Answer:
The correct answer is: Zone of proximal development
Explanation:
Zone of proximal development is the concept developed by the Soviet psychologist, Lev Vygotsky.
It is described as the cognitive, emotional, and volitional psychological development of children. Therefore, this zone is defined as the distance between the ability of the children to perform certain activities without help and perform other tasks with the help and support of a knowledgeable adult.
Therefore, according to Vygotsky, it is the zone of proximal development.
What is a sign that a person may need help for a mental disorder? A) experiencing sudden changes in sleep patterns. B) experiencing sudden changes in the type of food he or she likes to eat. C) becoming interested in different activities at school. D) getting better grades than normal
The family of a 68-year-old man who is in the end stages ofsmall cell lung cancer is distraught at his visible body wasting that has worsened in recent weeks. Which of the following phenomena best accounts for the patient's anorexia and cachexia?
- Inadequate cellular metabolism of glucose results from tumor factors
- High fat losses coupled with preservation of muscle mass exaggerate the appearance of wasting
- Products of the tumor itself as well as a hypermetabolic state cause cachexia
- Inadequate food intake due to symptoms and treatment results in loss of both muscle and fat
Answer:
- Products of the tumor itself as well as a hypermetabolic state cause cachexia
Explanation:
Lung cancer is a tumor characterized by the breakdown of the lung's natural cellular mechanisms from carcinogenic stimuli over the years, leading to disorganized growth of malignant cells. One of the most striking symptoms of lung cancer is rapid weight loss and appetite this causes the extreme weight loss in the patient that is caused by the tumor's own products and the hypermetabolic state causing cachexia.
The nursing instructor is teaching students about Alzheimer's disease. The instructor informs the students that clients with this illness experience problems with memory and thinking. The reason that this happens is which?
Answer:
Hippocampus cells get damaged.
Explanation:
This cells are associated with learning, they are the first damaged. So, in some way, learning stops. When these cells continue damaging, the information allocated is slowly lost.
The nurse is evaluating the coping skills of a client with a diagnosis of depression. Which statement indicates to the nurse the need to help the client learn and appropriately use these skills?
Answer:
"I won't ever be depressed again."
Explanation:
Depression is a chronic and often recurrent psychiatric disorder that produces a mood change characterized by profound, endless sadness associated with feelings of pain, bitterness, disenchantment, hopelessness, low self-esteem, and guilt, as well as disturbance. of sleep and appetite. During treatment of a depressed patient, it is important that the patient be informed and understand about the disease. The patient must understand that because of his recurring character he may become depressed again and again during the day, this does not mean that the treatment is not working, nor does it mean that the patient will never have moments of happiness again.
Fraternal twins are no more genetically similar than nontwin siblings, yet the IQs of fraternal twins are more strongly correlated than those of nontwin brothers and sisters. What explanations can you think of for this difference?
Final answer:
The correlation between the IQs of fraternal twins and non-twin siblings can be explained by different upbringing, sample size, and the possibility of misidentification.
Explanation:
The difference in the correlation of IQs between fraternal twins and non-twin siblings can be explained by multiple factors:
Different upbringing: Fraternal twins are often raised in different ways, which can result in variations in their intellectual development.
Possibility of misidentification: In some cases, twins that were believed to be fraternal may actually be identical, which can explain the stronger correlation between their IQs.
Sample size: The sample sizes used in studies comparing the IQs of twins and non-twin siblings are often small, which can lead to variations in the results.
Jacoby's mother had schizophrenia, and so Jacoby was raised by his grandparents. Now, at age 22, Jacoby is experiencing severe stress due to his new job and his grandfather's unexpected death. He is beginning to display symptoms of schizophrenia. The manifestation of these symptoms is best explained by which of the following developmental concept:
Answer:
Diathesis-stress model.
Explanation:
Diathesis-stress model may be defined as the psychological theory that are used to explain any disorder or the stress of the individual. Diathesis has been derived fro the greek word that means sensibility.
Jacoby experiences stress that can be measured by the diathesis-stress model. The symptoms of his schizophrenia and its symptoms can be easily diagnosed by the the diathesis-stress model. This model can be used to express the stress of the individual.
Thus, the answer is the diathesis-stress model.
A small-for-gestational-age (SGA) newborn has just been admitted to the nursery. Nursing assessment reveals a high-pitched cry, jitteriness, and irregular respirations. With which condition are these signs associated?a. Hypervolemia
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Hypercalcemia
d. Hypothyroidism
Answer:
The correct option is: b. Hypoglycemia
Explanation:
Hypoglycemia is a medical condition that is characterized by low blood sugar levels in the body.
The SGA infants may exhibit hypoglycemia, characterized by blood sugar level lower than 2.2 or 3.3 mmol/L. Some of the symptoms shown by an infant with hypoglycemia are jitters, respiratory distress, sweating, seizures, irritability, cyanosis, refusal to feed, high-pitched cry and somnolence.
Therefore, the given symptoms are associated with Hypoglycemia.
The benefits of a brain's plasticity are easily seen in:
a. children who have portions of their damaged brain surgically removed
b. veterans paralyzed by a severed spinal cord
c. children with aphasia
d. people able to speak multiple languages
e. people without brain damage
Answer:
a. children who have portions of their damaged brain surgically removed
Explanation:
Brain Plasticity refers to the ability of the brain to change throughout life. It is the adaptive capacity of the CNS (Central Nervous System), is the ability to modify the structural and functional organization in response to experiences (environmental stimuli). The human brain has the incredible ability to "self-reorganize" through new connections between nerve cells, called neurons. Plasticity is of great benefit to children who have had to surgically remove an injured part of the brain, because their brain will reorganize and lessen the side effects that the surgery may have caused.
Brain plasticity can be observed in all the given cases, particularly in individuals who had a part of their brain removed but still maintain or regain cognitive abilities. Other examples include paralyzed veterans who regain abilities through rehabilitation, multilingual individuals, and people learning new skills.
Explanation:The benefits of a brain's plasticity can be easily observed in all the options mentioned above. However, strong empirical evidence of this phenomenon comes from cases like children who have had portions of their damaged brain surgically removed, but managed to maintain or regain their cognitive abilities. Brain plasticity is also seen in veterans paralyzed by a severed spinal cord who regain physical abilities through rehabilitation, children with aphasia who improve language function, and in anyone capable of learning multiple languages, an ability which requires the brain to adapt and reorganize neuronal networks.
Furthermore, learning in general, represented by the ability of a person without brain damage to learn and acquire new skills, is a fundamental example of the plastic nature of the brain. Hence, while every option reflects a case of brain plasticity, the most striking examples are typically seen following damage or injury to the brain, where the remaining healthy sections compensate for the lost or damaged areas.
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The main function of vitamin D is to promotea.
a. calcium and phosphorus absorption, and calcium mobilization from bone.
b.synthesis of carotenoids and controls absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.
c.conversion of calcium and phosphorus to more readily absorbable compounds.
d.secretion of calcitonin. e.synthesis of dehydrocholesterol.
Answer:
a. calcium and phosphorus absorption, and calcium mobilization from bone.
Explanation:
Vitamin D is a fat soluble vitamin. It is present in very few foods and also synthesized when skin is exposed to sun's ultra violet rays. In humans, the most important forms of Vitamin D are D3 and D2.
It plays an important role in maintaining the required level of calcium and phosphorus in blood by many ways:
It acts on intestinal epithelial cells to increase the absorption of calcium and phosphorous from digested food. It also enhances calcium mobilization from bone which means calcium is released from the bones to maintain blood calcium level. It also enhances tubular re absorption of calcium in kidneys.Jamal wants to know if a new drug will increase reaction times for drivers. In his study, the use of a group that does not take the drug, which allows for a comparison of reaction times between the drug-taking and non-drug taking groups, is the ________.
Answer: Control group
Explanation:
Control group is a group which is used as a benchmark or standard for comparison of the changes that occur in the dependent or experimental variable. This group does not receive any treatment in the experiment but only kept for the purpose of comparison with other variables.
In the given study, the use of the group that does not take the drug is the example of the control group.
Multiple Angles Bart was recently diagnosed with schizophrenia and has since started taking Thorazine. He meets with his doctor, Dr. Aimes, at a follow-up visit to evaluate his progress on Thorazine. Dr. Aimes is concerned that due to the Thorazine, Bart is showing signs of ____.
a. memory lossb. severe insomniac. cataplexyd. tardive dyskinesia
Answer:
Tardive dyskinesia.
Explanation:
Tardive dyskinesia may be defined as a medical condition in which the body's involuntary movements are uncontrolled. Rapid sudden movements of the body increases during this disease.
Bart is suffering from schizophrenia as he started taking thorazine. Thorazine drug has multiple effect on the body. The main main side effect of thorazine is the development of tardive dyskinesia. The neuromuscular reactions of the body gets disturb by taking thorazine.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
A mother with a three-day old baby presents with sore nipples. The problem began with the first feeding and has persisted with every feeding. The most likely source of the problem is:
Answer:
Bad position of the baby while breastfeeding
Explanation:
The baby needs to take part not only the nipple and the aerola. It needs to be an asimetrical grip, that is, the baby takes a larger portion of the lower part of the aerola than the upper part
Iris, usually involved with her friends, has become withdrawn and isolated. she has stopped taking showers and changing her clothes. when asked what she is thinking, she describes, in scattered phrases, a frightening inner world of demons and threats. these symptoms illustrate which phase of schizophrenia?a. prodromalb. reactivec. residuald. active
Answer: D) Active
Explanation: It is the phase where the disease is triggered, they are called outbreaks or crises, the symptoms that occur are the positive ones (hallucinations, delusions, thought disorders) and disorganization. The intervals between outbreaks, depending on the characteristics of the person, can vary between months and several years and are generally of the same duration in the same person.
Iris's symptoms suggest she is in an active phase of schizophrenia, characterized by both prominent positive symptoms such as hallucinations and negative symptoms such as social withdrawal and poor hygiene.
Explanation:The described symptoms of Iris in the scenario given, such as social withdrawal, poor hygiene, disorganized thoughts, and frightening hallucinations or delusions, are indicative of an active phase of schizophrenia. This phase is characterized by a worsening of psychotic symptoms, which can include both positive symptoms (like hallucinations and delusions) and negative symptoms (like withdrawal and poor hygiene).
During the prodromal phase, symptoms are less obvious and may gradually develop, while the reactive and residual phases refer to periods following an active phase, typically marked by a reduction of symptoms and a movement towards baseline functioning. Iris's experiences as outlined particularly point to an active phase due to the presence of stark psychotic features, such as her description of a world with demons and threats along with significant functional impairment.
What is a precursor?
a.A substance that is recycled through the liver and intestines
b.A sign or symptom of a clinical vitamin deficiency disorder
c.A substance that is used to synthesize another compound
d.A conditionally essential vitamin
e.A sign or symptom of a subclinical vitamin deficiency disorder
Answer:
A precursor is c) a substance that is used to synthesize another compound.
Explanation:
A precursor in chemistry is a compound that participates in a chemical reaction to obtain another compound. Also, they could be predecessors of other compounds in a metabolic pathway such as tryptophan and serotonin; tryptophan is the metabolic precursor for serotonin.
Victoria is a 21-year-old world class gymnast who trains, on average, for about 6 hours/day. She frequently experiences stress fractures of the bones in her feet. Although she is not pregnant, she has not had a menstrual period for the past 6 months. Based on this information, Victoria probably hasa. osteomalacia.b. menopausal syndrome.c. female athlete triad.d. type 1 diabetes.
Answer:
c.female athlete syndrome
Explanation:
This causes extra weight put on to the female body which can cause bone fractures. Ps. I'm in 9th grade. How did I do this for you.
Final answer:
Victoria likely has the female athlete triad, a condition including amenorrhea, disrupted eating patterns, and osteoporosis, which can lead to stress fractures in athletes.
Explanation:
Based on the information provided, Victoria, a 21-year-old world-class gymnast who trains extensively and has experienced an absence of menstrual periods for 6 months, is likely suffering from the female athlete triad. This condition is characterized by amenorrhea (absence of menstrual cycle), disrupted eating patterns, and osteoporosis. The female athlete triad can lead to decreased bone mass and an increased risk of stress fractures, which aligns with Victoria’s symptoms of stress fractures in her feet. Victoria’s rigorous training schedule can contribute to these health issues, as excessive exercise and inadequate nutrition can disrupt the hormonal balance necessary for menstrual cyclicity and bone health.
Which Of the statements below, the accurate statement regarding nutrition and cellular health is
a. obese individuals are generally nutritionally healthy.
b. the body can generally produce elements essential for nutritional balance.
c. deficient cellular uptake by one cell type may contribute to excess nutrient delivery to other cell types.
d. a normal BMI indicates nutritional health.
Answer:
D. a normal BMI indicates nutritional health.
Explanation:
A researcher uses an anonymous survey to investigate the study habits of American college students. The entire group of American college students is an example of a ____.
Answer:
population
Explanation:
According to my research on studies conducted by various biologists, I can say that based on the information provided within the question the entire group of American college students is an example of a population. This term refers to all of the individuals of the same group, that live in a particular geographical area.
I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.
A 23-year-old patient with a recent history of encephalitis is admitted to the medical unit with new onset generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Which nursing activities included in the patient's care will be best to delegate to an LPN/LVN whom you are supervising? (Choose all that apply).A Document the onset time, nature of seizure activity, and postictal behaviors for all seizures.B Administer phenytoin (Dilantin) 200 mg PO daily.C Teach patient about the need for good oral hygiene.D Develop a discharge plan, including physician visits and referral to the Epilepsy Foundation.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
It should be monitored the onset of these events and the behaviour of the patient after the event. We must not administer treatment without the real cause identified.
Source:
Prakash Giri V, Prakash Giri O, Haque A y col. Journal of Clinical and Diagnostic Research 10(7):FC01-FC04, Jul 2016.
A 12-year-old child at a soccer game grabs their chest and begins to make wheezing noises. After you obtain consent to provide care, the child’s parent informs you that the child has a history of asthma, but does not have an inhaler nearby. What care should you provide?
a) Wait 20 minutes to see if the breathing difficulty goes away.
b) Summon more advanced medical personnel and place the victim into a position that helps
c) breathing.
d) Tell the victim to use an inhaler borrowed from a bystander.
e) Give 5 back blows.
Answer: Summon more advanced medical personnel and place the victim into a position that helps breahing.
Explanation: In the event of someone falling and banging their head it is imperative that you check them and make sure they show signs of life, e.g. breathing, they need to breathe to sustain life
The other thing is never move a patient from the scene unless there is immediate danger, its best to summon medical assistance, but first you must check their ABC,
A - Airway, is it blocked, put your fingers in their mouth and check for any foreign objects which may cause choking,
B - Breathing, are they breathing, there isn't much point moving someone or doing anything else unless they are breathing.
C - Chest compressions, start chest compressions to restart their breathing - make sure you read up on this and know how to place your hands over the victims chest though I think just recently that has been scrapped and its just a case now of pumping an adults chest with your hands best way possible to get their breathing going again. (this step should be done by trained personnel as this can cause rib breakage)
After several weeks of feeling gloomy and being socially withdrawn, Marco has suddenly become extremely sociable and talkative. He doesn't seem to need any sleep, and he becomes irritated when his friends tell him to slow down. Marco's behavior is consistent with: ____________
a) histrionic personality disorder.
b) bipolar disorder.
c) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
d) schizophrenia.
Celebrities Jenny McCarthy and Jim Carrey are big proponents of anti-vaccination claiming that it causes autism in children. Their testimonial in news media is a classic example of ___________.
Answer: anecdotal evidence
Explanation:
Anecdotal evidence is based on the generalization limited examples which are not based on reliable statistical evidences. These are not reliable. This can be used to frame a story or a unreasonable claim. Hence, the given situation is an example of a anecdotal evidence. This is because it does not have an experimental and statistical proof.
Lactose is composed of glucose and galactose and is a naturally occurring carbohydrate. Unfortunately, many individuals cannot tolerate lactose and develop gastrointestinal symptoms after ingesting it. These individuals would do best eating what dairy food?
Answer:
Greek Yogurt
Explanation:
Greek yogurt contains less lactose than regular yogurt. The probiotics found in the yogurt will help further break down the lactose.
(this is the answer i found, but there are other examples as well)
A researcher wanted to compare the relative effectiveness of two techniques for reducing anxiety: a drug and a relaxation exercise. The researcher gave the experimental group both the drug and the relaxation exercise. The control group was given neither the drug nor the exercise. The difference between the drug and the relaxation exercise cannot be compared in this experiment because the experiment involves a
Answer: Confounding
Explanation: Confounding is the term that defines the influence occurring in dependent and non-dependent components due to the external/outside factor. This outside factor can cause the effect on overall experiment and its design.
According to the experiment executed in the question, experimental group and control group cannot be compared because the confounding factor are present in the experimental group so that must have influence their characteristics. Thus, the outcome of the experiment while comparing will be impacted.
Final answer:
The experiment described cannot adequately compare the effectiveness of a drug versus a relaxation exercise due to a design flaw involving a confounding variable. Proper experimental procedures include randomly assigning treatments and using placebo groups, as demonstrated by the Keller et al. (2001) study on the efficacy of Paxil versus a placebo for treating anxiety.
Explanation:
The experiment described in the student's question has a fundamental design flaw, as it cannot discern whether the reduction in anxiety is due to the drug, the relaxation exercise, or a combination of both since the experimental group received both interventions and the control group received none. This situation is known as a confounding variable because multiple variables are changing at the same time, making it impossible to attribute the effect to a single cause.
In order to compare the relative effectiveness of two treatments, a proper experimental design would involve four groups: one for the drug alone, one for the relaxation exercise alone, one with both treatments, and a control group receiving neither (or a placebo). This design would isolate the effects of each treatment and allow for accurate comparison. For reference, a well-structured experiment uses a placebo, and participants are randomly assigned to either the experimental group or the control group, ensuring that any differences in outcome can be attributed to the treatment itself.
The Keller et al. (2001) study on treating anxiety with the drug Paxil provides a good example of a controlled experiment. They compared the effectiveness of Paxil to a placebo drug and concluded that the improvements in the group receiving Paxil were significant, ruling out the possibility of the effects being due to the placebo alone.
You are dispatched to a residence for a man who cut his hand with a chainsaw. Upon arriving at the scene, your FIRST action should be to: A) immediately gain access to the patient. B) apply gloves, a gown, and facial protection. C) determine if air medical transport is available. D) carefully assess the scene for safety hazards
Answer: tie the wound
Explanation:tie the wound smoothly and should not tight it
This stops bleeding which prevents loss of blood from the blood vessels which may cause death due to severe blood loss
Select the incorrect statement.
a) LSD is classified as a phenylethylamine type of hallucinogen.
2) MDMA has both stimulant and hallucinogenic effects.
3) High doses of anticholinergic drugs can cause hallucinogenic effects.
4) Hallucinogens can cause the user to become aware of thoughts and feelings that had been forgotten or repressed.
Answer:
a) LSD is classified as a phenylethylamine type of hallucinogen.
Explanation:
LSD-25 or LSD (Lysergic Acid Diethylamide), popularly known as "sweet" or "acid", is a synthetic hallucinogen that causes mood swings and hallucinations. It is commonly consumed in nightclubs and parties and is therefore used most often by the teenage and young adult audience. Because it is derived from lysergic acid, LSD cannot be classified as a hallucinogen phenylethylamine.
This illicit drug, that is, for prohibited use, is produced in laboratories from the substance ergot, obtained from the fungus Claviceps purpurea (ergot), which develops in rye and other grains. Unlike other drugs, LSD has no color, smell or taste. And their consumption can be very varied - mostly made orally or sublingually, in the form of paper (filter paper or stamps) or drops. However, although less frequent, the drug may be injected, inhaled or smoked.
Choose the correct statement from the list below:
A. Mechanical digestion of proteins is more important than chemical digestion.
B. Protein digestion begins in the small intestine with the activation of trypsinogen to trypsin
C. The stomach has a high pH which allows for the activation of digestive enzymes.
D. Proteins that are consumed in the diet are absorbed as individual amino acids following digestion
Answer:
D. Proteins that are consumed in the diet are absorbed as individual amino acids following digestion
Explanation:
Protein digestion begins from stomach and continues in small intestine too. In stomach, enzyme pepsin is responsible for breakdown of proteins into smaller fragments. The acidic environment created by hydrochloric acid facilitates this process.
Protein fragments move from stomach to small intestine where the main breakdown occurs. Pancreas releases two enzymes, trypsin and chymotrypsin in small intestine. These two enzymes along with some enzymes secreted by the small intestine breakdown the small protein fragments into individual amino acids which are finally absorbed via villi in small intestine.
The Nutrition Facts panel currently lists the % Daily Value for vitamin A, vitamin C, calcium, and iron, because these have been nutrients of particular concern for Americans. Foods that are fortified with several nutrients, like the energy bar in this example, may also list the % Daily Value for other nutrients. Since calcium is listed on both of the food labels, let’s compare the nutrient density for calcium for these bars. Which bar has the highest nutrient density for calcium?
Answer:
The correct answer is - the energy bars.
Explanation:
Fortified foods are the foods that have additional nutrients like nutrients and vitamins and other essential substances so they can be easily available to the American people.
These foods such as the energy bars have the highest density of the calcium in it as they are fortified and are protected to external attack.
Thus, the correct answer is - the energy bars.
A CERT is searching for survivors in a building after an electrical storm. The door to one of the rooms that the team needs to search is closed. Some of the CERT members think they smell smoke. Before entering the closed room, what should the CERT members do?
a) Cover their mouths and noses to keep from inhaling smoke
b) Touch the door handle to feel if it’s hot
c) Feel the closed door with the back of the hand, from the bottom up
d) Have a fire extinguisher ready before opening the door
Answer:
c) Feel the closed door with the back of the hand, from the bottom up
Explanation:
The Community Emergency Response Team is a team that is in charge of helping the community in case of emergencies and know how to act in case of all the casualties that can occur, when a member or a CERT is searching for survivors in a building after an electrical storm, he should check and feel the closed door with the back of his hand from the bottom up to see if it is hot, or if there is fire inside.
Marlow is an extremely angry young woman. Although she is only 14 years old, she has already been arrested three times for vandalism. She sneaks out at night and slashes the car tires of people with whom she is angry. Sometimes she uses her keys to scratch their cars and occasionally throws bricks through their windows. From what kind of disorder does Marlow suffer?
Final answer:
Marlow may be suffering from Conduct Disorder, a mental health condition characterized by aggressive and destructive behaviors, such as vandalism.
Explanation:
Based on the provided information, Marlow's behavior of vandalizing property and demonstrating anger issues may suggest a possible personality disorder called Conduct Disorder. Conduct Disorder is a mental health condition commonly diagnosed in adolescence and is characterized by aggressive and destructive behaviors against people, animals, or property.
Individuals with Conduct Disorder often engage in behaviors that violate the rights of others and disregard social norms, such as vandalism, theft, assault, and cruelty to animals. They may also exhibit a lack of empathy and remorse for their actions.
It is important for Marlow to receive professional help from a mental health provider to assess and diagnose the problem accurately and recommend appropriate interventions.
What can be the result of drinking large amounts of alcohol?
death
thirst
laughter
hunger
The correct answer would be option B. Thirst.
Thirst will be the result of drinking large amounts of alcohol.
Explanation:
Alcohol is a colorless drink which is flammable, volatile and is highly intoxicated. It is made up of natural fermentation of sugar along with the Wine, beer, and other drink's intoxicating constituents.
Because the alcohol contains large amounts of sugar, it leaves the person thirsty and with the regular intake of large amounts of alcohol, the person is likely to suffer from thirst.
Regular consumption of alcohol is very dangerous. It may cause the following diseases:
Liver failureKidney failureDiabetesBladder and Prostate inflammationHepatitisJaundice, etc.That is why, consuming alcohol is prohibited in some religions.
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The correct answer is option (A) because drinking large amounts of alcohol can lead to death.
A) Death - Correct. Drinking large amounts of alcohol can lead to alcohol poisoning, which can be fatal if not treated promptly. Excessive alcohol consumption can also increase the risk of accidents, injuries, and long-term health problems that may contribute to premature death.
B) Thirst - Incorrect. While alcohol consumption can lead to dehydration and increased thirst, it is not typically considered a direct result of drinking large amounts of alcohol.
C) Laughter - Incorrect. Alcohol consumption may affect mood and behavior, but excessive drinking is more likely to lead to negative outcomes such as impaired judgment, coordination, and cognitive function rather than uncontrollable laughter.
D) Hunger - Incorrect. Drinking large amounts of alcohol can suppress appetite in some individuals, but it is not a common or direct result of excessive alcohol consumption.
Hence, A. is the correct option.
The complete question is:
"What can be the result of drinking large amounts of alcohol?
A) Death
B) Thirst
C) Laughter
D) Hunger