What is not one of the five most common causes of bacterial meningitis?
Answer:
Explanation:
Viral infections are the most common cause of meningitis, followed by bacterial infections and, rarely, fungal infections.
Viral meningitis
Viral meningitis is usually mild and often clears on its own. Most cases in the United States are caused by a group of viruses known as enteroviruses, which are most common in late summer and early fall. Viruses such as herpes simplex virus, HIV, mumps, West Nile virus, and others also can cause viral meningitis.
Answer:
Explanation:
Viral infections are the most common cause of meningitis, followed by opportunistic or non-organism bacteria, and lastly, fungi, which would be the fungal microorganisms that rarely generate disease in the meninges, since for this to happen, the person has to be immunosuppressed or immunosuppressed.
Viral meningitis is usually mild and often goes away on its own (without taking into account the patient's immune factor and considering that he is a patient with adequate defenses). Most cases in the United States are caused by a group of viruses known as enteroviruses, which are most common in late summer and early fall. Viruses like herpes simplex virus, HIV, mumps, West Nile virus and others can also cause viral meningitis. (It is important to clarify that these viruses usually attack the brain organ when there is no predominant immune defense, for example in the cases of people who take chronic treatments with corticosteroids or immunomodulators)
Explanation:
Meningitis is so called referring to the inflammation of the meninges, in case this table does not resolve, it can even cause death of the patient.
In many clinical cases, meningitis revealed HIV infection in adults because these patients presented complicated pictures of meningitis that required hospitalization, which is extremely strange since it is a pathology that usually affects more children than adults.
The _______________
is an example of a catabolic activity. Carbohydrates break down into glucose, glucose into pyruvate, and pyruvate into acetyl-CoA. In the process, ATP is released.
Final answer:
The catabolic activity involves the breakdown of carbohydrates into glucose, glucose into pyruvate, and pyruvate into acetyl-CoA. It is a part of cellular respiration and releases ATP.
Explanation:
The catabolic activity under discussion involves the breakdown of carbohydrates into glucose, glucose into pyruvate, and pyruvate into acetyl-CoA. This process is a part of the cellular respiration pathway and occurs in all cells throughout the body. It is an example of a catabolic reaction, which is a type of exergonic reaction that breaks down larger molecules and releases energy.
Catabolic reactions in biology involve the breakdown of larger molecules, such as carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins from ingested food, into their constituent smaller parts. The breakdown of glucose during cellular respiration is a catabolic activity and releases ATP, which is a form of energy used by cells for various metabolic processes.
a what is not the same as a universal theme
Answer:
Subject
Explanation:
The nurse is providing care to the family of a preschool-age child who is diagnosed with sickle cell disease. Which statement made by the sibling would initiate a teaching session with the parents regarding discipline?
3. "When I lied to my parents, I was punished for a week and my brother never gets punished." The statement by the sibling about discipline indicates a perception of unfair treatment, which necessitates a conversation about balancing attention and disciplinary needs among all children, especially in a family affected by sickle cell disease.
The statement made by the sibling that would initiate a teaching session with the parents regarding discipline is: "When I lied to my parents, I was punished for a week and my brother never gets punished." This suggests a perception of unequal treatment between the siblings when it comes to discipline, which can lead to feelings of resentment or misunderstanding. A family dealing with a child who has sickle cell disease may often focus a lot of attention and resources towards the affected child, sometimes unintentionally overlooking the emotional and disciplinary needs of their other children.
The parents need to address this statement by ensuring that all children in the family feel valued and treated fairly, also considering the special healthcare needs that a child with sickle cell disease might require. This can be a complex balance to strike, and parents may need guidance on providing supportive yet consistent discipline to all their children, regardless of health status. An open conversation about feelings and a clear explanation of any necessary differences in treatment can help alleviate feelings of unfairness.
When structuring a home program, the clinician has to be sure that the assistants understand in detail what needs to be accomplished and how (pp. 280-281). That includes answers to questions such as when and how long the session should be, how to judge the relative accuracy of the child's productions, and how to motivate and reward the client.
Answer:
DCD is a common and chronic disorder resulting in considerable consequences in daily life; prevalence estimates of 5% to 6% of children are most frequently quoted in the literature.2, 6 At least 2% of all individuals with typical intelligence experience severe consequences in everyday living including academic productivity, and a further 3% have a degree of functional impairment in activities of daily living (ADL) or school work.7 Nonetheless, DCD is largely underrecognized by health care and educational professionals.8-10
There are, however, considerable costs for long‐term treatment with questionable effectiveness. For example, the German Therapy Report 2016 (also known as Heilmittelbericht 2016) reports on the largest health insurance in Germany (Allgemeine Ortskrankenkasse). According to Waltersbacher,11 this document states sensorimotor disorders are treated in about 50% of all occupational therapy sessions and are therefore ranked as the primary concern overall. Waltersbacher11 also reported that for those being treated for sensorimotor disorders, 90% include therapeutic sessions for children and adolescents under 15 years; within this 90% allotment, hemiparesis accounts for 10.3% and DCD accounts for 8.6% of all occupational therapy intervention sessions. When the number of occupational therapy assessments was analysed, DCD was found to be the leading diagnosis, accounting for 7.4% of all of the children and young people tested.
Explanation: As unveiled above
Answer:
This is case of Dismissal and reevaluation criteria.
Explanation:
There are guidelines given for structuring a home program and the case study is a dismissal and reevaluation criteria
Melanie's therapist suggests that when she feels anxious, Melanie should attribute her arousal to her highly reactive nervous system and shift her attention to playing a game with her preschool child. This suggestion best illustrates ___________.
Answer:
Melanie's therapist suggests that when she feels anxious, Melanie should attribute her arousal to her highly reactive nervous system and shift her attention to playing a game with her preschool child. This suggestion best illustrates cognitive-behavior therapy.
Explanation:
Cognitive-behavioral therapy is based on the relationship between thoughts, emotions, physical sensations and behaviors. It is used for many anxiety disorders, such as obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD), panic attacks, and post-traumatic stress disorder. Cognitive behavioral therapy often focuses on specific problems, using a goal-oriented approach, that is, to help recognize the patterns of thinking and behavior that might be contributing to the person's problems. The cognitive-behavioral treatment for anxiety then consists of learning to interpret situations more objectively and understand and decrease physical sensations.
Which of the following is an appropriate literature play-based learning experience?
A. Using puppets to act out a story
B. Separating blocks according to size
C. Using predominantly informational books
D. Silent reading
For several months, Reba has kept her weight 10 to 15 pounds below what would be considerednormal for her age and height. She uses laxatives after her meals as a purging behavior. She hasbecome concerned because she has recently stopped menstruating. According to the DSM-5, withwhich of the following feeding and eating disorders will Reba most likely be diagnosed?A) Binge-eating disorderB) Bulimia nervosa, purging typeC) Anorexia nervosa, binge/purge typeD) Anorexia nervosa, restricting type
Answer:
I believe B)
Explanation:
It specified the bulimia
Explain (in terms of blood chemistry and respiratory physiology) why the victims in the manure pit did not realize that they were suffocating. What would be the expected blood pH values of the individuals involved (high, low, normal)? What mechanism accounts for this?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide levels in their blood did not reach a high level to be able to process the Oxygen.It takes a high Carbon dioxide level and low blood pH to feel like you are suffocating. The people in the pit didn’t realize they were suffocating due to these factors.
In the real sense, they were suffocating as there was no oxygen in the pit but their carbon dioxide and pH chemoreceptors indicated that everything was alright.
I would expect their pH levels to be normal.
An action potential moves along an axon due to the sequential opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels. The diagram below shows voltage-gated Na+ channels separated by a short distance in the plasma membrane of an axon. Initially (left panel), only channel (a) is open. Within a very short time (right panel), channel (b) also opens. A diagram of two panels with an arrow between them showing Na plus ions outside a cell and inside a cell, separated by a plasma membrane with two Na plus channels labeled (a) and (b). In the first panel, the (a) channel is open and ions flow from outside to inside the cell. In the second panel, both channels are open. Which statement correctly describes what causes the second voltage-gated Na+ channel to open?
Answer:
What causes the second voltage-gated Na+ to open is the charge changes caused by the flow of ions through the first channel.
Explanation:
The second channel is a voltage-gated Na+ channel, we know that voltage-gated channels open their gates when there is a change in the voltage of the cell, by opening the first ion channel, there is a rush of ions to the inside of the cell that modifies the cell's voltage due to the new charges. The second channel is affected by this, and as a consequence, it opens its gates.
Answer:
When depolarization occurs Na+ ion voltage gated Channels opens.And under normal procedures, there is influx of sodium ions into the axonplasm. A brief refractive period must occur so that, there is a short period of tentative rest where the Gated Sodium channels remains short.
However, if this period is not present as in this scenario, as Na+ move in and out of A, continuously, the ionic distribution in A, causes changes in charge distribution in B, which leads to opening of Na+ channels in B.
Explanation:
What are the three diet or products you should beware of?
Answer:
Explanation:
certainproducts or programs beware of high costs, pressure to buy special foods or pills
A 2-year-old female has experienced a seizure. When you arrive at the scene, the child is conscious, crying, and clinging to her mother. Her skin is hot and moist. The mother tells you that the seizure lasted approximately 5 minutes. She further tells you that her daughter has no history of seizures, but has had a recent ear infection. You should:A. cool the child with tepid water and transport to the hospital.B. suspect that the child has meningitis and transport at once.C. place the child in cold water to attempt to reduce her fever.D. allow the mother to drive her daughter to the hospital.
Answer:
I would say A.
Explanation:
I think this because this drops the temperature so the fever will be gone. Then I would take the child to a hospital once the fever has dropped. Hope this helps! : )
A 2-year-old female has experienced a seizure. You should A. Cool the child with tepid water and transport to the hospital.
Based on the information provided, the 2-year-old female had a seizure that lasted approximately 5 minutes and has no history of seizures but recently had an ear infection. Her skin is hot and moist, indicating that she may have a fever. In this situation, it is important to lower the child's body temperature as a high fever can sometimes trigger seizures in young children.
The best course of action is to cool the child with tepid water, not cold water, as cold water can cause shock or discomfort. Tepid water will help to lower the child's body temperature gradually and safely. However, it is essential to avoid extreme temperature changes, as they can be harmful.
After cooling the child, she should be transported to the hospital for further evaluation and treatment. Since the child has had a seizure and has no history of seizures, it is crucial to have her assessed by a healthcare professional to determine the cause and provide appropriate care. It is not recommended to allow the mother to drive the child to the hospital, as the child's condition needs medical attention.
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1. Which is NOT a benefit of warming up? A. Your heart has time to adjust to exercise B. You will perform better C. Chance of injury is increased D. Your muscles work better when they are warm
Answer:
C. Chance of injury is increased.
Which statements describe noninfectious diseases? Check all that apply.
Parkinson’s disease is a noninfectious disease.
Parkinson’s disease affects the nerves in the brain that control movement.
Eating a well-balanced diet may lower the risk of noninfectious diseases.
Diabetes is linked to obesity.
Diabetes is always inherited.
Answer:
It’s all of them except the last one
Explanation:
just took the quiz
-hope this helped!
Answer:
A
B
C
D
Explanation:
The map above shows air release, or emissions, sites across the United States. These sites include locations such as smokestacks, factories, and high vehicle traffic areas. Which of the following statements demonstrates how these data relate to potential externalities?
Answer:
b
Explanation:
yes
The data in the map show potential negative externalities for people living in industrial areas.
The displayed data on the map highlights potential negative externalities affecting residents in industrial zones. These externalities represent unintended adverse effects stemming from industrial activities, such as pollution, noise, and decreased air quality.
The concentration of industries in these areas can lead to health risks, reduced quality of life, and environmental degradation for nearby inhabitants. This emphasizes the importance of regulatory measures and urban planning to mitigate these externalities, ensuring the well-being of individuals living in proximity to industrial sites while promoting sustainable development and healthier living conditions.
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------------The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
"The map shows air release, or emissions, sites across the United States. These sites include locations such as smokestacks, factories, and high vehicle traffic areas. Which of the following statements best reflects the content in the map?
The data show potential negative externalities for people living in industrial areas.
The data show potential negative externalities for loss of public transportation.
The data show potential positive externalities for job growth.
The data show potential positive externalities for urban development"-------------
What are foods that are high in simple carbohydrates and four food s that are high in complex carbohydrates
Answer:
Carbohydrates are a major macronutrient and one of your body’s primary sources of energy. Some weight loss programs discourage eating them, but the key is finding the right carbs — not avoiding them completely.
You may have heard that eating complex carbs is better than simple carbs. But nutrition labels don’t always tell you if the carbohydrate content is simple or complex.
Understanding how these foods are classified and how they work in your body can help you choose the right carbs.
Understanding carbohydrates
Carbohydrates are an important nutrient found in numerous types of foods.
Most of us equate carbs with bread and pasta, but you can also find them in:
dairy products
fruits
vegetables
grains
nuts
legumes
seeds
sugary foods and sweets
Carbohydrates are made up of three components: fiber, starch, and sugar.
Fiber and starch are complex carbs, while sugar is a simple carb. Depending on how much of each of these is found in a food determines its nutrient quality.
Simple carbs equal simplistic nutrition
Simple carbs are sugars. While some of these occur naturally in milk, most of the simple carbs in the American diet are added to foods.
Common simple carbs added to foods include:
raw sugar
brown sugar
corn syrup and high-fructose corn syrup
glucose, fructose, and sucrose
fruit juice concentrate
Simple carb foods to avoid
Try to avoid some of the most common refined sources of simple carbs and look for alternatives to satisfy those sweet cravings:
1. Soda
Sugary soda is bad for your health in several ways. You can try water flavored with lemon instead.
2. Baked treats
Satisfy your sweet tooth with fruit, rather than baked goods full of simple carbs and added sugars.
3. Packaged cookies
Bake your own goods using substitutes like applesauce or sweeteners, or look for other mixes that contain more complex carbs.
4. Fruit juice concentrate
An easy way to avoid fruit concentrate is to look closely at nutrition labels. Always choose 100 percent fruit juice or make your own at home.
Try our recipe for kiwi strawberry juice.
5. Breakfast cereal
Breakfast cereals tend to be loaded with simple carbohydrates. If you just can’t kick the habit, check out our rundown of breakfast cereals, from the best to the worst for your health.
The more complex the carb, the better
Complex carbs pack in more nutrients than simple carbs. They’re higher in fiber and digest more slowly. This also makes them more filling, which means they’re a good option for weight control.
They’re also ideal for people with type 2 diabetes because they help manage blood sugar spikes after meals.
Fiber and starch are the two types of complex carbohydrates. Fiber is especially important because it promotes bowel regularity and helps to control cholesterol.
The main sources of dietary fiber include:
fruits
vegetables
nuts
beans
whole grains
Starch is also found in some of the same foods as fiber. The difference is certain foods are considered more starchy than fibrous, such as potatoes.
Other high-starch foods are:
whole wheat bread
cereal
corn
oats
peas
rice
Complex carbohydrates are key to long-term health. They make it easier to maintain a healthy weight and can even help guard against type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular problems in the future.
Complex carbs you should eat more of
Be sure to include the following complex carbohydrates as a regular part of your diet:
1. Whole grains
Whole grains are good sources of fiber, as well as potassium, magnesium, and selenium. Choose less processed whole grains such as quinoa, buckwheat, and whole-wheat pasta.
2. Fiber-rich fruits
Some of these are apples, berries, and bananas. Avoid canned fruit since it usually contains added syrup.
3. Fiber-rich vegetables
Eat more of all your veggies, including broccoli, leafy greens, and carrots.
4. Beans
Aside from fiber, these are good sources of folate, iron, and potassium.
Choosing the right carbs can take time and practice. With a little bit of research and a keen eye for nutrition labels, you can start making healthier choices to energize your body and protect it from long-term complications.
WHAT’S IN A CARB?
Carbs are made up of fiber, starch, and sugars. The American Diabetes Association recommends getting 25 to 35 grams of fiber per day.
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Medically reviewed by Katherine Marengo, LDN, RD, specialty in nutrition, on December 13, 2018 — Written by Kristeen Cherney
Explanation:
Simple carbohydrates are high in sugar content and include foods like soda, candy, cookies, and fruit juices. Complex carbohydrates, on the other hand, contain starch and fiber, and include foods like whole grains, legumes, potatoes, and vegetables.
Explanation:Simple carbohydrates are found in foods that have a high sugar content. Examples include soda, candy, cookies, and fruit juices. These foods are quickly digested and result in a rapid rise in blood sugar levels.
Complex carbohydrates are found in foods that contain starch and fiber. Examples include whole grains, legumes, potatoes, and vegetables. These foods take longer to digest and provide a more sustained release of energy.
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Why are the male and female reproductive systems important
ANSWER: The male and female reproductive systems are important because the cells that allow humans beings to reproduce are produced by these systems. Reproduction allows for the survival of the human species.
Answer:
ANSWER: The male and female reproductive systems are important because the cells that allow humans beings to reproduce are produced by these systems. Reproduction allows for the survival of the human species.
Explanation:
The females and male reproductive system are a function of different sex organs that both poses. These organs are responsible for the reproduction processes and allow humans to reproduce.
They are important as the cells that allow human beings to reproduce are produced by these systems. Reproduction allows for the survival of the human species. Due to the reproductive process, humans have evolved as a species.Learn more about the male and female reproductive systems is important.
brainly.com/question/12420782.
What is the Paleo diet?
Answer :
A paleo diet is a dietary plan based on foods similar to what might have been eaten during the Paleolithic era, which dates from approximately 2.5 million to 10,000 years ago.
A paleo diet typically includes lean meats, fish, fruits, vegetables, nuts and seeds — foods that in the past could be obtained by hunting and gathering. A paleo diet limits foods that became common when farming emerged about 10,000 years ago. These foods include dairy products, legumes and grains.
Other names for a paleo diet include Paleolithic diet, Stone Age diet, hunter-gatherer diet and caveman diet.
The rising use of video display terminals at work has led to the proliferation of visual difficulties, radiation hazards, muscular aches and pains, and increased job stress for employees using personal computers or network work stations on the job.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
Option A => True.
Explanation:
The VDT is an acronym which stands for Video Display Terminals and is used for displaying information on the computer screens.
According to some researches that have been made it has been found out that the Video Display Terminals is really causing a lot of problems at work which is mostly about eyes problem and this has become a great concern for Occupational Safety and Health Administration(OSHA) which is saddled with the responsibility of providing safe environment for workers.
The nurse is reviewing the health record of a client who developed posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) following a spouse's cardiac arrest and death. The health record states that the client experienced derealization during the traumatic event. What assessment finding would substantiate this statement?a. The client reports that the client cannot drive down the street where the event occurred
b. The client states that the client cannot remember what happened during and immediately after the event
c. The client reports that the client has become "obsessed" with monitoring the client's own heart rate and blood pressure
d. The client states that the client no longer has any hope for the future
Answer:
b. The client states that the client cannot remember what happened during and immediately after the event.
Explanation:
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental condition that is caused after a person witnesses a terrifying or traumatic event. People who suffer from post-traumatic stress disorder always seem to be afraid when they are not in any form of danger, and this occurs due to flashbacks or even nightmares of the terrifying event.
Derealization is a situation where a person feels a traumatic event he experienced isn't real, which often leads to loss of memories.
Since the client developed PTSD, and the client's health record states the client experienced derealization during the traumatic event, the best statement from the client to substantiate this assessment is option (b).
Children's writing experiences are important because they
A. represent their daily experiences.
B. instill school habits.
-C. teach manual dexterity.
D. show mastery of the alphabet.
Answer:C
Explanation:
You are asked to assess a 34-year-old homeless man admitted through the ER with an abrupt onset of chills and fever. He has bilateral rhonchi with a productive cough. His SpO2 is 88% on room air. What should you recommend?
A. intubate and provide mechanical ventilation with 40% O2B. institute noninvasive positive pressure ventilation via nasal maskC. provide O2 therapy, give an antibiotic, and obtain sputum for C&SD. implement postural drainage and percussion with directed coughing
Answer:
C. provide O2 therapy, give an antibiotic, and obtain sputum for C&S
Explanation:
Knowing fully well about the conditions of the homeless man admitted through the Emergency Room with an abrupt onset of chills and fever, I'll recommend to provide O2 therapy, give him an antibiotic and finally obtain sputum for Culture and Sensitivity (C&S).
A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the two most common forms of malaria, Plasmodium vivax malaria and Plasmodium falciparum malaria. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Once erythrocyte forms of P. falciparum are eliminated, relapse will not occur."B) "Patients with P. vivax malaria experience relapse with increased frequency over time."C) "Patients with P. falciparum malaria experience symptoms at irregular intervals."D) "Patients with P. vivax malaria rarely encounter drug resistance."
Answer: B) "Patients with P. vivax malaria experience relapse with increased frequency over time."
Explanation:
The relapse is likely to occur in P. vivax malaria. The P.vivax is the dormant parasite remain in the liver. As the time passes the relapse with this parasite becomes less frequent and stops entirely. The relapse does not occur with the strain of P. falciparum malaria. This is because the P. falciparum does not produce hypnozoites that can become dormant. Thus the symptoms of P. falciparum appear at irregular intervals as compared to the P. vivax whose symptoms remain at peak at every 48 hours. The drug resistance for P. vivax is also uncommon.
You hear a news report about a new asthma treatment. What information is NOT something you would want to know before asking your doctor if this treatment was right for you? Was the drug tested in a randomized clinical trial? How many participants were in the trial? In what populations were the clinical trials conducted? Was there a statistically significant difference between the effect of the new drug and the treatment used in the control group? Is asthma a genetic disorder?
Answer:
Is asthma a genetic disorder
Explanation:
Because if you have asthma and you need/want to get the treatment then why does it really matter if it’s genetic or not. So, you don’t need to know that.
To assess if a new asthma treatment is right for you, details about the clinical trials, such as randomization, participant number, demographics, and treatment efficacy, are vital. However, the question of whether asthma is a genetic disorder is not pertinent to the immediate consideration of a treatment's appropriateness.
When considering whether a new asthma treatment reported in the news might be right for you, there are several pieces of information you would want to know. However, the question of whether asthma is a genetic disorder is not directly relevant to the efficacy or appropriateness of the specific treatment in question. Instead, you should be concerned about the clinical trials that tested the new treatment's efficacy.
Information about whether the drug was tested in a randomized clinical trial, the number of participants, the populations in which the clinical trials were conducted, and whether there was a statistically significant difference between the effect of the new drug and the treatment used in the control group is crucial. This data can give insight into the reliability and applicability of the treatment outcomes to you as a potential user of the medication.
Randomized clinical trials ensure that the treatment groups are randomly assigned and often employ a double-blind method to provide unbiased and accurate results. These trials might range from a few dozen participants in early-phase trials to hundreds or even thousands in the later stages before a drug reaches the market. The responses and side effects are closely monitored to establish a treatment's safety and efficacy.
Rofonzo is a 36 year old recently divorced primigravida at 30 weeks gestation. She weighs 120 pounds with a BMI of 22 which indicates a normal height to weight proportion. Rofonzo's health history is negative for chronic health problems. She is an active career woman who experiences a moderate to sometimes severe level of stress with her job. Her diet consists of a lot of fast foods to "save time" especially when she has to eat on the run or while working. Rofonzo was diagnosed with mild preeclampsia. When the diagnosis is explained, she states that her mother and one of her sisters had a blood pressure problem when they were pregnant.
How should the nurse explain preeclampsia to Rofonzo?
Answer:
Preeclampsia can be defined as the condition in which pregnant women faces hypertension which develops after 20 weeks of pregnancy. Preeclampsia can affect multisystem of the body and is characterized by spasms of the blood vessels (vasospastic) that makes difficulty in the dilation of increased bood produced during pregnancy.
She may experience a number of signs and symptoms that may escalate and worsen as the progression of the disease progresses from mild to severe. The only solution is getting her baby, but it has been found that a number of treatment methods are effective in managing the disease's progress until it is time for her baby to be born.
This is the way nurse can explain Rofonzo about preeclampsia.
The vital signs for a client with a possible head injury were, on admission: blood pressure 128/72 mm Hg, pulse 90 beats/min, and respirations 66 breaths/min. Which vital sign assessment conducted four hours later most likely indicates the presence of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
A. Blood pressure 172/68 mm Hg, pulse 42 beats/min, respirations 10 breaths/min
B. Blood pressure 160/90 mm Hg, pulse 112 beats/min, respirations 16 breaths/min
C. Blood pressure 130/72 mm Hg, pulse 50 beats/min, respirations 24 breaths/min
D. Blood pressure 100/70 mm Hg, pulse 120 beats/min, respirations 30 breaths/min
Answer: The correct answer to the question is option A
Blood pressure 172/68 mm Hg, pulse 42 beats/min, respirations 10 breaths/min
Explanation: Increased intracranial pressure can simply be defined as the increase/rise in the pressure within the brain and the structures sorrounding the brain.
Increased intracranial pressure can be caused by alot of things which includes trauma to the head,bleeding into the brain and it's sorrounding structure,build-up of fluid in the brain, inflammation/swelling of the brain or brain tissues,tumour or mass growing in the brain or its sorrounding structures which can either be benign (non-cancerous) or malignant (cancerous).
One of the symptoms of increased intracranial pressure is rise in blood pressure,this rise in blood pressure happens so that the body can compensate for the increased pressure and as well increase the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP),as the pressure continues,there is decrease blood flow to the brain,cushing reflex(the nervous system way of responding to increased ICP) will set in which will reduce the heart rate(bradycardia) and also reduce respiratory rate or make it irregular.
This vital signs in option A is indicative of increased intracranial pressure.
At rest,a healthy human has a normal ICP level of 7-10mmHg
Nolan, a 10-year-old, is the envy of his classmates because he doesn't have a set bedtime and is free to stay up as late as he wants. Nolan is a well-adjusted child who feels that his parents love him. Based on this description, his parents are MOST likely:
a. permissive.b. authoritative.c. authoritarian.d. rejecting-neglecting.
Answer: a. permissive
Explanation:
A permissive behavior is a behavior which is characterized by excessive freedom. This kind of behavior is allowed by some people but may not be tolerated by other people of the society. This kind of behavior can be disapproved by the people.
According to the given situation, the Nolan is allowed remain free to stay late this is a kind of freedom privileged he is associated with. His behavior is permissive to the parent but may not be similar to the schedule and lifestyle of fellow classmates.
A diabetic client who also suffers from urinary incontinence knows the importance of maintaining her blood glucose levels. This is doubly important for this type of client in regards to her incontinence because of which factor?
Answer: Abnormal glucose levels can cause polyuria.
Explanation:
Polyuria is a condition in diabetes in which the excess levels of sugar is excreted out from the blood. Usually the kidneys, when filter the blood, reabsorbs the sugars and allow them to be absorbed into the bloodstream. But in case of type 1 diabetes, the excess glucose is released along with the urine. The sugar is likely to pull more amount of water to be excreted out from the body as component of urine.
Urinary incontinence is a condition in which the involuntary release of urine occurs. The control over the sphincter is lost during the urinary incontinence. This leads to urination when the person does not want to. The urinary incontinence is one of the symptom of polyuria.
According to the given situation, the urinary incontinence is because of the increased glucose level in the body of the client.
Preeti discovers that her roommate Shari recently experimented with methamphetamine. Preeti, worried about her roommate, informs Shari that there are risks associated with methamphetamine use, such as the induction of symptoms associated with _________.
a. psychosis
c. bipolar disorderb. obsessive compulsive disorder
d. generalized anxiety disorder
Answer: Psychosis---A
Explanation: According to research, Over time, methamphetamine abuse has been found to have many negative effect leading to firstly, Addiction which is compulsive drug engagement and use which have a ripple effect in disorganizing the functional and molecular changes in the brain. followed by display of psychotic symptoms such as confusion, paranoia, hallucinations etc lasting for months and even longer years even when such person involved has withdrawn.
Preeti, is worried about her roommate, Shari because she knows that that there are risks associated with methamphetamine use, such as the induction of symptoms associated with Psychosis
Final answer:
Chronic methamphetamine abuse is associated with the induction of symptoms akin to a. psychosis, including hallucinations and delusions, similar to those seen in schizophrenia.
Explanation:
Preeti is correct to be concerned about her roommate Shari's use of methamphetamine, as it is associated with a range of serious health risks. One of the major risks associated with chronic methamphetamine abuse is the induction of symptoms associated with psychosis. These can include paranoia, visual and auditory hallucinations, delusions, and the sensation of insects crawling under the skin. Methamphetamine abuse can lead to psychotic features that are similar to those seen in schizophrenia, a debilitating mental illness characterized by difficulties in differentiating between reality and imagination, as well as disordered thoughts and perceptions. Furthermore, methamphetamine is neurotoxic, causing damage to dopamine and serotonin neurons in the central nervous system, which impacts brain structure and function.
What are some ways to stay safe from corona virus??
Answer:
Wash your hands, social distance (no leaving the house for unnecessary reasons and no visiting friends or family members), wear a mask if you must go out in public.
Explanation: