Answer:
Option (4).
Explanation:
EGTA is also known as egtazic acid that acts as a chelating agent. EGTA has the ability to bind with the calcium ions and shows chelation.
The muscle fiber is injected with EGTA (according to the experiment) will effect the excitation contraction coupling. Since, calcium ions is important for the excitation-contraction coupling after the neuron releases acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction but EGTA chelates the calcium ions and binds with it. The crossbridge between and myosin is prevented due to the binding of calcium with EGTA.
Thus, the correct answer is option (D).
Pregnant women generally need to take a supplement that contains
Answer:
Basically most women take prenatal vitamins such as 400mcg of folic acid 400IU of vitamin d 200 to 300 mg of calcium etc...
Explanation:
folic acid is important for certain function of the body
vitamin d is important to prevent rickits and the absorption of calcium
finally calcium is responsible for the enzymes in the body
hope that helps
Pregnant women generally need to take a supplement that contains folic acid to aid in the healthy development of the neural tube in a fetus and prevent neural tube defects. Other important nutrients include thyrotropin, prolactin and parathyroid hormone. A balanced diet and controlled calorie intake are also crucial during pregnancy.
Explanation:Pregnant women generally need to take a supplement that contains folic acid, one of the B vitamins which is important for healthy development of the neural tube in a fetus. Insufficient folate in the early stages of pregnancy can cause neural tube defects such as spina bifida, in which spinal tissue protrudes through the newborn's vertebral column, which has not entirely closed. This problem arises due to the failure of the neural tube to close rightly.
Other key nutrients required during pregnancy include thyrotropin, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), and increased parathyroid levels. These provide necessary materials for the growing fetus and help maintain the mother's health. It's important to consult with a health care provider for individual recommendations based on specific health needs.
Further, a healthy diet filled with leafy greens, whole wheat, fruits, nuts, and legumes can also help provide the necessary nutrients during pregnancy. Also, while the mother's appetite increases during the pregnancy, only an additional 300 calories per day are required to integrate the growing fetus during the second and third trimesters.
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A student is conducting their science experiment on the effect of caffeine on dogs. He has 3 groups of test subjects. The 1st group of dogs receives plain water. The 2nd group of dogs receives 10 mg of caffeine each, and the 3rd group receives 50 mg of caffeine each. He will measure their activity levels by recording how long each dog runs without stopping, after giving them the pills. What is the control group
The control group in this experiment is the 1st group of dogs that receives plain water. This group serves as the baseline measurement and is essential for comparison with the other two experimental groups receiving different doses of caffeine.
In scientific research, a control group is used to establish a standard against which the changes observed in an experimental group can be compared. In this case, the control group is not receiving the variable being tested, which is caffeine. Since the purpose of the experiment is to measure the effect of caffeine on the dogs' activity levels, the group receiving plain water will represent normal activity levels without the influence of caffeine. By having a control group, the researcher can fairly assess the impact of the 10 mg and 50 mg caffeine doses on the dogs by comparing their activity levels to those of the dogs who received only water.
12. Which of these mass movement events is considered a slide?
A. Slump
B. Rock fall
C. Creep
D. Rock avalanche
The correct answer is A. Slump, as it is a type of mass movement where material moves down a slope in a fairly coherent mass known as a slide.
Explanation:The question pertains to which of the listed mass movement events is considered a slide. A slide is a type of mass movement where material moves down a slope in a fairly coherent mass. This contrasts with a flow, where material mixes and moves more fluidly, or a fall, where material free falls or bounces down a slope. When referring to the types of mass movement: Based on these definitions, the correct answer to the question is A. Slump, as it is characterized by a downward and outward movement of slope material and can be described as a type of slide.
Final answer:
A slump is considered a slide and is a coherent block of material moving along a curved surface, typically triggered by natural events like earthquakes and volcanic eruptions. Understanding these events is essential for risk mitigation.
Explanation:
The correct option that identifies a type of mass movement event considered a slide is A. Slump. A slump is a form of mass movement where material moves downslope as a coherent block along a curved surface. This event involves the downward and outward movement of soil or rock on a slope and is typically triggered by natural causes such as earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, and excessive water saturation due to heavy rains or melting snow. Other types of mass movements include rock falls, which involve the freefall of rocks, and creep, which is a very slow downslope movement of soil or rock.
Understanding mass wasting and its triggers is crucial for evaluating the risks associated with such geological events and for implementing measures to mitigate these risks and protect human lives and infrastructure.
You're moving into a new apartment and trying to fit your large chair through the doorway. Your friend, who is helping you move, suggests rotating the chair a different way and seeing if it fits. However, you remember that the last time you moved the chair, it must first be reclined in order to fit through the doorway. Which choice below correctly identifies the learning strategies that you each are using in this example?
A. Your friend is demonstrating insight, and you're demonstrating imprinting.
B. Your friend is demonstrating trial-and-error, and you're demonstrating imprinting.
C. Your friend is demonstrating trial-and-error, and you're demonstrating insight.
D. Your friend is demonstrating insight, and you're demonstrating trial-and-error
Your friend is demonstrating trial-and-error. They would try different angles until one allows the chair to go through. You are demonstrating insight. This means that you are taking what you learned in a similar situation, and using it to respond to this situation. You had already done this before and try to reenact what had worked previously.
That makes the answer to this question C.
Hope this helped!
~Just a girl in love with Shawn Mendes
Answer:
C. Your friend is demonstrating trial-and-error, and you're demonstrating insight.
Explanation:
Insight means that you have an understanding and knowledge about the subject in a inner way, that you know more deeply the matter, and in this case as you have previous knowledge from when you tried to move the chair in the past, and now you know how to do it, while your friend is trying a new way to do it based on a trial and error, since the first way didn´t work, now he wants to rotate it since he thinks that is the next logical step.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of asexual reproduction? Only 1 parent is needed It requires more energy and resources It can be done very quickly Offspring may be more susceptible to disease because they are genetically identical
Answer:
Offspring may be more susceptible to disease because they are genetically identical
Explanation:
Asexual reproduction is the process that includes the production of progeny from a single parent. Since there is no gametic fusion and the only single parent is involved, the progeny is genetically identical to the parents and among themselves.
Some of the genetic variations produced during sexual reproduction are beneficial and increase the survival chances of individuals by making them better adapted to surroundings or imparting beneficial traits such as disease resistance.
Lack of genetic variations among the progeny makes them more likely to get infected with diseases.
Which of the following statements is TRUE of restriction enzymes?
(A)they are not naturally produced by bacteria, but are bioengineered by humans.
(B)they cleave DNA only at sites of adjacent thymine bases.
(C)there are less than 10 restriction enzymes known.
(D)they cut at random sites within a genome. they protect bacterial cells from invasion by foreign DNA.
Final answer:
The true statement about restriction enzymes is that they protect bacterial cells from foreign DNA invasions by specifically recognizing and cutting at particular DNA sequences known as restriction sites.
Explanation:
Which of the following statements is TRUE of restriction enzymes? The correct answer is that restriction enzymes protect bacterial cells from invasion by foreign DNA. Restriction enzymes (also called restriction endonucleases) are naturally produced by bacteria and act as a defense mechanism against foreign DNA, such as those introduced by bacteriophages. Each restriction enzyme recognizes a specific DNA sequence, usually consisting of four to six nucleotides, and catalyzes double-strand breaks at or near this recognition site (also known as a restriction site). Far from being limited in number, over 3000 different restriction enzymes have been identified, and they do not cut DNA at random sites nor solely at sites of adjacent thymine bases.
About one year is required in the gymnosperm:
to develop the egg
to grow the male and female cones
between pollination and fertilization
between fertilization and germination
Answer:
between pollination and fertilization
Renin, released from the kidney as a result of a decrease in blood pressure, acts on ________ produced in the liver. This triggers a series of reactions that culminate in the production of _______ in the adrenal glands.
Answer:
angiotensinogen and aldosterone
Explanation:
Renin, released from the kidney as a result of a decrease in blood pressure, acts on angiotensinogen produced in the liver. This triggers a series of reactions that culminate in the production of aldosterone in the adrenal glands.
A specific molecule was separated from a yeast cell and then placed in a flask to find out if it would bind to another molecule. This type of experimental design is called a(n)
A. in vitro observation
B. occupational cohort study
C. age cohort study
D. clinical trial
Answer:
A; in vitro observation
Explanation:
In-vitro is a process in which an experiment/organism is performed/taking place in a test tube or culture dish (controlled environment) outside of a living organism. Since a specific molecule was taken from the yeast cell and placed in a separate environment outside of its original living organism (the yeast cell), it is under in-vitro observation. A good example of in-vitro observation is IVF (in-vitro fertilization), when an egg from a mother and the sperm from a father fertilizes in a test tube outside of the mother's body and conception happens outside the body in a laboratory until it becomes an embryo and is placed back into the mother's body.
In a series of experiments, Hershey and Chase radioactively labeled DNA and protein in viruses and then used labeled viruses to infect bacteria. Hershey and Chase's experiments definitively showed that
A. DNA and not protein is the genetic material.
B. protein and not DNA is the genetic material.
C. neither DNA nor protein act as a cell's genetic material.
D. DNA and protein work together as a cell's genetic material.
Answer:
A. DNA and not protein is the genetic material.
Explanation:
Hershey and Chase's experiment proved that DNA is the genetic material. In their experiment with radiolabelled protein coat of phage, the infected bacterial did not exhibit any radioactivity. This proved that the protein coat of the phage does not enter the bacterial cell to cause the infection and is not the genetic material
On the other hand, the infected bacteria exhibited radioactivity when DNA of phage of radiolabelled. This proved that DNA was the genetic material since the DNA of the phage entered the bacteria, not the protein.
Answer:
the answer is a
Explanation:
i took the test on penn foster and got it right
The Mississippi River Delta wetlands ecosystem is home to a large number of fish, birds, and other aquatic organisms. During the last century, this ecosystem has seen a decrease in wetland areas and species diversity due to land development, agriculture, and flooding. Conservation groups have been working to reconnect the Mississippi River with its flood plain and restore lost wetlands. One result of restoring wetland areas in this ecosystem would be
A) an increase in a biotic factors that would cause organisms to develop new adaptations
B) the development of an ecosystem that will prevent invasive species from settling there
C) an increase in the carrying capacity of the ecosystem for wetland organisms
D) to prevent the organisms that live in this ecosystem from competing for food and shelter
Answer: C) An increase in the carrying capacity of the ecosystem for wetland organisms.
Explanation:
The wetlands are the ecosystem that are developed when a water from any of the source like ocean, river, lakes, snow melting and rainfall get deposited in the shallow regions of the land. The water in such region may remain for either temporarily or seasonally.
According to the given situation, the process of restoration of wetlands will help in increasing the carrying capacity of the wetland ecosystem. This is because of the fact that the organisms which are capable to survive in wetland ecosystem may experience disturbance due to human interventions. But with the increase in area and supply of water from the river the carrying capacity of the ecosystem will increase. The carrying capacity is the number of members of the population of species which an ecosystem can allow to survive.
Answer: C) An increase in the carrying capacity of the ecosystem for wetland organisms.
kmf Of the 40 specimens of bacteria in a dish,3 specimens have a certain trait. If 5 specimens are to be selected from the dish at random and without replacement, which of the following represents the probability that only 1 of the 5 specimens selected will have the trait?
Answer:
[tex]\frac{C^{3}_1* C^{47}_4}{C^{40}_5}[/tex]
Explanation:
It is given that out of 40, total 5 specimen are selected.
Thus, the number of ways in which 5 specimens are selected from a given sample of 40 is given by
[tex]C^{40}_{5}\\[/tex]
Number of specimen with certain trait is equal to 3.
Now, total 5 specimen are selected out of which one specimen is selected from the set of specimen that has certain trait (i.e out of 3) while the remaining four specimen will be selected from the rest [tex]40-3=37[/tex] specimen.
Thus, the probability of choosing only 1 of the 5 specimens with the trait is equal to
[tex]\frac{C^{3}_1* C^{37}_4}{C^{40}_5}[/tex]
Identify the accurate statement regarding prenatal development and birth. The development of the central nervous system is completed during the embryonic period. In the last months of prenatal life, the lungs begin to expand and contract and the valves of the heart undergo final maturation. A baby cannot be both preterm and small-for-date. A 36-week fetus will not yet have developed sufficient lung function to survive on its own.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The prenatal development of the fetus is very important in order for the fetus to live a healthy life outside the womb.
The vital organs of the fetus must be fully development before delivery of the fetus. The kidney, lungs and brain must be fully developed else the fetus can get exposed to many disease since birth.
The last months of the prenatal development includes the expansion and contraction of valves of heart which undergoes the final maturation.
Spores are produced by _____ in the diploid phase. meiosis eggs mitosis fertilization (answer quick and ill make u brainliest)
Answer:
Spores are produced by meiosis in the diploid phase.
Answer:
Meiosis.
Explanation:
Meiosis may be defined as the type of the process of cell divisions in which a parent cell divides into four daughter cells. The chromosome number reduces to half in the daughter cells.
Spores are produced as meiosis as meiosis generally occurs in the cell that are involved in reproduction. Spores are haploid cells that are only produced by the process of meiosis.
Thus, the answer is meiosis.
What is the phenotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous parents?
Select one:
a. 1:2:1
b. 9:3:3:1
c. 1:2:2:1
d. 3:1
The phenotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous parents is 9:3:3:1
The Phenotypic ratio in a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous parents is 3:1.
In biology, a monohybrid cross is a cross between two organisms involving only one trait. Recall that genes occur in pairs called alleles, the expressed traits of individuals depends on the dominant (expressed) and recessive genes in the alleles.
Two heterozygous parents may be shown as Tt. The gene T is dominant while the gene t is recessive. We can see that three of the offspring has the dominant T gene hence they will express the trait represented by T. Only one organism will express the trait represent by t. Therefore, the phenotypic ratio is 3:1.
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How do hormones influence the onset of puberty?
Answer:
At a certain age, the hypothalamus which is an essential part of the brain that releases a gonadotrophin-releasing hormone which stimulates the pituitary to release two important hormones luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone.
These hormones transported through the blood to the testicle and ovary in boys and girls respectively. In boys, LH and FSH reach the testicle and start production of another hormone testosterone which helps in the development procedure and changes in the body.
In girls, the LH and FSH stimulate the ovary and start producing estrogen which helps in puberty which is changes in the body and prepares the body for pregnancy.
Thus, these hormones are responsible for the onset of puberty.
Why must scientists be aware of the ethical issues that their research creates?
Answer:
Explanation:
The scientists must be aware of the ethical issues related to the research as it is important for the authenticity and validity of their research. The research must be original work and creativity of the scientists. If some information is taken from any source it is required to be addressed in the research work to appreciate the efforts of the other scientists and for the purpose of the acknowledgement.
Describe animal interactions that affect populations in the tundra ecosystem.
Answer:
Animals migrate to eat insects that live there year round.Many animals in the tundra hibernate during the long, cold winter months.
Animals are most active in the short summer as the snow melts and shallow wetlands form
Explanation:
Answer:
Interferes with each other number/count and hence affects the activities physical or chemical associated with it .
Explanation:
There are several varieties of animals in the tundra region in which some are extremely dangerous animals such as polar bear which feed on both flesh and plants such as seals, fish, birds, caribou, musk oxen, berries, and leaves. They are extremely powerful with huge diet. The species on which it feed has a slow growth rate as compared to the rate at which they are fed upon. Thus, the population of these lower level animals is in danger. Along with it several animals hibernate for a long period due to extreme cold and hence the population of species on which they feed upon grow tremendously
Also some species of animals feed on microorganism that are the only source of disintegrating dead bodies of animals and plants. Excessive feeding on such microorganism may lead to problem of improper or incomplete or slow dead organic matter disintegration
Where is the greatest amount of the world’s carbon found?
atmosphere
seafloor sediments
ocean
plants and animals
Answer:
The best answer to the question: Where is the greatest amount of the world´s carbon found, would be: the seafloor sediments, where the ocean deposits this element.
Explanation:
Although the most logical answer to this question would be the atmosphere, given that carbon is present in the form of carbon dioxide, the reality, and according to research done, is that carbon, as an element is present most of all in the ocean and it is the seafloor sediments that have become the biggest reservoirs of elemental carbon.
Which activity is part of the inflammatory response? skin producing complement proteins phagocytes producing mucus complement proteins signaling phagocytes body temperature decreasing
Answer:
Phagocytes producing mucus
Explanation:
Phagocytes producing mucus is part of the inflammatory response.
Mucus is a great part of healing because it prevents any more germs from infecting the wound.
Answer:
Phagocytes producing mucus
Explanation:
A forest contains both spruce trees and pine trees. Young spruce trees need shade in order to mature. Young pine trees need full sunlight in order to mature. How do spruce trees most likely affect the environment's carrying capacity for pine trees?
A. Spruce trees reduce the sunlight available to young pine trees, thus decreasing the environment's carrying capacity for pine trees.
B. Spruce trees help young pine trees adapt to growing in shade, thus increasing the environment's carrying capacity for pine trees.
C. Spruce trees prevent other trees from competing with pine trees, thus increasing the environment's carrying capacity for pine trees.
D. Spruce trees encourage the growth of other trees that need sunlight, thus decreasing the environment's carrying capacity for pine trees.
Answer: A. Spruce trees reduce the sunlight available to young pine trees, thus decreasing the environment's carrying capacity for pine trees.
Explanation:
Carrying capacity is the maximum number of the members of the population of a species which an ecosystem can sustain in terms of availing the resources. The population size will be affected when the carrying capacity does not meet the demand of the population.
In the given situation, the pine trees requires the sunlight to mature whereas the spruce trees requires the shade to get mature. If the spruce trees are taller than the pine trees they are likely to reduce the available sunlight of the young pine trees. Hence, the environmental carrying capacity for pine trees will decrease in the absence of proper sunlight.
In items of energy shortage from carbohydrates or fats in foods, the body uses protein in what way? a) it removes the nitrogen portion and burns the remaining fragments for energy b) it converts it to fat to provide more concentrated energy c) it decreases the breakdown of food proteins for energy and uses stored glycogen d) it stores amino acids in the cells to be used later for energy
Answer:
The correct options is A.
Explanation:
The major source of energy in human is carbohydrate, but the body can also use fat and protein for energy production. The human body usually use protein for energy production when there is shortage of carbohydrates and fat. The body typically remove the nitrogen portion of the protein and use the remaining portion as body fuel. If the body continue to use protein as a source of energy for a long time, it leads to depletion of body muscles.
The correct answer is the letter A.it removes the nitrogen portion and burns the remaining fragments for energy
Hope this helps
What are three questions that focus on the cause and effect relationship between the genetic code and gene expression, mechanisms of gene regulation and/or the role of DNA segments that do not code for
proteins?
(If you can provide further info that would be great, thank you!)
Three questions that focuses on the cause and effect relationship between the genetic code and gene expression, mechanisms of gene regulation and/or the role of DNA segments that is not involved in coding the proteins are:
i. Illustrate the process of translation and explain it with the help of a diagram.
ii. What are codons? Name the stop codons in eukaryotes.
iii. What are exons and introns? Explain what happens to the introns during the process of transcription and translation?
The cause and effect relationship between the genetic code and gene expression, mechanisms of gene regulation, and the role of DNA segments that do not code for proteins.
Explanation:Three questions that focus on the cause and effect relationship between the genetic code and gene expression, mechanisms of gene regulation, and the role of DNA segments that do not code for proteins are:
How does a change in the genetic code affect gene expression?What are the mechanisms by which gene regulation occurs?What is the function of DNA segments that do not code for proteins?The genetic code is a set of rules that determines the sequence of amino acids in a protein. Changes in the genetic code, such as mutations, can lead to alterations in gene expression, affecting the production of specific proteins. Gene regulation involves the control of gene expression, and several mechanisms, such as DNA methylation and transcription factors, play a role. Additionally, non-coding DNA segments, such as introns and regulatory sequences, have important functions in gene regulation and other cellular processes.
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Our genetic material, DNA, is formed from a 4 letter alphabet" of bases: A, T, G, C (adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine). The order in which the letters are arranged is important, but because a molecule can move, there is no difference between a sequence and the same sequence reversed. How many distinct DNA sequences of 5 bases are there?
Answer:
544 distinct DNA sequences are there.
Explanation:
DNA contains four nitrogenous bases adenine, thymine, guanine and cytosine.
Total DNA sequences of 5 bases are [tex]4^{5}[/tex]
= 1024 sequences.
Out of 1024 sequence, [tex]4^{3}[/tex] sequence is palindromic sequence (the sequence that can be determined only if the first three sequences are known.
64 sequences are palindromic sequence.
Since, the difference between the sequence and the same sequenced reverse is zero. 960 sequences (1024-64) are reverse of the other 959 sequences.
Distinct DNA sequences can be calculated by:
Distinct DNA sequence = Palindromic sequence + 1/2 (remaining sequences)
= 64+1/2(960)
=544 sequences.
Thus, the distinct DNA sequences are 544.
Most animals and plants reproduce sexually. This means that DNA is passed down to new organisms from two parental organisms. Which of the following is a key advantage of sexual reproduction?
A. The elimination of genetic mutations from a parent organism
B. Increased genetic diversity for changing environments
C. The receipt of the strongest genes from both parents for survival
D. The creation of new genes to improve surviva
B. Increased genetic diversity for changing environments
With sexual reproduction an offspring gets a bit of traits from both parents. This means that there is more variety and diversity. Think about humans. We are very genetically divers. There are people with brown hair or blond or red. People with blue, brown, or green eyes. There are also some people that are short or tall. This goes to show that sexual reproduction increases genetic reproduction.
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~Just a girl in love with Shawn Mendes
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Victor is making cake batter. When he added corn oil, fat-free milk, baking powder, and salt together, the oil and milk separated into two layers. To make a mixture that does not separate into oily and watery components, Victor should add ________ and stir the ingredients together.
Answer:
egg yolk
Explanation:
In order to combine the oily and watery components which are immiscible ( unable to mix) Victor would require an emulsifier.An emulsifier is a substance which contains molecules with hydrophilic (water-loving) and hydrophobic ( water-repellent) ends. Emulsifiers allow substances like water and oil to become miscible (able to mix and form a single smooth emulsion).Egg yolk is an example of an emulsifier which is suitable to Victor's activity- making cake batter. The egg yolk will prevent the separation of oil and water components.To prevent the oil and milk from separating in the cake batter, Victor should add an emulsifying agent like egg yolk and stir the ingredients together.
Explanation:When Victor added the corn oil and fat-free milk to the cake batter, the oil and milk separated into two layers because oil is nonpolar and milk is polar. Nonpolar substances, like oil, do not mix well with polar substances, like water. To make a mixture that does not separate, Victor should add an emulsifying agent, which can interact with both the oil and water. For example, he could add egg yolk, which is a common emulsifying agent in recipes such as mayonnaise and cake batter. By adding egg yolk and stirring the ingredients together, Victor can create a stable mixture that does not separate into oily and watery components.
Animals must digest food once it's consumed. The diagram shows the steps involved in which type of digestion?
A. Intracellular digestion
B. Extracellular digestion
C. Acid mediated digestion
D. Digestive tract absorption
Answer:
A. Intracellular Digestion
Explanation:
Intracellular digestion. Intracellular digestion is the type of digestion which takes place in the cell cytoplasm
Answer:
The correct answer is option A. intracellular digestion.
Explanation:
The diagram is given in question showing the steps involved in intracellular digestion which is the breaking of food or other substances in the cytoplasm of a cell by engulfing from surroundings.
In the following diagram Type of intracellular digestion that is phagocytosis is shown, the engulfed particle pinched off by lysosomes having hydrolytic enzymes. The food particles present within the phagosome is then digested by the lysosome's enzymes.
Thus, the correct answer is option A. intracellular digestion.
The ancestors of elephants inhabited every continent except Antarctica and Australia. But the Asian and African elephants are the only ones to survive. Why? A. Dinosaurs killed all other elephant species. B. Asian and African elephants killed off other species of elephants. C. Asian and African elephants adapted well to their environments.
Asian and African elephants survived till this day primarily due to their effective adaptation to their environments. Other species like the woolly mammoths faced extinction pressures due to severe habitat changes and extensive hunting. The ability to adapt to environmental changes was pivotal to the survival of the remaining elephant species.
Explanation:The survival of Asian and African elephants can primarily be attributed to their successful adaptation to their respective environments. Other elephant species like the woolly mammoths and the mastodons located in places such as North America, Europe, and North Asia, faced drastic habitat changes and extreme hunting pressures. The woolly mammoths, for instance, began to go extinct about 10,000 years ago when human hunters drove them towards extinction. On the other hand, Asian and African elephants were able to better adapt to their environments and survive fluctuating conditions.
It's important to note that elephants and their ancestors evolved significantly over time, with some species even sharing up to 98 to 99 percent identical genomes with modern elephants. These animals were able to survive by adjusting their strategies and becoming effective in varying conditions, unlike other now extinct large animals. So, the main factor in the survival of the Asian and African elephant species is their successful adaptability to their environments while other species could not cope with external pressures and changes.
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Characid fishes are found naturally only in South America and Africa. Fossils of these fish are not found on any other continents. What is the most likely explanation of this distribution pattern? A These fishes arose in either Africa or South America and migrated across the South Atlantic Ocean to the other continent. B Characid fishes arose in the South Atlantic Ocean and migrated to Africa and South America. C Convergent evolution is responsible for the distribution of characid fishes. D Characid fishes arose prior to the separation of the African and South American continents.
Answer: the correct answer is D. Characid fishes arose prior to the separation of the African and south American continents.
The likely explanation for characid fishes being found only in South America and Africa is that they evolved before the continents separated, a fact supported by biogeographical patterns related to historical continental drift. Adaptive radiation, while not the direct cause of their distribution, is a process of rapid species diversification seen in similar fish populations like the cichlids of Lake Victoria.
Explanation:The distribution pattern of characid fishes being found naturally only in South America and Africa, with fossils not found on other continents, is most likely explained by the historical division of landmasses due to tectonic plate movement. This distribution pattern is consistent with biogeographical evidence that suggests these fishes arose prior to the separation of the African and South American continents - when they were part of the ancient supercontinent Gondwana. This is in line with the principle that broad groups which evolved before the breakup of supercontinent Pangaea (around 200 million years ago) are now distributed worldwide, whereas groups that evolved subsequently are often unique to specific regions.
Moreover, the concept of adaptive radiation is relevant here, but not in the direct explanation of the characid fishes' distribution. Adaptive radiation refers to the process where a species rapidly evolves into many new species, filling different ecological niches. An example of this is the cichlid fishes in Lake Victoria, which underwent a spectacular adaptive radiation, diversifying into hundreds of species with specialized feeding strategies and morphologies within a relatively short period of time, as documented by biologists in the 1980s.
Which statement about a biological catalyst is true. A. Catalysts increase the velocity of chemical reactions. B. Catalysts shift the equilibrium of a given reaction towards the products. C. Catalysts are used up during a chemical reaction. D. Catalysts change the thermodynamic favorability of a reaction.
Answer:
The right answer to this question is option A. Catalysts increase the velocity of chemical reactions.
Explanation:
Catalysts can be lots of things, it can be a specific substance to a chemical reaction that helps this reaction to happen faster, or even an enzyme. A catalyst, or, a biological catalyst, is mostly recognized as enzymes, and enzymes work in a system called lock-key system. So for the reaction to happen, a specific substrate needs to enter in a specific enzyme, and when that happens, the reaction happens faster than before.
Biological catalysts, or enzymes, increase the rate of chemical reactions without being used up or changing the equilibrium of the reaction; the true statement is that catalysts increase the velocity of chemical reactions.
The statement about a biological catalyst that is true is A. Catalysts increase the velocity of chemical reactions. Catalysts are not used up during the reaction (C is incorrect), and they do not change the thermodynamic favorability of a reaction (D is incorrect); instead, they provide an alternate pathway with lower activation energy for the reaction. Moreover, while catalysts help a reaction achieve equilibrium faster, they do not shift the reaction equilibrium towards the products (B is incorrect). Biological catalysts, known as enzymes, are highly efficient in increasing reaction rates under physiological conditions, such as body temperature and pH.