Answer:
Reabsorption is the process by which the nephron, once it filters the blood and passes to the different tubules of the kidney, returns and reabsorbs some elements that are not eliminated in the urine. In general, what is most reabsorbed is water.
The renal secretion is the elimination through the glomerulo and tubes, of some solutes and components of the blood that the organism does not need.
Answer:
The nephron is the basic functional unit of the kidney responsible for urine formation. Urine is formed from the filtration of blood that passes inside the nephrons. Briefly, we can say that the process of urine formation occurs in three stages: filtration, resorption and secretion.
Explanation:
Initially arterial blood arrives under high pressure in the glomerulus capillaries. At this point, the pressure causes some of the plasma to flow out into Bowman's capsule. This plasma passage is known as filtration. The filtrate formed is very similar to plasma inside the blood vessels, however it has no proteins or blood cells.
The material from the filtration proceeds to the renal tubules, where resorption occurs. At this stage, important substances that should not be missed are reabsorbed. Almost 99% of the filtered water in the corpuscle, for example, is absorbed. Major resorption is also found for glucose and amino acids.
In the proximal tubule most of the reabsorption of water and sodium occurs, two substances essential for the functioning of the body. It is estimated that about 67% to 80% Na + ions and water are absorbed from the filtrate at this stage. In Henle's loop and distal tubule, substances are also reabsorbed.
In addition to resorption, secretion occurs in the renal tubule, which is a process opposite to resorption. In secretion, the substances present in the capillaries are released into the renal tubule, which ensures their elimination through the urine. Toxic metabolism substances and drugs, for example, are excreted in the proximal tubule.
At the end of these three steps we have urine formed. Thus, we can say that the urine is the product formed by the glomerular filtrate, removing what was reabsorbed and adding what was secreted.
Which of the following is the MOST common source of thermal injury to a patient during surgery?
A. harmonic scalpel
B. ligasure
C. lasers
D. electrosurgical unit
Answer:
The answer is D electrosurgical unit
Explanation:
Electrosurgical units work by converting electrical energy into heat which is used to cut or eliminate tissues, and it also serves to coagulate bleeding tissues. It has the risk of producing burns in patients of different degrees of intensity.
"The correct answer is D. electrosurgical unit.
An electrosurgical unit (ESU) is the most common source of thermal injury to a patient during surgery. This is because ESUs are widely used in various surgical procedures for cutting, coagulation, and fulguration. The high-frequency electrical current used in ESUs can cause unintended burns if it comes into contact with tissues other than the targeted ones, especially if there is an issue with the grounding pad or if the active electrode is not properly managed.
In contrast, harmonic scalpels (A) use ultrasonic energy to cut and coagulate tissue, which generally results in less thermal spread compared to electrosurgery. Ligasure (B) is a vessel sealing system that uses a unique combination of pressure and bipolar energy to permanently fuse vessels, and it is designed to minimize thermal injury to surrounding tissues. Lasers (C) are also used in surgery but are less common than ESUs and are typically used in more specialized procedures where precision is critical, such as ophthalmology or dermatology. Lasers can cause thermal injury, but due to their more specialized use, they are not the most common source of such injuries in surgery.
Therefore, due to its widespread use and the nature of its operation, the electrosurgical unit is the most common source of thermal injury during surgical procedures."
The bone that connects the manubrium to the scapula.
Answer:
Clavicle.
Explanation:
Causes of metabolic alkalosis include all of the following except?
A. Mineralocorticoid in excess
B. Hypokalemia
C. Recurrent diarrhea
D. all of the choices apply
Answer:
B. Hypokalemia
Explanation:
symptoms and signs of mild alkalemia are usually related to the underlying disorder. More severe alkalemia increases protein binding of ionized calcium, leading to hypocalcemia and subsequent headache, lethargy, and neuromuscular excitability, sometimes with delirium, tetany, and seizures. Alkalemia also lowers threshold for anginal symptoms and arrhythmias. Concomitant hypokalemia may cause weakness.
In conditions of metabolic alkalosis, mineralocorticoid excess and hypokalemia can be contributing factors. On the other hand, recurrent diarrhea typically leads to metabolic acidosis, not alkalosis, due to the loss of bicarbonate from the body. Hence, the exception among the provided options is recurrent diarrhea.
Explanation:The condition described in this question is metabolic alkalosis, an alkalinization of the blood due to metabolic processes. Among the options, A. Mineralocorticoid in excess and B. Hypokalemia can indeed contribute to metabolic alkalosis. Mineralocorticoid excess leads to increased renal absorption of sodium and loss of hydrogen and potassium ions, which contributes to the alkalinization of the blood. Hypokalemia, or low potassium levels, can also contribute to metabolic alkalosis as hydrogen ions move into cells in exchange for potassium, decreasing the acidity of the blood. However, C. Recurrent diarrhea is not a typical cause of metabolic alkalosis; instead, it commonly causes metabolic acidosis because of bicarbonate loss from the body and the compensatory increase in acid products. Thus, the answer is C. Recurrent diarrhea.
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One function of the immune system is to attack the foreign cells to protect the body. In organ transplants, how does the immune system usually reacts with the transplanted organ?
Answer:
The immune system of a transplant recipient recognizes this as a foreign agent and activates its defense mechanism against it. The antigens present in the transplanted organ are detected by the recipient organism, as different or not compatible, which will cause a reaction or rejection, activating an immune response. These rejections can be acute or chronic depending on how strange or compatible the transplant is for the recipient.
Answer:
Explanation:The immune system of a transplant recipient recognizes this as a foreign agent and activates its defense mechanism against it. This starts to slowly destroy the organ. to help prevent this, doctors usually give you immunosuppressant (anti-rejection) drugs. These drugs help prevent your immune system from attacking ("rejecting") the donor organ. Typically, they must be taken for the lifetime of your transplanted organ.
Describe babinski's sign. Is this normal in an adult?
Answer:
When performing a neurological assessment, especially of whether or not there is a spinal cord lesion, there is one reflex that is easy to test, and which will tell medical professionals if there is a damage to the central nervous system, or not. This test is called the Plantar Reflex. Essentially, when the later side of the sole of the foot is stimulated with a blunt object, from heel to metatarsal pads, in adults, there are two expected results, the first, the foot curving inwards with the full toes towards the point of pressure, or, there is no response from the foot to the stimulus. However, there is a third possible response, which is pathological, and it is known as the Babinsky sign, in honor of neurologist Joseph Babinsky.
The Babinsky sign, then, which is an abnormal response, and if present, it is called a positive Babinsky sign, is defined as the motor response of the foot to stimulus of the sole by extending outwards, with the big toe fully extended upwards, while the other toes fan out.
When this sign appears in adults, it indicates a damage to the nerves of the spinal cord, or the brain.
The burden of proof in a lawsuit alleging professional negligence requires that:
a. a duty to the patient existed
b. care was given only by registered professional nurses.
c. the injuries were caused by the patient's failure to follow procedures.
d. the patient's injuries occurred only after his discharge.
Answer:
d. the patient's injuries occurred only after his discharge.
Explanation:
The burden of proof in a lawsuit alleging professional negligence requires that, the patient's injuries occurred only after his discharge.
This means that, the proffesionals had no wrong doing because the patient sustained injuries after being discharged from the hospital.
What initiates the defecation reflex?
Answer:
The chyme, which is already a fecal bolus formed produces an involuntary stimulus reaching the colon that cause the defecation; The first step is the relaxation of the internal sphincter through the sacral nerve (involuntary), and then voluntarily the cerebral cortex through the pudendal nerves that relax the external sphincter.
The membrane surrounding a bone is the ___________.
Answer:
Hola! my name is Marissa and i am here to help!:)
the answer to your question is periosteum!
Explanation:
the periosteum is the membrane that surrounds the bone (when the bone shatters this layers can help prevent the shards going elsewhere)
brainliest?
Rubeola is a type of measles that typically lasts:
A. 1 day.
B. 1 to 3 days.
C. 5 days.
D. 7 days.
Answer:
The correct option is D. 7 days.
Explanation:
Rubeola is a highly infectious disease caused by the measles virus. It is a highly contagious disease and can be easily transmitted to other human beings through air.
In this infection, symptoms are seen usually experienced 2 weeks after the exposure to the virus. The symptoms include cold, cough, fever, inflammation of eyes etc. 3-5 days after the start of symptoms, a red rash generally appears on the face and then spreads on the body.
Therefore, the Rubeola disease typically lasts for about 7- 10 days.
The two hormones secreted by the pancreas that regulate blood sugar levels are ___________ and ___________.
Answer:
Insuline and glucagon
Explanation:
Insuline is produced in the beta cells when the carbohydrates levels rise in plasma so they can be transported to other cells that need the glucose.
The glucagon is produced in the alpha cells in the islets of langerhans, the glucagon raises the glucose levels in the bloodstream when it is needed so the glucagon promotes the gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis, this hormone is catabolic meanwhile the insule is an anabolic hormone
Medial bone of the forearm.
Answer:
Ulna
Explanation:
The are two primary bones in the forearm: the radius and the ulna. The radius is on the lateral side of the forearm and the ulna on the medial side.
The ulna is a long bone that stretches from the elbow to the smallest finger, it narrows when it approaches the wrist.
The ulna forms part of the wrist joint and the elbow joint.
If the ulna is fractured, a cast that runs along the forearm is applied till the bone regrows together again.
Describe the function of erectile tissue in the male reproductive system, and how is it supplied with blood.
Erectile tissue such as the corpora cavernosa and corpus spongiosum in the male genitalia becomes filled with blood during sexual arousal, causing an erection necessary for sexual intercourse. Testosterone production is regulated by a negative feedback loop involving the testes and endocrine system, and is crucial for male sexual functions.
Explanation:The function of erectile tissue in the male reproductive system is to enable penile erection, which is crucial for sexual intercourse. The erectile tissue, which includes the corpora cavernosa and corpus spongiosum, becomes engorged with blood upon sexual arousal. This engorgement occurs due to the dilation of arteries supplying blood to the male genitalia, and the subsequent compression of veins that would normally carry blood away, leading to an accumulation of blood within the erectile tissue.
Testosterone plays a vital role in maintaining the sex organs and sex drive, and is produced in a controlled manner by the testes and endocrine system via a negative feedback loop. Leydig cells in the testes secrete testosterone under the influence of luteinizing hormone (LH) from the pituitary gland, which is essential for sexual development and maintaining normal spermatogenesis after puberty.
Where can you find the following?
a. costal cartilage
b. bones
c. articular cartilage
d. fibrocartilage of IVD
e. epiphyseal plate
Answer:
a. costal cartilage - at the anterior ends of the ribs.
b. bones - complete skeletal system.
c. articular cartilage - covers the ends of bones at joints.
d. fibrocartilage of IVD - the annulus fibrosus of intervertebral discs
e. epiphyseal plate- in a long immature bones
Explanation:
The costal cartilages are spokes of hyaline cartilage that help to extend the ribs forward and assist in the elasticity of the walls of the thoracic cage. It is found at the anterior or front ends of the ribs.
Thus, costal cartilage - at the anterior ends of the ribs.
The human skeletal system made up of 206 bones all over the body, as well as a network of ligaments, tendons, and cartilage that connects them.
Thus, bones - complete skeletal system.
Articular cartilage covers the ends of bones where they assemble to form joints.
Thus, articular cartilage - covers the ends of bones at joints.
Fibrocartilage is A very strong tissue present in predominantly in the IVD or intervertebral disks. It attaches soft tissue-to-bone attachments.
Thus, fibrocartilage of IVD - the annulus fibrosus of intervertebral discs
The epiphyseal plate is the region of growth in a long bone that is present in immature bones.
Thus, epiphyseal plate- in a long immature bones
Influenza C is rarely included in vaccine for prevention because:
A. There is no ability to form antibodies.
B. The system are the same as the common cold.
C. It is not spread the same as A or B.
D. It only affects persons who are immunocompromised.
Answer:
The correct answer is option C.
Explanation:
Influenza C virus is the member of genus Influenzavirus C which causes influenza just like other influenza viruses. These viruses are known to infect pigs and humans. Type C species caused flu is rare in comparison to Types A or B.
Other common influenza viruses A and B also cause seasonal infestation every year because of their ability to shift antigenicity. Influenza virus C does not have this ability to antigenic shift and not considered as a concerned threat to human health. Because of this, it is rarely included in vaccinations against influenza virus C.
Thus, the correct answer is option C.
The relatively high pressure in the glomerulus is related to the fact that the
a. afferent arteriole is part of the systemic arterial circulation.
b. efferent arteriole is larger in diameter that the afferent arteriole.
c. glomerulus has constricted capillaries.
d. afferent arteriole has a larger diameter than the efferent arteriole.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option D.
Explanation:
The glomerulus is a small tuft like structure formed by the clusters of the small capillaries in around the end of kidney tubule.
The glomerulus plays an important role in the formation of urine as it filters the blood in the kidney. The filtration rate of glomerulus depends on the glomerulus pressure which is measured generally high due to the size difference of the arterioles that brings the blood to the kidney and that takes the blood from the kidney that is afferent arteriole and efferent arteriole.
The smaller diameter of the efferent arteriole causes the resistance to blood flow which produces the blood to be retained in the glomerulus which creates high pressure in the glomerular cavity.
Thus, option D is the correct answer.
Syphilis can only be spread during stages one and two.
a) True b) False
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: Syphilis can only be spread during stages 1 and 2, would be: false.
Explanation:
Syphilis is a sexually transmittable disease caused by a bacteria. I can only be gotten through sexual activity, or contact with the body fluids or lessions of someone infected, but in order for this contagion to be possible, the person must either be in the initial, or stage 1 of the infection, stage 2 of the infection, or if they are in a stage called the latent stage. This latter, the latent stage, is usually the more dangerous because people don´t tend to show signs, or symptoms of it, which does not mean that the infection is not there. So, in general, there would be really three, out of the four, stages, during which syphilis can be spread to others, and not just the two initial ones. This is why the statement is false.
A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record of a client who reports having a dry productive cough for the past 2 weeks. Which of the following medications should the nurse report to the provider?
a. Furosemide
b. Lisinopril
c. Diltiazem
d. Metoprolol
Answer: b. Lisinopril
Explanation: Lisinopril is a medication used to treat diseases like high blood pressure. It is part of a group of medications called by its mechanism of action as ANGIOTENSIN-CONVERTING-ENZYME INHIBITORS (ACE inhibitors), along with Captopril, Cilazapril, Enalapril, Fosinopril, among others. One of the most common side effects is dry cough, that could appear since, one week after beginning the treatment or even six weeks later. The cough does not respond to any treatment, except if the medication is stopped.
The Furosemide, Diltiazem, and Metoprolol do not have dry cough described as a side effect. Furosemide: electrolyte disturbances (of calcium, magnesium, sodium). Diltiazem: Dizziness, headache, diarrhea. Metoprolol: Bradichardia, gastrointestinal symptoms.
Temporalis is named for the origin of the muscle, what does it do?
a. shapes the lips during speech
b. draws the angle of the mouth up as in smiling
c. elevates and retracts the mandible
d. Temporalis does all of the above actions
Answer:
The correct option is : c. elevates and retracts the mandible
Explanation:
The temporalis muscle or the temporal muscle, is one of the muscles that are involved in the process of mastication or chewing. It is a fan-shaped and broad muscle which belongs to the group of chewing – lower mandible.
Mandible is the lower jaw or the jawbone, is a very strong and the largest bone in the human face.
The main function of the temporalis muscle is the elevation and the refraction of the mandible.
Which of the choices below is not a factor that promotes oxygen binding to and dissociation from hemoglobin?
a. partial pressure of oxygen
b. temperature
c. partial pressure of carbon dioxide
d. number of red blood cells
The number of red blood cells does not promote oxygen binding to and dissociation from hemoglobin. Factors like the partial pressure of oxygen, temperature, and the partial pressure of carbon dioxide influence this process, but the number of red blood cells simply affects the volume of blood and its oxygen-carrying capacity.
Explanation:The factor among those listed that does not promote oxygen binding to and dissociation from hemoglobin is the number of red blood cells. Hemoglobin is a protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen. Factors like the partial pressure of oxygen, temperature, and the partial pressure of carbon dioxide influence the ability of oxygen to bind and unbind from hemoglobin because they affect the affinity, or attraction, of hemoglobin to oxygen. Meanwhile, the number of red blood cells affects the volume of blood itself and the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, but not the binding and dissociation process of oxygen with hemoglobin.
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Define and differentiate Central nervous system vs peripheral nervous system
Answer:
Central nervous system is comprised of brain and spinal cord. Various sorts of sensory information are integrated and correlated within the central nervous system. In central nervous system, thoughts and emotions are generated and memories our farm and stored.
Peripheral nervous system is comprised of cranial nerves that are arising from the brain and the spinal nerves that are arising from the spinal cord
Explanation:
The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord, controlling most functions of the body and mind, while the peripheral nervous system is the network that sends signals between the central nervous system and the limbs and organs, essentially enabling communication with the rest of the body.
Explanation:Central Nervous System (CNS) vs. Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)
The central nervous system (CNS) comprises the brain and spinal cord, serving as the control center for processing information and directing responses. Enclosed within the cranial and vertebral cavities, the CNS functions as the power plant, orchestrating complex neural functions and overall bodily coordination.
The peripheral nervous system (PNS), in contrast, acts as the wiring that connects the CNS to the muscles, organs, and senses spread throughout the body. It includes thick bundles of axons called nerves, carrying messages to and from the CNS. The PNS is further divided into the somatic nervous system, which manages voluntary movements, and the autonomic nervous system, controlling involuntary actions.
The Corpus Callosum is made up of which of the following structures?
A) projection fibers
B) arcuate fibers
C) longitudinal fibers
D) commissural fibers
Answer:
( D ) Commissural fibers
Explanation:
The Corpus callosum also known as callosal commissure , is a thick band of the nerve fibers, which is responsible for the distribution of the cerebral cortex into two halves ,i.e., left and right hemisphere , the corpus callosum , consists of a flat bundle of commissural fibers.
The corpus callosum transfers sensory, and cognitive information between the brain hemispheres.
Describe the four tissue types comparing and contrasting their tissue structure and function.
Answer:
The four tissue present in the body are epithelial tissue, connective tissue, muscle tissue and nervous tissue.
Explanation:
Epithelial tissue:
Epithelial tissue is made up of single or several layers of epithelial cells. These tissue are present around the lining of esophagus, mouth, respiratory tract and urinary bladder. The main function of epithelial tissue is diffusion, secretion and protection of the organism.
Connective tissue:
The main connective tissue of the body is blood, tendons and ligament. Connective tissue mainly consists of fibers and ground substance. The blood helps in transportation of the substances. Tendons and ligaments helps in the connection of bones and cartilage.
Muscle tissue:
Muscle tissue mainly composed of the contractile protein like actin, myosin, tropomyosin and troponin. The main function of the muscle tissue is the movement and contraction of the muscles.
Nervous tissue:
Nervous tissue mainly composed of the dendrites, cell body, axon and axon terminals. The main function of nervous tissue is the propagation of action potential and response towards the external and internal stimuli of the body.
What are the products of the process of cellular respiration? Which of the products is the ultimate source of energy for the cell?
Answer:
the products of cellular respiration are 6CO2, 6H2O, and ATP. ATP is the ultimate source of energy for the cell
Explanation:
All of the following are associated to the respiration of the elderly except:
a. decreased lung compliance
b. increased airway resistance
c. decreased vital capacity
d. increased alveolar macrophage activity
e. increased susceptibility to respiratory infection
Answer:
The answer is D: Increased alveolar macrophage activity.
Explanation:
The respiratory system of the elderly is a system that has lost a lot of elasticity (including the alveoli). The thoracic wall becomes stiff. There is a decrease in lung capacity (vital capacity). Decrease in blood concentration of O2. Reduction of alveolar macrophages, being susceptible to infectious processes.
Explain what factors can affect blood pressure?
Answer:
These factors can be obesity; diabetes; stress; insufficient intake of potassium, calcium, and magnesium; lack of physical activity; and chronic alcohol consumption.
Explanation:
Where within the GI tract does protein digestion begin? Where is protein digestion completed?
Answer:
Pepsins are digestive enzymes of the stomach. These enzymes are the ones that begin the digestion of the proteins giving rise there initially to the formation of polypeptides, oligopeptides and some amino acids.
The digestion of proteins is completed in the small intestine.
Final answer:
Protein digestion starts in the stomach with HCl and pepsin breaking down proteins into polypeptides. The process is completed in the small intestine with several enzymes converting polypeptides into amino acids.
Explanation:
The digestion of proteins begins in the stomach, where hydrochloric acid (HCl) and the enzyme pepsin start the breakdown of proteins into smaller chains called polypeptides. This initial stage involves the hydrolysis of protein linkages, which is the process of breaking the bonds within protein molecules through the addition of water facilitated by gastric juices. Following this, the digestion of proteins is completed in the small intestine, where a host of enzymes from the pancreas, such as chymotrypsin and trypsin, as well as enzymes from the intestinal lining, including aminopeptidase and dipeptidase, further break down polypeptides into amino acids. These amino acids are then small enough to be absorbed into the bloodstream, providing the body with the necessary components for various physiological functions.
Which parts of your body have the highest density of touch receptors? What benefis may be derived from that fact?
Answer and Explanation:
when we talk about the touch receptors the face has the highest density of touch receptors and on second number finger tips has the second highest density of touch receptors
BENEFITS :
easy in temperature sensing used to identifying objects the information which is related to sensing can be easily given by highest touch receptorsThe fingertips and lips have the highest density of touch receptors because of the glabrous skin, which is more sensitive and permits greater touch precision. This helps with activities requiring fine motor skills and detail perception. Receptor density can be established using the two-point discrimination test.
Explanation:The parts of your body with the highest density of touch receptors are the fingertips and lips, which feature glabrous skin. This type of skin is more sensitive and thicker compared to hairy skin, with a thickness ranging from 4 to 5 mm versus 2 to 3 mm for hairy skin. The high density of mechanoreceptors in these areas allows for a more precise perception of touch, beneficial for tasks requiring fine motor skills, such as writing, playing musical instruments, or reading Braille.
To estimate receptor density, a common method used is the two-point discrimination test. This test involves using tools like dividers or thumbtacks to touch the skin in two points simultaneously. If the subject can feel two separate points rather than one, it suggests a high density of touch receptors in that area of the skin.
The benefits of having a high density of touch receptors in certain areas include enhanced sensitivity and the ability to perceive fine details through touch. This is crucial for differentiating textures, shapes, and pressure, which helps in many activities in our daily life and professional tasks.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV amphotericin B. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an acute infusion reaction?
a. Dry cough
b. Fever
c. Hyperglycemia
d. Pedal edema
Answer:
im say b second choice it's wild guess
A nurse caring for a client receiving IV amphotericin B should identify fever as an acute infusion reaction. Hence the correct answer is b.
Amphotericin B can cause flu-like symptoms, including fever and chills, as part of an acute infusion reaction.
Which of the conditions would be most likely to cause a decrease in core temperature?
A. Increased thyroxine secretion
B. decreased T4 secretion
C. increase epinephrine secretion
D. Peripheral vasoconstriction
Answer:
B. decreased T4 secretion
Explanation:
T4 (thyroxine) is amino acid derived hormone, synthesized and secreted by thyroid gland. The main function of T4 hormone is to regulate body metabolism.
Thyroid hormones are also responsible for temperature regulation as increased T4 secretion increases temperature of body by increasing metabolism. Under hypothyroidism (decreased secretion of T4) leads to decrease in body temperature.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
The liver converts amino acids into products that can be used or removed as waste. Amino acids are necessary for the synthesis of _______________.
Answer:
Answer to the question:
Explanation:
The liver converts amino acids into products that can be used or removed as waste. Amino acids are necessary for the synthesis of proteins.
Answer:
Your answer is proteins
Explanation:
hope this help you with your question