muscles during exercise. Surgery mentioned involves severing the sympathetic nerves, possibly removing plaque and inducing vasodilation improving blood flow. Lifestyle changes along with medication could also be part of the treatment plan.
Explanation:The 60-year-old man's suffering could be due to atherosclerosis, characterized by the accumulation of fatty material that blocks the arteries. In this condition, there is a reduced blood flow especially during exercise, causing pain due to insufficient oxygen reaching the muscles in his legs (ischemia).
When the sympathetic nerves serving that body region are severed, the surgical procedure, which may be an endarterectomy, possibly removes the plaque surgically from the arteries, enhancing blood flow. Moreover, these sympathetic nerves are responsible for constricting the blood vessels; removing them will cause vasodilation (expansion of the vessels), further improving blood flow.
However, potential lifestyle changes and other non-surgical treatments, including weight loss, regular exercise, and certain medications, should also be considered as part of the man's overall treatment plan.
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What type of tissue is housed in the appendix? What is appendicits? How can appendicitis lead to peritonitis
Answer:
It has a longitudinal muscle layer in the lamina muscularis
Explanation:
In this muscle layer the appendix houses an important number of lymphatic nodules. There is an orifice between the appendix and the cecum, when this orifice is obstructed due to scars, viscous mucus or fecal matter it might cause appendicitis that is an inflammation of the appendix. If the inflammation is untreated it may rupture leading to appendicitis.
Skeletal muscles:
a. work in antagonistic pairs
b. all have fixed origins and insertions
c. are named only for their locations
d. all of the above
Answer:
The correct answer is option D. all of the above.
Explanation:
The skeletal muscle is a type of striated muscle, that is controlled by the somatic nervous system. Tendons are the collagen fiber that binds these muscles to the bones.
Skeletal muscles are arranged in antagonistic pairs so if a muscle helps a joint to move so the other muscle can bring it to its original resting position. The point where muscle binds to an immovable bone called the origin of the muscle and the point where muscle attached to a movable bone its termed as insertion.
Thus, the correct answer is option D.
Which neuroglial cell is found in the PNS?
A) microglial cell
B) satellite cell
C) astrocyte
D) ependymal cell
Answer:
Satellite cells.
Explanation:
Neuroglia cells is present in the both the central nervous system and peripheral nervous system. Neuroglia cells are involved in the exchange between neurons and capillaries.
The main neuroglis cells of the peripheral nervous system are schwann cells and satellite cells. Satellite cells support the neurons and helps them in their nutrient supply.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
What is blood pressure a measurement of exactly?
Answer:
The blood pressure is the measure of the strength by which the blood pushes against the side of the blood vessels when it circulates inside the body.
Explanation:
When heart beats, the heart pumps the blood around the body to supply energy/oxygen to the various parts of the body where it is needed.
As the blood circulates, it pushes against sides of blood vessels. The strength of pushing of the blood is measured by blood pressure. Most of the pressure is due to the work done by the heart in pushing the blood.
It is measure by using sphygmomanometer. Two numbers are used to measure the blood pressure.
Systolic blood pressure is the first digit used for measuring blood pressure and it measures pressure in blood vessels when heart beats.
Disystolic blood pressure is the second digit used for measuring blood pressure and it measures the pressure of blood in the vessels when heart is resting between beats.
Arterial damage entering the fovea capitis can result in necrosis:
a. Hip
b. Knee
c. Ankle
Answer:
The answer to the given question is
option (a) Hip
Explanation:
Necrosis is that state or condition in which a body tissue dies or is damaged.
Arterial damage that enters the fovea capitis (which is a tiny depression within the femoral head serves the purpose of an attachment or joint point(like a ball which provides high degree of motion) for the ligamentum teres which keeps the femur in the hip socket) can result in avascular necrosis to the femoral head with dislocations and fractures of hip.
Which of the following is NOT part of the brainstem?
a. choroid plexus
b. pons
c. midbrain
d. medulla oblongata
Answer:
The answer is A choroid plexus
Explanation:
The choroid plexuses are not part of the brainstem, since the choroid plexuses are part of the brain's vascular system and are responsible for the formation of the cerebrospinal fluid, which serves as protection for the central nervous system (CNS).
The brainstem consists of the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata. However, the choroid plexus, while part of the brain, is not part of the brainstem as it belongs to the ventricular system.
Explanation:The brainstem is the part of the brain which connects the cerebrum with the spinal cord and comprises three important parts: the midbrain, the pons, and the medulla oblongata. The choroid plexus is not a part of the brainstem, but rather a part of the ventricular system in the brain involved in the production of cerebrospinal fluid.
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Evaluation of evidence should be solely based upon study design.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
The correct answer to this question: Evaluation of evidence should be based solely upon study design:____, would be: false.
Explanation:
According to research done on the topic, there are many other issues that must be taken into account when evaluating the results of a research study, be it clinical, or in the field, and not simply study design. Study design allows the evaluators to assess the style, the form, and the way in which the study was carried out to reach results, but evaluating results, the evidence gathered only based on how the study was designed would be wrong. This evidence evaluation should focus primarily on how the intervention worked on a certain study, and whether it was carried out in such a way that would yield the proper results, without bias.
What does polymorphic ventricular tachycardia mean?
Answer:
Its an abnormal rhythm of the heart at a rate greater than 100 beats per minute
Explanation:
Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia is a type of heart rate disorder where there is abnormal electrical activity causing the heart to beat faster while maintaining multiple patterns. It disrupts the heart's function, making it less effective at pumping blood. Treatment options include defibrillators, medication, and possibly surgery.
Explanation:Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia is a form of ventricular tachycardia, a condition where the heart beats at a fast rate because of abnormal electrical activity. Such a state prevents the heart from effectively pumping blood which can lead to significant complications, up to and including brain death if left untreated. Ventricular tachycardia is regarded as a medical emergency, often addressed as "code blue" in a hospital setting.
In the case of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia, the electrical variations seen on an Electrocardiogram (ECG) have multiple different forms. That's why it is called "polymorphic". This condition can make the heart even more susceptible to disturbances and pump blood less efficiently.
Treatments vary, but the use of defibrillators, devices that apply an electrical charge to the heart to establish a normal rhythm, is common. This treatment effectively stops the heart so that it can reestablish a normal conduction cycle. Other potential treatments, depending on the cause, may include medications, implantable cardioverter defibrillators, ablation, or surgery.
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Explain the importance of a proper job attitude.
A proper job attitude helps with the following:
- increased opportunities at workplace. If you are seen as an enthusiastic person who is full of energy and really likes his job, you would be considered a valued employee and you may get promotion.
- increased productivity at workplace: a proper job attitude puts you in a better mood and you may even enjoy doing tasks you usually don't like.
- it helps to create positive environment at workplace and to form better relationships with work colleagues.
All in all, a proper job attitude is important as it defines your everyday well being. If you do a job you hate, arrive at work in a bad mood and only wait for the day to finish so that you can go home, you have an improper job attitude and should consider changing the job as it is harmful for you and the people working around you.
Explain how the structure of each of the following tissues follows its function:
a. Stratified squamous keratinized epithelium:
b. Simple squamous epithelium:
c. Hyaline cartilage:
d. Bone:
Answer:
The function of the following tissues are as follows:
Stratified squamous keratinized epithelium: These tissues cover the surface of the body and present at hair and skin. These tissues are keratinized to protect the surface of body from abrasion.
Simple squamous epithelium: This tissue contain the single layer of flat cells. These tissues are thin and has the ability to pass some selected molecules through the cells.
Hyaline cartilage: Hyaline cartilage contains large amount of collagen that provides support and flexibility to the tissues.
Bone: Bones are made up of calcified material, phosphates and various inorganic ions. Bones provide stiffness and supports the weight of muscles in our body.