Answer:
Charles yanofsky established gene sequence and protein sequences are collinear in bacteria. He explains changes in DNA sequence can capable to produce changes in protein sequence at corresponding positions of bacteria.
The most likely wild-type codon for position 235 is AGT/C
The most likely wild-type codon(s) for position 211 is GGA/G
The most likely wild-type codon(s) for position 235 is UCA/G
The most likely wild-type codon(s) for position 243 is CAA/G
Provide a genetic explanation for the origin of achromatopsia on Pingelap, and explain the most likely evolutionary model for the high frequency there of achromatopsia. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words given below to complete the sentences. Not all words will be used. 1. genetic drift 2. founder effect 3. genetic bottleneck4. inbreeding depression 5. 1/10 6. 1/20 7. 1/40 8. homozygote 9. heterozygote 10. predominant 11. eliminated The relatively high frequency of the mutant achromatopsia allele in the island population is due to ________ created by the typhoon. After the typhoon, the allele frequency was at least ________, corresponding to one male ________ among the 20 individuals surviving the storm. The mutant achromatopsia alleles of the male, along with those of the other reproducing survivors, become ________ in the expanding population.
Answer:
A
The high frequency of achromatopsia in the Pingelap is attributed to the bottleneck and founder effects. Both of these are forms of genetic drift.
B
Blanks:
The relatively high frequency of the mutant achromatopsia allele in the island population is due to 3. genetic bottleneck created by the typhoon.
After the typhoon, the allele frequency was at least 7. 1/40, corresponding to one male 9. heterozygote among the 20 individuals surviving the storm.
The mutant achromatopsia alleles of the male, along with those of the other reproducing survivors, become 10. predominant in the expanding population.
Explanation:
A
Achromatopsia is a rare, autosomal recessive form of complete colour blindness. Usually, only 1 in 20,000 people are affected with achromatopsia. However, Pingelap, a cluster of islands in the Federated States of Micronesia, possesses disease rates as high as 10% of 3000 people. 30% of the 3000 are reported to be carriers of the achromatopsia allele. This unnaturally high allele frequency is linked to a genetic drift event that occurred after a typhoon killed majority of the population, leaving just 20 survivors. In terms of evolution, this is known as the bottleneck effect i.e. a severe reduction in a population due to natural disasters or sudden drastic environmental change. The bottleneck effect yields only a few viable individuals in the population.
Out of the 20 survivors, one is believed to be a carrier (heterozygous) for the achromatopsia allele. All of the achromatopsia affected Pingelapese trace their ancestry to one carrier. This is known as the founder affect where one or only a few individuals form or continue the population. This results in narrowing of the gene pool and drastic loss of genetic variations.
B
Blanks:
All the blanks have been explained above. Allele frequencies are calculated as follows:
Every gene has 2 alleles, therefore, every person possesses alleles. Since, there were 20 individuals left, the total number of alleles in the population will be 40.Out of the 40, only one is recessive i.e. achromatopsia allele. Therefore, the allele frequency of the population left after the typhoon will be 1/40.What is the first stage of protein synthesis?
a. the assembly of transcription factors at the promoter elongation, in which amino acids are joined to the polypeptide chain
b. setting the reading frame, where the initiation codon is recognized by RNA polymerase
c. tRNA charging, in which the tRNAs bind to amino acids initiation, in which the components necessary for translation are assembled at the ribosome
Answer:
Option C.
tRNA charging, in which the tRNAs bind to amino acids initiation, in which the components necessary for translation are assembled at the ribosome.
Explanation:
During the transcription phase of protein synthesis, before an amino acid can even be incorporated into a growing polypeptide, it must first be attached to a molecule called the transfer RNA (tRNA). This process is known as tRNA charging.
After this, the charged RNA can now carry the activated amino acid to the ribosome, where the protein synthesis can now take place.
The tRNA charging process is the first stage in protein synthesis
Answer:
b. setting the reading frame, where the initiation codon is recognized by RNA polymerase.
Explanation:
The first step in protein synthesis is called transcription. Transcription is the process wherein DNA is used to create messenger RNA, or mRNA. The mRNA is produced using DNA's code, which is contained within the cell's nucleus. The steps include:
RNA polymerase, together with one or more general transcription factors, binds to promoter DNA. RNA polymerase creates a transcription bubble, which separates the two strands of the DNA helix. This is done by breaking the hydrogen bonds between complementary DNA nucleotides.
RNA polymerase adds RNA nucleotides (which are complementary to the nucleotides of one DNA strand).
RNA sugar-phosphate backbone forms with assistance from RNA polymerase to form an RNA strand.
Hydrogen bonds of the RNA–DNA helix break, freeing the newly synthesized RNA strand. The RNA may remain in the nucleus or exit to the cytoplasm through the nuclear pore complex.
During ____, homologous chromosomes pair up forming tetrads.
Answer: meiosis
Explanation:
T.W. Engelmann did an experiment where he separated the wavelengths (colors) of light using a prism, and illuminated a chain of algae cells so that each cell received 1 color of light. He then added oxygen-loving bacteria to the mixture and saw that they preferentially went to the algae using red and blue light. He concluded (correctly) that red and blue light were the most efficiently used in photosynthesis (producing the most oxygen for the bacteria). Suppose that you did the same experiment, but did not use a prism to separate the wavelengths of light. Where will the bacteria go?
Answer:
The bacteria will be evenly distributed on the chain of algae
Explanation:
If the component of white light is not separated by a prism, all the components will be evenly distributed in space and as such, equal amount of each component will go to the chain of algae.
The equal amount of each light component that goes to the chain of algae will ensure that there is equal rate of photosynthesis, and hence, oxygen production in each algae. Consequently, the oxygen-requiring bacteria will spread out evenly on the chain of algae without concentrating particularly on any algae.
Two true-breeding stocks of pea plants are crossed. One parent has red, axial flowers and the other has white, terminal flowers; all F1 individuals have red, axial flowers. If 1,000 F2 offspring resulted from the cross, approximately how many of them would you expect to have red, terminal flowers? (Assume independent assortment.)
A) 190
B) 250
C) 65
D) 750
E) 565
Answer:
Approximately, 190.
Explanation:
cross between true breeding stock. let R represent the colour and Y represent the position of flower.
parents RRYY x rryy
F1 gen. RrYy
RrYy x RrYy
F2 gen RY Ry rY ry
RY RYRY RYRy RYrY RYry
Ry RYRy RyRy RyrY Ryry
rY RYrY RyrY rYrY rYry
ry RYry Ryry ryrY ryry
number of red and axial flowers (RY__) - 9
number of red and terminal flowers (Ry_y) - 3
number of white and axial flowers (rYr_) - 3
number of white and terminal flowers (ryry) - 1
We are expected to find the number of red and terminal flowers out of 1,000 F2 offspring. Thus, we have 3/16 x 1000 = approximately 190
When two true-breeding pea plants with different flower colors and positions are crossed, the F1 generation will have a specific combination of traits. The F2 generation will display a combination of traits due to independent assortment. Approximately 190 F2 offspring can be expected to have red, terminal flowers.
Explanation:When two true-breeding pea plants with different flower colors and positions are crossed, the resulting F1 generation will have a specific combination of traits. In this case, the F1 generation has red axial flowers. The question asks about the F2 generation, which will display a combination of traits due to independent assortment.
Independent assortment means that the alleles for flower color and position segregate randomly during gamete formation. This results in different combinations of alleles in the F2 generation. Since the traits of flower color and position are independent of each other, we can calculate the expected ratio. The F2 generation is expected to have a ratio of 9:3:3:1 for red axial, red terminal, white axial, and white terminal flowers respectively.
Given that there are 1,000 F2 offspring, we can use this ratio to calculate the approximate number of F2 offspring expected to have red terminal flowers.
Red terminal flowers are represented by the 3 in the ratio, so the expected number of F2 offspring with red terminal flowers would be approximately 3/16 of the total number of offspring. Therefore, the answer would be approximately 187.5. Since we cannot have a fraction of an individual, we can round it up to the closest whole number, which is 190.
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Why did the paramecium die of dehydration when the water solute was raised all the way up AND lowered all the way down?Why did the paramecium die of dehydration when the water solute was raised all the way up AND lowered all the way down?
Answer:
There is a certain water potential maintained in the body of the paramecium, which can change in response to changes in its environment. When the water solute level is increased all the way up, the water potential in the surrounding is a lot lower than the water potential inside the paramecium. Due to this steep water potential gradient, water will leave the paramecium's cell into the surrounding via osmosis. Water being transported out of the paramecium will cause it to dehydrate and die.
In the opposite case where the solute level is lowered all the way down, no water will enter the paramecium cell because its water potential is lower than the surroundings. The difference in water potentials is so great that the water entering the paramecium's cell will cause to burst and die.
Note: remember that diffusion and osmosis takes place down the concentration gradient. The concentration of one environment is determined in reference to another.
Hope that answers the question, have a great day!
RNA polymerase from E. coli does not function at 0ºC, whereas in vitro experiments determined that RNA polymerase from Pseudomonas syringae strain Lz4W functions at about 10%–15% of its optimum, which is 37ºC. Which of the following best explains the difference?
Answer:
Since there is no distinction in the measure of the RNA polymerases yet rather their movement, the distinction lies in their structure and not their grouping. Adjustments are made to widen the states of endurance. Thus E. coli would not constrain it's endurance by restricting its development to hotter temperatures. Thus the appropriate response is "the RNA polymerase sub-units of the P. syringe strain most likely have additional adaptability with the goal that they can move all the more openly in colder temperatures".
Kyle wanted to make some extra money over the summer. He decided that, to make the most money possible, he needed to gather scientific evidence about which tasks would pay the most. To obtain the evidence he needed, Kyle polled his neighbors about how much they were willing to pay him for the different tasks. Then he made the graph shown. Which task will earn Kyle the most money per hour? A. walking dogs B. washing cars C. mowing lawns D. painting fences
Answer:
Its D
Explanation:
Answer:
Painting Fences
Explanation:
Largest planet in our Solar system with faint rings.
A.Saturn
B.Jupiter
C.Venus
D.Neptune
Answer: Jupiter
Explanation: No explanation.
Answer:
Jupiter
explanation:
Jupiter is the 5th planet in our Solar system and is the largest planet in the Solar System. Jupiter has a narrow and faint ring. Jupiter's rings are dark and are made up of dust and tiny pieces of rock. So The largest planet with faint rings in our Solar System is the planet Jupiter.
As Jim lifts a weight heavier than he has ever lifted before, he suddenly drops the weight with a stunned look on his face. With a nervous laugh, he winks at the girl again, but she turns and walks away. Which of the following most likely happened to Jim
a)The stimulation of the Golgi tendon organ increased action potentials in the sensory neuron, which increased action potentials in an inhibitory alpha motor neuron.
b)The increased action potentials from the Golgi tendon organ caused increased firing of the gamma motor neuron innervating the biceps.
c)The increased contractions of the biceps brachii increased the firing of the neuron innervating the muscle spindle, which caused the muscle to relax.
d)The stimulation of the Golgi tendon organ increased action potentials in an inhibitory interneuron in the ventral horn of the spinal cord.
Answer:
a
Explanation:
what food chain and web component is a worm in
Which conditions must be regulated for the body to be stable and function properly? Check all that apply.
body mass
body temperature
amount of exercise
amount of water in the body
amount of sugar in the body
Answer:
Temperature
water
glucose or sugar
Explanation:
Temperature is required as without it metabolic reactions in the body would be impossible.
Water is a medium for most metabolic reactions. This is why cytoplasm is 70% water.
Glucose levels need to be maintained as the glucose present is to be used as energy by being broken down.
amount of sugar in the body, amount of water in the body, body temperature
Regulation of BodyThe ability of an organism to maintain a steady internal environment is referred to as regulation. Homeostasis is an essential feature of all living organisms. Maintaining a steady internal environment necessitates regular modifications as conditions within and outside the cell change. Homeostatic regulation refers to the process of regulating processes within a cell.The conditions which must be regulated for the body to be stable and function properly are amount of sugar in the body, amount of water in the body, body temperature.For more information:
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Which of the following statements about the anatomy of a mollusk are correct?
a. Gills are used for respiration.
b. Mollusks have a radula for grinding food.
c. The digestive system includes a gizzard, a stomach, a digestive gland, and the intestine.
d. The tissue beneath the shell is called the mantle.
The anatomy of mollusks can be stated by the presence of gills, which have gradual for grinding food and tissues beneath the shells are called a mantel.
What is a mollusk?A mollusk is an invertebrate organism and there exist about 85,000 extant species and a number of fossils range from 60,000 to 100,000. They represent the largest marine phylum and consist of 235 of the species.
The mollusks are the organism that has a soft body and the outer body has an exoskeleton that is hard.
Find out more information about the mollusk.
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While most statements about the anatomy of a mollusk are correct, the assertion that all mollusks' digestive systems include a gizzard is less accurate. Mollusks typically feature gills for respiration, a radula for grinding food, and a mantle beneath the shell, but a gizzard is not universal among them. Hence, the correct options are a, b and d.
The anatomy of a mollusk is quite complex and diverse across the different species within the phylum. However, looking at the common characteristics shared among most mollusks, we can address the statements provided:
Gills are indeed used for respiration, especially in aquatic mollusks. They allow for the exchange of gases between the mollusk's blood and the surrounding water.Most mollusks have a radula for grinding or scraping food. This unique structure functions somewhat like a tongue covered in tiny teeth and is not found in any other group of animals.The mantle is the tissue beneath the shell in many mollusks, playing a crucial role in shell secretion and protection of the mollusk’s soft body.Concerning the digestive system, it is accurate that it typically includes a stomach, a digestive gland (which aids in digestion and absorption), and the intestine. However, not all mollusks have a gizzard. This part of the statement can be misleading as gizzards are more common in birds for grinding food and might be present in some mollusks for the same purpose, but it's not a universal feature of the phylum.Which of the following landforms is much lower than the surrounding land?
A
plateau
B
hill
C
canyon
D
butte
Answer:
C. Canyon
Explanation:
Canyons are valleys made by rivers eroding away land around them, creating large cracks in the ground.
Trekian Fur is a dominant trait. Trekkies (on the planet Gomaz) from a pure-breeding population with the Trekian Fur gene are scored for their phenotypes. The two alleles at the Trekian Fur gene are T (dominant) and t (recessive).
80% of the Trekkies from this colony (genotype TT) have Trekian Fur; 20% of the Trekkies look wild-type.
Also, the penetrance of the Trekian Fur phenotype is 65% in the heterozygous Trekkies.
Pure breeding wild-type Trekkies (tt) show the Trekian Fur phenotype 10% of the time. Thus, the penetrance of Trekian Fur is 10% in homozygous wild-type Trekkies.
Problem: If two heterozygotes for the Trekian Fur gene (Tt x Tt) are crossed, what proportion of the offspring are expected to show the Trekian Fur phenotype?
A. 80%.
B. 55%.
C. 45%.
D. 50%.
E. 20%.
Answer:
B. 55%.
Explanation:
TT = 80percent progeny that exhibit Trekian fur phenotype
Tt = 65% progeny exhibit Trekian fur phenotype
tt = 10% progrny exhibit Trekian fur phenotye
parent cross ; TT x Tt
progeny ; TT Tt tt
TT = 25% ; percentage of progeny that exhibit Trekian fur phenotype = 25 x 0.8 = 20%
Tt = 50% ; percentage of progeny that exhibit Trekian fur phenotype = 50 x 0.65 = 32.5%
tt = 25% ; percentage of progeny that exhibit Trekian fur phenotype = 25 x 0.1 = 2.5%
Total = 20 + 32.5+ 2.5 = 55%
If skeletal muscles work to the point of fatigue, the muscle cells may not have sufficient oxygen to carry out aerobic respiration. What processes do muscle cells use if oxygen is not available for aerobic respiration? electron transport chain ethanol fermentation lactic acid fermentation glycolysis
Answer:
Lactic acid fermentation
Explanation:
Lactic acid fermentation is the process that is utilized by the cell to produce energy in the form of ATP. it is the process by which glucose and other six-carbon sugars and also some disaccharides are converted into energy and the metabolite lactate, which is lactic acid in solution.
Due to the absence of oxygen, this process converts 3-carbon pyruvate to the 3-carbon lactic acid in the cytoplasm producing NAD+, allowing glycolysis to continue to produce ATP in low-oxygen conditions. although accumulation of lactic acid can lead to cramps.
Answer:
Lactic acid fermentation
A strand of mRNA has the bases guanine-cytosine-uracil. Which amino acid
corresponds to these bases?
a. Crys
b. Arg
c. Alan
d. Ser
Answer:
See answer below
Explanation:
Hi there,
c. Ala (Alanine)
To get started, use the codon chart. Notice, the mRNA strand has a specific order in which bases are added. In this case, Guanine-Ctyosine-Uracil corresponds with G-C-U.
To read the codon chart, start off in the first position, which is G (blue row in picture). Next, to locate a specific box, look at the second position, which is C (orange column), and the specific box is located. At this point, a phenomena known as "wobbling" can happen. Wobbling is when there is redundancy in codon sequences where the same amino acid can still be produced, regardless of the third base.
The last nucleotide is U, which locates G-C-U, or Alanine.
thanks,
A strand of mRNA has the bases guanine-cytosine-uracil Aspartate or aspartic acid is an amino acid that corresponds to these bases.
how?
The amino acid that corresponds to each mRNA codon can be found in a table.Steps to determining the correct amino acid:Search the rows on the left side of the table for the first letter in the codon (here: G).Find the second letter (A in this case) in the columns. This limits the search to one cell in the table.To find the codon, look for the third letter (here: U) on the right side of the table (here: GAU). The amino acid abbreviation appears next to this codon (here: Asp).In this case, your mRNA codon is GAU (guanine-adenine-uracil), which corresponds to the Asp amino acid. This is aspartic acid.
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Challenges faced by parasites in their quest to inhabit a biotic environment
Answer:
Parasitists have to the body's immune system to establish parasitism, in addition to having to deal with the damage it does to the host organism.
Explanation:
Parasites are organisms that associate with living beings in an unequal relationship, where the parasite uses the vital resources of living beings for their survival, generating problems for the host organism.
As biotic environments where parasites can grow, we can mention plants and animals. For parasitism to be established, the parasite must face the immune defense system of these organisms, in addition to having to face the evils that are caused by parasitism, since the parasite needs the host to be alive for it to survive.
Answer:
Parasites must overcome host immune system.
Temperature.
Stable transmission.
Ability to attache to a host or find a suitable host.
Explanation:
Parasites are organisms that live Andy survive in a host. They feed on the host resources and in turn causing infection, harm, destruction or death of hosts.
Parasites faced challenges in their quest to inhabit biotic environment.
One of is the host immune system. Some host have strong immune system and can resist parasites invasion.
Temperature. The body temperature of some hosts is not suitable for the living conditions of the parasites.
Some parasites have face difficult challenges in have a stable transmission of disease.
Finding suitable host to survive is another challenges faced by parasites. Some parasites find it difficult to find suitable host.
Fermentation has a relatively low ATP yield compared to aerobic respiration because a. more reducing equivalents are used for anaerobic catabolism. b. less ATP is consumed during the first stage of aerobic catabolism. c. oxidative phosphorylation yields a lot of ATP. d. substrate-level phosphorylation yields a lot of ATP.
Answer:
c. Oxidative phosphorylation yields a lot of ATP
Explanation:
Fermentation is an anaerobic process that takes place in the anaerobic bacteria to produce an energy molecule called ATP. The process of fermentation involves the breakdown of the glucose through glycolysis which produces 2 ATP molecules, NADH and Pyruvate molecules.
The process does not undergo further steps like the Citric acid cycle and the oxidative phosphorylation which forms the high number of ATP molecules. Since the organism which performs the fermentation does not undergo oxidative phosphorylation therefore the yield of ATP in the cell is very less.
Thus, Option-C is correct.
The function of the umbilical cord is to carry blood and nutrients to the fetus and wastes back to the mother's blood stream.
True
False
Answer:
The answer is trueExplanation:
Answer:
true
Explanation:
Through the blood vessels in the umbilical cord, the fetus receives all the necessary nutrition, oxygen, and life support from the mother through the placenta. Waste products and carbon dioxide from the fetus are sent back through the umbilical cord and placenta to the mother's circulation to be eliminated.
What increases the rate of soil formation?
7. The increased levels of telomerase associated with many tumor cells likely promote cancer by: A) enhancing levels of DNA repair so that cells remain normal and have stable genomes and thus would be able to replicate their DNA and divide more often. B) promoting the efficiency of the spindle-assembly checkpoint. C) reducing the expression of several oncogenes. D) decreasing the number of epigenetic changes that would promote cancer. E) allowing cells to continue to divide when nor
Answer:
The increased levels of telomerase associated with many tumor cells likely promote cancer by E) allowing cells to continue to divide when normally chromosomes should shorten beyond a point where division would be no longer possible
Explanation:
Telomerase is an enzyme that enables cells to stay its genome and be healthy. Increased levels of telomerase allow cells to have more divisions and more mutations, having as a result incomplete information for cells, becoming them cancer cells. When it is possible to inhibit this enzyme, telomers get shorter and cancer cells might die.
Completed option E
allowing cells to continue to divide when normally chromosomes should shorten beyond a point where division would be no longer possible
Answer:
E
Explanation:
Telemerase is a reverse transcriptase enzymes that maintains the length of telemoeres. The later is a repetitive nucleotide sequence of a chromosomes that stabilizes the end of the chromosomes from deteriorating and possible fusion with adjacent chromosomes. its length decreases with each cell division, but replenished by enzymes telemerase.
Telomeres undergo division to protect the removal of the gene portion located ahead of them on the chromosomes.They are protected by protein Shelterin,
In Cancer cells, telemere length is increased thus cells undergo prolong cell division which leads to multiple cells production. Therefore if telomerase concentration is increased, the telomeres will be replenished after each cell division, by this enzyme. its length will increase, and consequently more tumor cells will be produced.
Which property of argon makes it useful for potassium-argon dating?
Answer:
C. It remains trapped in rock.
Explanation:
It is an unstable element. It remains trapped in rock.
5. Which is the first step of the scientific method?
Answer:
The first step in the Scientific Method is to make objective observations. These observations are based on specific events that have already happened and can be verified by others as true or false. Step 2. Form a hypothesis.
Explanation:
Answer: the first step is to make observations
What is the most common way of introducing recombinant DNA into bacterial cells?
Answer:
Transformation
Explanation:
Answer:
In humans, "unattached" earlobes are dominant over "attached" earlobes. Widow's-peak hairline is dominant over non-widow's-peak hairline. Use E and e for the earlobe phenotype alleles and W and w for the hairline phenotype alleles.
Explanation:
Cell mediated immunity uses what type of WBC to attack and kill the infected cell? _________________ _____________________ are released that cuase the cell to lyse or __________.
Answer:
Cell mediated immunity uses what type of WBC to attack and kill the infected cell? T-cells Helper T or Killer T cells are released that cause the cell to lyse or undergo apoptosis.Explanation:
White blood cells or leukocytes are integral to cell-mediated immune function in the human body. T cells are produced in bone marrow, and mature in the thymus. They recognize antigens on virus-infected cells and target them for attack; antigens and receptors fit together to allow for identification.
Helper T cells aid in activating other immune cells, along with eliminating cells infected by pathogens; they release cytokinesKiller T cells produce special toxins (perforins and then cytotoxins) that lead to cell lysis and programmed cell death or apoptosis.Cell-mediated immunity primarily uses Cytotoxic T cells to attack and destroy infected cells. They do this by releasing substances like Perforin and Granzymes which cause the infected cell to lyse or burst open.
Explanation:In cell-mediated immunity, the type of white blood cells (WBCs) that attack and destroy infected cells are primarily the Cytotoxic T cells. When an infection or disease is recognized, Cytotoxic T cells release specific substances like Perforin and Granzymes. These substances cause the infected cell to undergo a process called lysis - essentially bursting open and killing the cell to prevent the spread of the infection.
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The gene for petal color in a flower has incomplete dominance, so that individuals with two A1 alleles (A1A1) are black, individuals with two A2 alleles (A2A2) are white, and individuals with one of each allele (A1A2) are mottled. In a cross between two black flowers, what is the probability of getting a mottled offspring? (2
Answer:
The probability of getting a mottled offspring is 0%. There is no A2 allele involved in the cross.
Explanation:
Available data:
The gene for petal color in a flower has incomplete dominance Two A1 alleles (A1A1) express black colorTwo A2 alleles (A2A2) express white color One of each allele (A1A2) express mottled colorIn a cross between two black flowers, there is no allele A2, there are just two alleles A1. So, the cross is:
Parental) A1A1 x A1A1
Gametes) A1 A1 A1 A1
Punnet Square) A1 A1
A1 A1A1 A1A1
A1 A1A1 A1A1
F1 Phenotypes: 100% black flowers
F1 Genotype: 100% A1A1
There are 0% of probabilities of getting a mottled offspring.
Answer:
The probability is 0%.
Explanation:
We know that an individual with two A1 alleles (A1A1) are black, so if two black flowers are crossed that means two flowers with A1 (black)alleles, as these flowers do not have any A2 allele to give a mottled flower, the only type of flower that will come out from this cross is a black one.
We can see this with a Punnett square.
║A1 ║ A1
A1║ A1A1 ║ A1A1
A1║ A1A1 ║ A1A1
Daphnia longicephala is a freshwater crustacean that can detect chemical cues produced by the predator Notonecta glauca. Researchers raised Daphnia clones and observed that those exposed to Notonecta chemical cues during their development produced larger protective crests, as described in Figures 1 and 2. Crest height and width are measured as ratios to body length. The increase in the size of the crest width and height is not associated with a corresponding change to the Daphnia’s genome. Researchers hypothesize that growing a crest is energetically costly, so Daphnia do not develop the large crests in the absence of Notonecta.
QUESTION: As a follow‑up experiment, researchers placed the Daphnia that were exposed to the Notonecta chemical cues into a tank without chemical cues. The Daphnia reproduced asexually, and the offspring developed in the tank without chemical cues. Predict the relative size of the crest height and width of offspring raised in the tank without chemical cues as compared to the parent Daphnia and justify.
Answer:
Check the explanation
Explanation:
⇒Whenever there’s a presence of Notonecta chemical cues there will be a change of epigenetic in the Daphnia genome due to which we are expected to observe differential gene expression in Daphnia in the presence of Notonecta chemical cues. This particular differential gene expression will overtime result to the development of higher and wider/larger crests.
⇒The comparative volume of the crest height and offspring width that was raised in tank without chemical cues is expected to be smaller as compared to the parent Daphnia.
⇒ A wider and higher crests are the outcome of the changes in epigenetic which are triggered by the presence of chemical cues. Since there will be no presence of these cues in the tank, these epigenetic changes will not be seen in offsprings as a result of the fact that there will be normal gene expression producing normal crest height and width.
The process of Transcription occurs in the ___ and involves the copying of _____. This copied information will then be _____ in the cytoplasm to create a _____, which is composed of smaller building blocks called _____. During translation, individual ____are attached to one another via _____. As the protein strand gets larger and leaves the ribosome, it begins to fold into the first phase of its 3-dimensional structure (secondary structure). _____ give rise to the protein's secondary structure. In the tertiary/quaternary structure of a protein, _____ amino acids are typically found towards the center of the structure, while ____are found towards the outside of the protein, facing the watery environment of the cell.
Word bank:
protein, covalent bond, hydrophobic, translated, amino acids, a portion of genome, hydrogen bonds, cytoplasm, the entire genome, transcribed again, hydrophilic, half the genome, mRNA strand, nucleus, replicated, nucleotides
Answer:
The process of Transcription occurs in the nucleus and involves the copying of a portion of the genome. This copied information will then be translated in the cytoplasm to create a protein, which is composed of smaller building blocks called amino acids. During translation, individual amino acids are attached to one another via covalent bond. As the protein strand gets larger and leaves the ribosome, it begins to fold into the first phase of its 3-dimensional structure (secondary structure). Hydrogen bonds give rise to the protein's secondary structure. In the tertiary/quaternary structure of a protein, hydrophobic amino acids are typically found towards the center of the structure, while hydrophilic are found towards the outside of the protein, facing the watery environment of the cell.
Explanation:
Transcription is a process that happens in the nucleus in order to create an mRNA strand from a specific gene, which will then be translated into a protein. For transcription to happen, a protein called RNA Polymerase will take the DNA molecule and use one of its strands to synthesize its complementary strand. This newly synthesized RNA strand will suffer some modifications to become a mature mRNA strand.
The mature mRNA strand will leave the nucleus and be taken by a ribosome in the cytoplasm to start Translation - the process in which proteins are synthesized. During translation, each codon (composed by a sequence of 3 nucleotides) in the mRNA will code for one of the 20 possible amino acids. These amino acids are carried to the ribosome by the tRNA, and are linked with one another by peptide bonds, which is a type of covalent bond. The peptide bonds give rise to the primary structure of a protein. The secondary structure happens thanks to the hydrogen bonds. In the third and quaternary structure of a protein, which turns them into a three-dimensional macromolecule, the hydrophobic amino acids will locate in the center of the structure so they don't have to be in contact with water, while the hydrophilic amino acids remain on the peripheric sides of the protein.
The process of transcription occurs in the nucleus and involves the copying of a portion of the genome. This copied information will then be translated into the cytoplasm to create a protein, which is composed of smaller building blocks called amino acids. During translation, individual amino acids are attached to one another via a covalent bond. As the protein strand gets larger and leaves the ribosome, it begins to fold into the first phase of its 3-dimensional structure (secondary structure). Hydrogen bonds give rise to the protein's secondary structure. In the tertiary/quaternary structure of a protein, hydrophobic amino acids are typically found towards the center of the structure, while hydrophilic are found towards the outside of the protein, facing the watery environment of the cell.
It should be noted that transcription occurs in the nucleus to create an mRNA strand from a specific gene, which will then be translated into a protein.
For transcription to take place, a protein called RNA Polymerase will take the DNA molecule to synthesize its complementary strand.
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Overlearning information hinders deep processing. Please select the best answer from the choices provided T F
Answer:
False
Explanation:
As per the levels of processing, the deep processing of information leads to long-term memory.
In order to remember a piece of information, a person must think about it more deeply (over learning) and must link it with memories in order to make it more meaningful.
However, interference lead to forgetting in long term memory when recalling is interfered.
Hence, the given statement is false