Estimate the perimeter of the figure to the nearest whole number. PLZ SOLVE PLZ

Answer:

The area of silver charm is 33.75 square mm.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given the following in the question:

The silver and golden charms are similar isosceles triangles.

Gold charms:

Base = 9 mm

Area = 15 square mm

Silver charm:

Base = 9 mm

Property of similar triangles:

Using this property we can write:

[tex]\dfrac{\text{Area of gold charm}}{\text{Area of silver charm}}=\dfrac{(\text{Base of gold charm})^2}{(\text{Base of silver charm})^2}\\\\=\dfrac{15}{\text{Area of silver charm}}=\dfrac{6^2}{9^2}\\\\\text{Area of silver charm} = \dfrac{15\times 9^2}{6^2} = 33.75\text{ mm}[/tex]

Thus, the area of silver charm is 33.75 square mm.

Answer:

Their dads weight is not important don't body shame him peeps. 96-29=67, therefore that is how much she weighs, leaving out the unnecessary info.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

3/5

Step-by-step explanation:

The scale factor is found by taking the ratio of coresponding sides

side of triangle HKM

--------------------------------

side of triangle DFG

HK

---------

DF

18

----

30

3

----

5

Answer:

51°

Step-by-step explanation:

Angle K corresponds to Angle F

Angle F = 180 - 70 - 59

Angle F = 51°

Answer:

-2

Step-by-step explanation:

this is i ready lol but basically the actual answer is -1.5 but if you round that you get -2

Answer:

-2

Step-by-step explanation:

3 3/4 times -2/5 = -1.5, which is closer to -2.

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

Symmetry is when you can flip the figure over a line and it will perfectly match the other side.

We see that if we draw a vertical line down the middle and a horizontal line across the middle, we get mirror images. So that's 2.

Then notice that we can draw two diagonals across the image, one from the upper left corner to the lower right corner and the other from the upper right corner to the lower left corner. That's another 2.

We try to find more, but try as we might, there are no others to be found.

Thus, there are 4 lines of symmetry.

Hope this helps!

Answer:

$294

Step-by-step explanation:

1 is equivalent to 100% which would mean .05 is equivalent to 5%.

Therefore, multiply the base cost by 1.05 to find the total cost.

$280 x 1.05 = $294

Answer:

5 hours 19 minutes 18 seconds

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

5:19:18

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]p^D-p^E=0.192[/tex]  

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given the following in the question:

Population D:

30% of the turtles have a shell length greater than 2 feet.

Sample size,

[tex]n_D = 40[/tex]

Number of turtles that had shell length greater than 2 feet,

[tex]x_D = 15[/tex]

Sample proportion:

[tex]p^D=\dfrac{x_D}{n_D} =\dfrac{15}{40} = 0.375[/tex]

Population E:

20% of the turtles have a shell length greater than 2 feet.

Sample size,

[tex]n_E = 60[/tex]

Number of turtles that had shell length greater than 2 feet,

[tex]x_E = 11[/tex]

Sample proportion:

[tex]p^E=\dfrac{x_E}{n_E} =\dfrac{11}{60} = 0.183[/tex]

We have to find the difference between the sample proportion.

Difference in sample proportion =

[tex]=p^D-p^E\\=0.375-0.183\\=0.192[/tex]

Answer:

(hk)(x) = 2x³-18x

(k/f)(x) = 2

(h/g)(x) = x+3

Step-by-step explanation:

(hk)(x)

(x² - 9)(2x)

2x³ - 18x

(k/f)(x)

2x/x

2

(h/g)(x)

(x² - 9)/(x - 3)

[x² - 3²]/(x - 3)

(x + 3)(x - 3)/(x - 3)

x + 3

Answer:The answer is 50

Step-by-step explanation:

The first step is to add up the numbers in order to get the outcome

5 red + 20 blue +25 green =5+20+25 =50

Step 2

Probability =no of events /no of outcome

We were asked to find the probability of red

Where red represent event

And the summation of red ,green and blue represents outcome .

So probability of red =5/50 = 1/10

Step 3

Recall in the question ,we were told that the card was selected 500 times ,so we multiply the probability of getting red by 500

1/10 *500 =50

Therefore the probability of drawing a red card from the special deck 500 times is 50 .

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

One inequality could be x > 3. So when x = 4 this is true because 4 is greater than 3.

The solution is Option C.

The value of the inequality equation x/2 < 3 is true when x = 4

What is an Inequality Equation?

Inequalities are the mathematical expressions in which both sides are not equal. In inequality, unlike in equations, we compare two values. The equal sign in between is replaced by less than (or less than or equal to), greater than (or greater than or equal to), or not equal to sign.

In an inequality, the two expressions are not necessarily equal which is indicated by the symbols: >, <, ≤ or ≥.

Given data ,

Let the inequality equation be represented as A

Now , the value of A is

a)

Let the inequality equation be

x + 5 < 3

when the value of x = 4

Substitute the value of x as 4 in the equation , we get

4 + 5 < 3

9 < 3 is not true

b)

Let the inequality equation be

9x > 36

when the value of x = 4

Substitute the value of x as 4 in the equation , we get

36 > 36

36 > 36 is not true

c)

Let the inequality equation be

x/2 < 3

when the value of x = 4

Substitute the value of x as 4 in the equation , we get

4/2 < 3

2 < 3 is true

d)

Let the inequality equation be

18 < x + 8

when the value of x = 4

Substitute the value of x as 4 in the equation , we get

18 < 4 + 8

18 < 12 is not true

Hence , the inequality equation is x/2 < 3 when x = 4

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Answer:

30 cm^2.

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a right angled triangle because it fits the Pythagoras theorem ( 13^2 = 12^2 + 5^2).

The area = 1/2 * 12 * 5

=  30 cm^2.

Answer:

The amount of payment that needs to be applied to the debt balance to bring the debt to limit ratio to 15% is $2,250

Step-by-step explanation:

Here we have the card limit as $3,000

The card debit to limit ratio should be kept below 15%

Therefore, card limit of $3,000 = 100%

The protect FICA score card debt to limit ratio required required is 15% that is;

Maximum appropriate card debt is 15% of Max allowable card debt

Maximum appropriate card debt  = 15% of $3,000 = $450.00

Current debt on card = $3,000

Payment to be applied to the balance to pay it down to 15% is given by

[tex]\$3,000 - \frac{15}{100} \times \$3000 = \$3,000 - \$450 = \$2550[/tex]

Therefore a $2,550 payment will be applied to the balance to pay it down to 15%.

Final answer:

To reduce your credit card debt to 15% of a $3,000 limit, you would need to make a payment of $2,550. This is calculated by determining 15% of the limit and subtracting it from the current balance to find the necessary payment amount.

Explanation:

Calculating Payment to Lower Credit Card Debt to Ratio

If your credit card has a limit of $3,000 and you wish to keep your credit card debt to limit ratio below 15%, first determine what 15% of your credit limit is. Calculate 15% of $3,000, which is $450. Since your current balance is the full limit of $3,000, subtract the target balance of $450 from $3,000. The result is the payment needed to reduce your debt to within the desired ratio.

$3,000 * 0.15 = $450 (15% of your credit limit)

$3,000 - $450 = $2,550

Therefore, a payment of $2,550 will bring your balance down to 15% of the credit limit. Managing your credit utilization is important not just for meeting the credit score components but also for maintaining good financial health.

Answer:

Cosine W = 0.32

Step-by-step explanation:

Adj/Hypo = 12/37 = 0.3243 = 0.32

Final answer:

The cosine of ∠W in triangle ΔVWX is found by dividing the length of the side adjacent to ∠W (XW) by the length of the hypotenuse (WV), resulting in cos(∠W) ≈ 0.32 to the nearest hundredth.

Explanation:

In triangle ΔVWX, where ∠X=90°, VX = 35, XW = 12, and WV = 37, we are asked to find the value of the cosine of ∠W to the nearest hundredth. Since ∠X is a right angle, this triangle is a right triangle, and we can use trigonometric ratios to find the cosine of ∠W. The cosine of an angle in a right triangle is equal to the adjacent side over the hypotenuse.

To find the cosine of ∠W, we look at the sides adjacent to ∠W, which are XW and WV. The length of XW is 12, and WV, being the hypotenuse, is 37. Therefore, to find cos(∠W), we calculate 12/37. Doing this calculation, we get cos(∠W) ≈ 0.32 to the nearest hundredth.

The cosine is a trigonometric function that relates the lengths of sides in a right triangle to the angles, and it is specifically the ratio of the length of the adjacent side to the length of the hypotenuse.

Answer:

800 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

Make 2 expressions, one for Plan A, and one for Plan B

Plan A:

$9, and 0.17 per minute

9+0.17x

Plan B:

$25, and 0.15 per minute

25+0.15x

We want to find when they are the same, so we can set them equal to each other

9+0.17x=25+0.15x

Solve by isolating the variable, x

Subtract 9 from both sides

0.17x=16+0.15x

Subtract 0.15x from both sides

0.02x=16

Divide both sides by 0.02

x=800  

At 800 minutes they will cost the same

Answer:

3$

Step-by-step explanation:

Because every 3 numbers are divisble by 3 and the other 2 are not. Then the chance of you winning is 66%, therefore he should pay you half of what he would make. If this makes sense.

The probability that Mildred will select a dime first and then a month penny is 1/24.

Probability refers to potential. A random event's occurrence is the subject of this area of mathematics.

The range of the value is 0 to 1. Mathematics has incorporated probability to forecast the likelihood of various events.

The degree to which something is likely to happen is basically what probability means.

Given:

Total possibilities = 16

So, Probability of a dime of the first draw = 10/16 = 5/8

and, Probability of a penny on the second draw = 1/15

Thus, Probability of both = 5/8 x 1/15

                                         = 1/24

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The probability that Mildred will select a dime first and then a penny is 1/24.

To calculate the probability that Mildred will select a dime first and then a penny from her bag of coins, we need to consider the following steps:

1. Probability of selecting a dime first:
- Mildred has a total of 10 dimes, 5 nickels, and 1 penny in the bag.
- The probability of selecting a dime on the first draw is the number of dimes divided by the total number of coins, which is 10 dimes out of 16 total coins.

2. Probability of selecting a penny next:
- After selecting a dime on the first draw, Mildred will have 9 dimes, 5 nickels, and 1 penny remaining in the bag.
- The probability of selecting a penny on the second draw is the number of pennies divided by the total number of remaining coins, which is 1 penny out of 15 remaining coins.

3. To find the overall probability, we multiply the individual probabilities:
- Probability = (Number of dimes / Total coins) * (Number of pennies / Remaining coins)
- Substituting the numbers, we get (10/16) * (1/15) = 1/24.

Therefore, the probability that Mildred will select a dime first and then a penny is 1/24.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

6x² + 5x + 1

= 6x² + ( 2 + 3)x + 1

= 6x² + 2x + 3x + 1

= 2x ( 3x + 1 ) + 1 ( 3x + 1)

= ( 3x + 1) ( 2x +1)

Hope it will help :)

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

got  it right on momentum

Answer:

The population of town is approximately 2400 people.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given the following in the question:

Area of town = 50.5 square miles

Population density of town = 48.2 people per square mile

Population of town =

[tex]P= \text{Area}\times \text{Population density}\\P=50.5\times 48.2\\P=2434.1[/tex]

Now, we have to round off this population to nearest hundred.

After rounding off,

[tex]P=2400\text{ people}[/tex]

Thus, the population of town is approximately 2400 people.

Answer:

A: 28

Explanation:

Vertical angles are congruent.

Answer:

The answer would be 28% because the angles are vertical, which also makes them congruent. Congruent angles have the same angle measure.

Answer:

[tex] \frac{15 }{4} \pi \:[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Radius of circle (r) = 18/2 = 9 ft

Central angle = 180° - 30° = 150°

[tex]length \: of \: arc \\ = \frac{150 \degree}{360 \degree} \times 2\pi \: r \\ \\ = \frac{150 \degree}{360 \degree} \times 2 \times \pi \: \times 9\\ \\ = \frac{5 }{12 } \times 18 \times \pi \: \\ \\ = \frac{5 }{4} \times 3\times \pi \:\\ \\ = \frac{15 }{4} \pi \:[/tex]

The length of the darkened arc can be found using the formula s = Δθr, where s is the length of the arc, Δθ is the angle of rotation, and r is the radius of curvature.

The length of the darkened arc can be found by using the formula for arc length: s = Δθr, where s is the length of the arc, Δθ is the angle of rotation, and r is the radius of curvature. In this case, the angle of rotation is 2π radians (since it is a complete revolution) and the radius is given. So, substituting these values into the formula, we have s = 2πr.

Answer:

a. (8,-7,-9)

Step-by-step explanation:

just took the quiz and this is the answer

Answer:

The person over there is correct. The answer is A.

Step-by-step explanation:

I take the quiz and it is correct. Edge 2021.

Answer:

0.1419 ( (if upper and lower cases are interchangeable)

0.348 ( if upper and lower cases are distinct letters)

Step-by-step explanation:

Each digit has 36 possible choices as 26+10

computer generates six characters

there are only 26 choices for letters only, (if we assume upper and lower cases are interchangeable)

For number of letters-only arrangements = [tex]26^{6}[/tex] = 308915776

For number of alphanumeric arrangements = [tex]36^{6}[/tex]= 2176782336

In order to find the probability of letters-only arrangements : [tex]\frac{308915776}{2176782336}[/tex]

=>0.1419

Now, in different scenario if upper and lower cases are not interchangeable.

We will have 26+26+10=62 alphanumeric choices, and 52 alphabetic choices

Therefore, probability of letters-only arrangements will be [tex]\frac{52^{6} }{62^{6} }[/tex]

=>0.348

Answer:

The probability of all letters arrangement if the upper cases and the lower cases of the English alphabet are interchangeable = 14.2%

The probability of all letters arrangement if the upper cases and the lower cases are not interchangeable = 34.8%

Step-by-step explanation:

please kindly check the attached files for explanation.

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Have a nice day everyone

The slope value calculated by Jalen is not correct. Jalen has used the ordered pairs in the wrong order.

What is the point slope form of a line ?

Point slope form is used to represent a straight line using its slope and a point on the line.

It is given that Jalen is computing the slope of a line.

We know that the equation of a line in point slope form is given by :

(y - y1) = m (x - x1).

As per the computation done by Jalen ordered pairs are (-4, 0) and (2, 3).

For the line : (x , y) = (4 , 0)  and (x1 , y1) = (2 , 3).

So ,

Slope will be equal to :

m = (y - y1) / (x - x1)

m = (0 - 3) / (4 - 2)

m = -3 / 2

So , the slope calculated by Jalen is not correct as he has used the ordered pairs in the wrong order.

Therefore , the slope value calculated by Jalen is not correct. Jalen has used the ordered pairs in the wrong order.

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Answer:

225

Step-by-step explanation:

30%×750 = 30×750/100 = 3×75 = 225

Answer:

525

Step-by-step explanation:

10%= 75 (750 divided by 10)

30%= 225 (75 x 3)

750-225= 525

Answer:

The correct option is;

(3) The sample of track athletes show that there is a correlation between foot size and running speed

Step-by-step explanation:

The statements are analysed as follows;

(1) Smaller foot sizes cause track athletes to run slower.

The above statement is a conclusion and it infers more information than is contained in the question statement because there are other factors such as taller athletes run faster than average sized athletes

(2) The sample of track athletes shows a causal relationship between

foot size and running speed.

The above statement is similar to the one above as it is a milder conclusion and it infers more information than is contained in the question statement

(3) The sample of track athletes shows a correlation between foot size

and running speed.

The  above statement is correct as is directly supported by the data as it is a statement made based directly the data

(4) There is no correlation between foot size and running speed in

track athletes.

The above statement is not supported by the available data.

Answer:

x = 0, 2π/3, 4π/3

Step-by-step explanation:

2 cos(2x) − 2 cos x = 0

Use double angle formula.

2 (2 cos²x − 1) − 2 cos x = 0

Simplify.

4 cos²x − 2 − 2 cos x = 0

2 cos²x − 1 − cos x = 0

2 cos²x − cos x − 1 = 0

Factor.

(cos x − 1) (2 cos x + 1) = 0

Solve.

cos x = 1 or -½

x = 0, 2π/3, 4π/3

To solve this problem, we have to use trigonometric function in which we can use some trigonometric equations on this. The solutions to this equation is

[tex]\pi , \frac{\pi}{3}, \frac{5\pi}{3}[/tex]

We would apply a simple mathematical rule here;

[tex]a(b+c)=ab+ac[/tex]

Let's substitute our functions and solve

[tex]2cos(2x)+2cosx=0\\2(2cos^2x-1)+2cosx=0\\4cos^2x-2+2cosx=0\\2cos^2x+cosx-1=0\\2cos^2x=2cosx-cosx-1=0\\2cos^2x+cosx-1=0\\[/tex]

We can solve the quadratic equation and get a solution to this problem.

[tex](cosx+1)(2cosx-1)=0[/tex]

Using factorization method,

[tex]cosx+1 = 0\\cosx = -1\\x = cos^-^1(-1)\\x = \pi[/tex]

The second solution is

[tex]2cosx-1=0\\2cosx=1\\cosx=\frac{1}{2} \\x = cos^-^1(\frac{1}{2} \\x = \frac{\pi}{3}, \frac{5\pi}{3}[/tex]

From the above calculations, the solutions to this equation is

[tex]\pi , \frac{\pi}{3}, \frac{5\pi}{3}[/tex]

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Answer:

1/20

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 20 possible probabilites/combinatins of what to wear, and wearing a coat, with a purple hat, black boots, and purple mittens is only 1 of those 20 probabilities so the answer is 1/20

Answer:

b) Median 32; Q1 =27

Step-by-step explanation:

So here it is, our Box and Whiskers Plot.