Fixed expenses consist of $300,000 of common costs allocated to the three products based on relative sales, as well as direct fixed expenses unique to each model of $30,000 (Tingler), $79,500 (Shocker), and $34,300 (Stunner). The common costs will be incurred regardless of how many models are produced. The direct fixed expenses would be eliminated if that model is phased out.

Complete Question:

The terpsichorean was familiar with the risks associated with various moves, the accountant knew financial risks forwards and backwards, while the civil engineer could quantify the risks associated with distributed loads on the temporary stage. Their input was used as part of:

A) a brainstorming meeting approach to risk factor identification.

B) the Delphi method approach to risk factor identification.

C) a past history approach to risk factor identification.

D) a multiple assessments approach to risk factor identification.

Correct Option:

Their input was used as part of "a multiple assessments approach to risk factor identification".

Option: D

Explanation:

The multiple assessments approach is collective procedure, which need unity from all the sectors to report their respective field experience in any firm or organization or department to identify the type of risk, its vulnerability, measures, etc.

The use of several indicators facilitates a more comprehensive and precise assessment. Like here terpsichorean was aware about risks, which was showcased by accountant and civil engineer in order to shape a strategy for preventing such risks or finding measures accordingly by full observation and analysis of situations.

Answer:

B are examples of stores of value, but not units of account nor medium of exchange.

Explanation:

(Stocks and bonds are store of value as they store the wealth of an individual but they are not units of account or medium of exchange and goods are not valued in terms of stock or bond and thus stock or bond can be used to purchase something.)

Answer:

$1.71

Explanation:

The computation of sales per unit is shown below:-

Variable cost = Total units × (Cost of ice cream and cone + Franchise fee payable)

= 24,000 × ($0.50 + $0.15)

= 24,000 × $0.65

= $15,600

Total cost = Fixed cost + Variable cost

= $5,650 + $15,600

= $21,250

Sales = Total cost + Profit

= $21,250 + $20,000

= $41,250

Sales price per unit = Sales ÷ Community total

= $41,250 ÷ 24,000

= $1.71

Answer:

predictions for the future are required.

Explanation:

Expert system is defined as a computer system that mimics the decision making ability of a human being. It does this by using bodies of knowledge to solve complex problems.

Expert systems is made up of the knowledge base and the inference system. Facts are analysed and inferences about future outcomes are presented.

This is a useful tool for making accurate forecasts.

Answer:

Erosion cost from the new bike is equal to the profit lost from existing bike

= 9,000 x (120 - 35)

= $765,000

Benefit from new bike = 17,000 x (375 - 250)

= $2,125,000

Net Benefit = $2,125,000 - $765,000

= $1,360,000

Since there is net benefit from new bike, Fat Tire should start producing the​ off-road bike

Answer:

Firm should operate.

Explanation:

Here, we are assuming that this is a situation of short run.

A firm will operate or shut down is totally dependent upon whether the firm will be able to cover its variable cost of not. If a firm will be able to cover all of its variable cost then this firm will not shut down and operates in the short run until it covers all of its variable costs.

In this case, given that,

Total revenue = $1,000

Total cost = $1,500

Variable cost = $500

Profits = Total revenue - Total cost

           = $1,000 - $1,500

           = -$500

Therefore, this clearly shows that this firm will be able to cover its variable cost of $500 with the total revenue of $1,000. That's why the firm remains in the market even there is a loss of $500.

Hence, this firm should operate.

Answer:

The correct answer is Debit to Bad debt expense for $4,900, unfortunately none of the options provided in the question is correct.

Explanation:

Bad debt expense is an estimated amount of accounts receivable that is deemed to be uncollectible. There are different methods used in determining the bad debt expense - aging method, percentage-of-credit-sales method.

In the question, an amount of $4,000 was already estimated as uncollectible meanwhile the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has a $900 debit balance. This means the bad debt expense that would be recorded would be $4,000 + $900 = $4,900. The addition is necessary in order to reinstate the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts to $4,000 and since the opening balance of the allowance account is in debit. Required journal entries are as follows:

Debit Bad debt expense                                    $4,900

Credit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts          $4,900

(To record bad debt expense)

Answer:

Allowance for uncollectible accounts: ($ in millions)

Balance, beginning of year            $39.7

Add: Bad debt expense                 $30.0

Less: End of year balance              ($42.4)

Write ­offs during the year              $27.3

Accounts receivable analysis:

Balance, beginning of year ($2,076.6 + $39.7) $2,116.3

Add: Credit sales                                            $19,281.6

Less: Write­offs                                                ($27.3)

Less: Balance end of year ($2,949.4 + $42.4) ($2,991.8)

Cash collections                                             $18,378.8

Final answer:

The amount of cash collected from customers during 2015 is calculated to be $57.3 million after considering the bad debt expense and adjustments to the allowance for uncollectible accounts.

Explanation:

To determine the amount of cash collected from customers during 2015 when all sales are on credit, we should analyze the changes in the allowance for uncollectible accounts and the bad debt expense reported for the year. The beginning balance of the allowance for uncollectible accounts was $39.7 million in 2014 and increased to $42.4 million by the end of 2015. Given that the bad debt expense for 2015 was $30.0 million, we can calculate the cash collections.

The changes in the allowance for uncollectible accounts can be represented by the following equation:

Beginning Allowance Balance + Bad Debt Expense – Write-offs = Ending Allowance Balance.

Plugging in the known values, we get:

$39.7 million + $30.0 million – Write-offs = $42.4 million.

To find the value of the write-offs, we rearrange the equation:

Write-offs = $39.7 million + $30.0 million - $42.4 million.

Write-offs = $27.3 million.

Now, since all sales are on credit, the cash collected from customers is equal to the sales minus the increase in the accounts receivable (which includes both the bad debt expense and write-offs). Assuming no incremental increase in sales on credit, the cash collected is represented by:

Cash Collected = Bad Debt Expense + Write-offs

Cash Collected = $30.0 million + $27.3 million

Cash Collected = $57.3 million

Answer:

Decrease in value of company due to expected bankruptcy cost = $414,000

Explanation:

As per the data given in the question,

According to M & M proportional I with taxes,

Levered firm value is = Equity + Debt

= $29,900,000 + 0.22 × $6,200,000

= $31,264,000

Market value of the firm = market value of debt + market value of equity

= $6,200,000 + 425,000 × $58

= $30,850,000

Decrease in value of company due to expected bankruptcy cost = $31,264,000 - $30,850,000

= $414,000

Answer:

yes

Explanation:

ty the answer is 293840 use a calculator and 2% of 2837e928 m.

Final answer:

Kim Lee's debt payments-to-income ratio without the college loan would be 10.39%, and it would be 22.94% with the college loan. Carl spends 65.29% of his income on his home and car payments. If your net income is $2,850 and your monthly debt payments total $1,140, your debt payments-to-income ratio would be 40%.

Explanation:

To assist Kim Lee with her decision about the chiropractic school loan, we need to calculate her debt payments-to-income ratio with and without the college loan.

First, we'll calculate Kim's net income, which is her gross income minus the taxes deducted:

Now, her current monthly debt payments (credit card debts) are $110. To calculate the debt payments-to-income ratio without the college loan, we divide her monthly debt payments by her net income and multiply by 100 to get a percentage:

Debt payments-to-income ratio without college loan = ($110 / $1,059) × 100 = 10.39%

If she takes out the college loan, her monthly debt payments will increase by $133.

Total monthly debt payments with college loan = $110 + $133 = $243

Debt payments-to-income ratio with college loan = ($243 / $1,059) × 100 = 22.94%

For Carl's situation, his total monthly payment on debt (house and car) is $1,640 + $482 = $2,122. His take-home pay is $3,250.

Loan payments-to-income ratio for Carl = ($2,122 / $3,250) × 100 = 65.29%

Last, to find your own debt payments-to-income ratio:

Answer:

The bond's current market price is $834.67

Explanation:

Market Value of the bond is the present value of all cash flows of the bond. These cash flows include the coupon payment and the maturity payment of the bond. Price of the bond is calculated by following formula:

According to given data

Assuming the Face value of the bond is $1,000

Coupon payment = C = $1,000 x 9% = $90 annually

Number of periods = n = 23 years =

Current Yield = r = 11% / 2  = 5.5% semiannually

Market Value of the Bond = C x [ ( 1 - ( 1 + r )^-n ) / r ] + [ $1,000 / ( 1 + r )^n ]

Market Value of the Bond = $90 x [ ( 1 - ( 1 + 11% )^-23 ) / 11% ] + [ $1,000 / ( 1 + 11% )^23 ]

Market Value of the Bond = $743.98 + $90.69 = $834.67

The current market price of Madsen Motor's bond can be calculated by determining the present value of the bond's annual payments and the present value of its face value when it matures, which adds up to $1045.75.

In order to calculate the current market price of a bond, we need to calculate its present value using the coupon payment, the yield to maturity, and the face value. The bond's coupon payment can be calculated as it's face value multiplied by the coupon interest rate. Therefore, for the Madsen Motor's bond, the coupon payment is $1,000 X 0.09 = $90 annually. The present value of these annual payments for the remaining term of the bond can be calculated using the formula for the present value of an annuity: PVA = PMT X ((1 - (1 + r)^-n ) / r), where PMT is the annual payment, r is the yield to maturity divided by the number of periods, and n is the number of periods. In the case of this bond, this gives us the present value of annuity as $90 X ((1 - (1 + 0.11)^-23) / 0.11) = $807.57. The present value of the face value of the bond when it matures, also known as the present value of a lump sum, is computed as: PVLS = FV / (1+r)^n, where FV is the face value of the bond. For the Madsen Motor's bond, this is $1,000 / (1 + 0.11)^23 = $238.18. The current market price of the bond is the sum of these two present values, which comes to $807.57 + $238.18 = $1045.75.

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Answer:

E.inefficient producing divisions could pass on their inefficiencies to buying divisions in the transfer price.

Explanation:

The transfer price refers to that price in which the one firm is charging the prices from the other firm with respect to the service rendered. It is based on price charged in the market

To find out the transfer price  we considered the standard cost instead of the actual cost as the divisions may be have more actual cost as compare to the standard cost which resulted into the inefficiency that impact the buying based on the transfer price

Answer:

current stock price, [tex]P_{0}[/tex] = $26.84

Explanation:

Given,

Most recent dividend, [tex]D_{0}[/tex] = $1.50

Growth rate, [tex]g_{1}[/tex] = 15% = 0.15 (Next 2 years)

[tex]g_{2}[/tex] = 5% = 0.05 (remain constant after 2 years)

required rate of return , [tex]r_{s}[/tex] = 12% = 0.12

We know,

Current stock price, [tex]P_{0}[/tex] = [[tex]D_{1}[/tex] ÷ (1 + [tex]r_{s}[/tex])] + [tex]\frac{D_{2} + P_{2}}{(1 + r_{s})^{2}}[/tex]

or, [tex]P_{0}[/tex] = [{[tex]D_{0}[/tex] × (1 + [tex]g_{1}[/tex])} ÷ (1 + [tex]r_{s}[/tex])] + [tex]\frac{D_{0} (1 + g_{1})^{2} + \frac{D_{3}}{r_{s} - g_{2}}}{(1 + r_{s})^{2}}[/tex]

or, [tex]P_{0}[/tex] = [{$1.50 × (1 + 0.15)} ÷ (1 + 0.12)] + [tex]\frac{1.50*(1+0.15)^{2} + \frac{D_{2} (1 + g_{2})}{(0.12 - 0.05)}}{(1+0.12)^{2}}[/tex]

or, [tex]P_{0}[/tex] = ($1.725 ÷ 1.12) + [tex]\frac{1.98375 + \frac{1.98375*(1 + 0.05)}{0.07}}{1.2544}[/tex]

or, [tex]P_{0}[/tex] = $1.5402 + [(1.98375 + 29.75625) ÷ 1.2544]

or, [tex]P_{0}[/tex] = $1.5402 + (31.74 ÷ 1.2544)

or, [tex]P_{0}[/tex] = $1.5402 + 25.3029

Therefore, current stock price, [tex]P_{0}[/tex] = $26.84

Answer:

Current stock price = $1.040

Explanation:

We know,

Current preferred stock price = Preferred dividend ÷ Expected rate of return

Given,

Expected rate of return = 4.69%

Preferred dividend = $4.88

Current preferred stock price = ?

Putting the values into the formula, we can get

Current preferred stock price = $4.88 ÷ 4.69%

Or,Current preferred stock price = $1.040.

Therefore,  the current preferred stock price is $1.040.

Answer:

A. Collected account receivable.

(1) the current ratio NC

(2) working capital NC

(3) stockholders’ equity NC

(4) book value per share of common stock NC

(5) retained earnings. NC

B. Wrote off account receivable.  

(1) the current ratio  -

(2) working capital -

(3) stockholders’ equity -

(4) book value per share of common stock NC

(5) retained earnings. -

C. Converted a short-term note payable to a long-term note payable.

(1) the current ratio +

(2) working capital +

(3) stockholders’ equity NC

(4) book value per share of common stock NC

(5) retained earnings. NC

D. Purchased inventory on account.

(1) the current ratio -

(2) working capital NC

(3) stockholders’ equity NC

(4) book value per share of common stock NC

(5) retained earnings. NC

E. Declared cash dividend.

(1) the current ratio -

(2) working capital -

(3) stockholders’ equity -

(4) book value per share of common stock NC

(5) retained earnings. NC (at declaration it will change after year end adjustment)

F. Sold merchandise on account at a profit.

(1) the current ratio +

(2) working capital +

(3) stockholders’ equity +

(4) book value per share of common stock NC

(5) retained earnings. +

G. Issued stock dividend.

(1) the current ratio NC

(2) working capital NC

(3) stockholders’ equity NC

(4) book value per share of common stock NC

(5) retained earnings. -

H. Paid account payable.

(1) the current ratio +

(2) working capital NC

(3) stockholders’ equity NC

(4) book value per share of common stock NC

(5) retained earnings. NC

I. Sold building at a loss.

(1) the current ratio NC

(2) working capital +

(3) stockholders’ equity -

(4) book value per share of common stock NC

(5) retained earnings. -

Explanation:

A.

Collection of account receivable will increase the cash and decrease the account receivable both of these are current asset.

B.

Writer off account receivable will reduce the account receivable balance which is a current asset and increase the expenses which ultimately reduce the retained earnings.

C.

It will decrease the current liabilities and increase long term liability

D.

It will increase the inventory as current asset and account payable as current liabilities.

E.

It will decrease the total stockholders equity as a contra equity account of dividend and increase the current liabilities as Dividend payable.

F.

It will increase the cash / account receivable more than the decrease in inventory value.

G.

Stock dividend will have no net impact on stockholders equity. Because it will increase the common stock and add-in-capital excess of par accounts and decrease the retained earning accounts all of these are equity accounts.

H.

It will decrease account payable as current liabilities and cash as current assets.

I.

Cash will increase the current assets and Sale of asset decrease the net fixed asset value. Loss will decrease the retained earning in the form of net income value.

Final answer:

The effect of each financial transaction on various metrics such as current ratio, working capital, stockholders' equity, book value, and retained earnings can be understood by analyzing how they affect the balance sheet. Increases or decreases in these metrics result from changes in assets and liabilities due to financial activities, with different impacts based on the nature of the transaction.

Explanation:

The effect of the transactions on various financial metrics can be determined by understanding how each transaction impacts the organization's balance sheet and income statement. Here's a breakdown of each transaction's impact:

The increase or decrease in financial ratios and monetary figures due to transactions depends on how they affect assets, liabilities, and stockholders' equity. For example, an increase in liabilities is often associated with an increase in cash, and the disposal of assets affects cash flow, impacting the reconciliation of net assets.

Answer/Explanation:

Note 2: Interest on Bank Loan

Interest = (Principal x Time x rate) / 100

Principal = $100,000;  

Time = 9/12 = 0.75

Rate = 12%

Interest = (100,000 x 0.75 x 12) / 100 = 9,000

Balance sheet (see attachment):

Total Assets = 36,000 + 100,000 + 167,000 + 3,000 = 306,000

Total Liability + Capital = 100,000 + 76,000 130,000 = 306,000

Conclusion:  

The balance sheet as can be seen in the attachment that has been prepared, revealed that the company’s current assets is sufficient to meet its current liabilities. Therefore the bank runs no risk for giving the company the credit facilities.

This answer draws up a balance sheet for Melody Lane Music Company for the year ending December 31, 2016 by categorising and calculating their assets, liabilities, and shareholders' equity based on the provided financial data.

To prepare a balance sheet for the Melody Lane Music Company for the year ending December 31, 2016, you need to list the company's assets, liabilities, and shareholders' equity at that date based on the provided information.

In summary, total Assets ($167,000 Cash + $100,000 Inventory + $4,000 Prepaid Rent + $36,000 Equipment) should equal to total Liabilities and Shareholder's Equity ($21,000 Accounts Payable + $100,000 Bank Loan + $12,000 Interest Payable + $100,000 Common Stock + $76,000 Retained Earnings).

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Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": Pictorial cues; verbal cues.

Explanation:

Marketing uses different approaches to attract consumers' attention. When it comes to portraying images, advertising can implement pictorial cues to create a depth sensation on two-dimensional surfaces like flyers. Though, a verbal cue is necessary as well to provide the information the promotion is intended to transmit. That data can let the audience know what the advantages and disadvantages of the product promoted are.

Answer:

6 years

Explanation:

The payback period calculates how long it takes for the amount invested in a project to be recovered from the cumulative cash flow.

Payback period = amount invested/ cash flow

 $468,000 /  $78,000 = 6 years

I hope my answer helps you

Answer: Encumbrance

Explanation:  The commitment made by a governmental unit to buy some product for use in administration is recorded in the general fund as an encumbrance which is defined as an interest, right, burden or liability that must be carried. As such, an encumbrance ensures that there will be enough funds available for the payment of certain governmental obligations and commonly refers to restricted funds in the general fund account.

Answer:

Encumbrance

Explanation:

An encumbrance is a portion of a budget set aside for spending required by law or contract. Like the budget itself, an encumbrance is a projection and not yet a reality. If business conditions continue as they are when you set the budget, then the encumbrance will become an expense.

The most common types of encumbrance apply to real estate; these include mortgages, easements, and property tax liens. Not all forms of encumbrance are financial, easements being an example of non-financial encumbrances. An encumbrance can also apply to personal – as opposed to real – property.

Explanation:

This is a true statement, but it does contain some caveats, because for an interview to be successful, it must consider a number of factors, such as the candidate's compatibility with the vacancy, the psychological profile must be compatible, but it will complement academic training and experiences required for the vacancy available.

However, it is a fact that

individuals who participate in training programs that provide information about interviews and tips on successful interviews, may perform better than those who did not, as they will learn the best self-confidence and public speaking techniques that they can achieve with higher scores.

Answer:

The statement is: True.

Explanation:

Interview coaching programs are useful for people who want to learn techniques to pass job interviews with optimal performances. How to prepare a resume, keep control in front of stress interviews or direct interviews, and techniques on how to pass multiple-skill tests are some of the topics reviewed in such training.

Under those circumstances, individuals increase their chances of being accepted for those jobs compared to applicants who do not prepare at the same level.

Answer:

For A. and B see attached files

Explanation:

Answer:

The answer is $61,000

Explanation:

An impairment loss is recognized when the carrying amount of an asset is less than its fair value(prevailing market price).

The difference between the carrying value and fair value is written off. Carrying amount is the cost of acquiring an asset minus any subsequent depreciation and impairment charges.

Impairment Loss = Book Value – Market Value

Impairment Loss = $177,500 - $116,500

Impairment loss is $61,000

Answer:

$304 per day

Explanation:

See attached file

Answer:

The correct answer is $50 (unfavorable).

Explanation:

According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-

Planning supply activity cost = (592 × $10) +$1230

= $7,150  

Actual supply activity cost = (597 × $10) + $1230

= $7,200

We can calculate the activity variance for supply cost by using following formula:-

Activity variance for supplies cost = Actual activity cost – Planning activity cost  

= $7,200 - $7,150

= $50  ( positive shows unfavorable)

Answer:

Explanation:

Being a juice producer, for which the raw material is oranges, Coolmist has to keep an eye on the prices of oranges. To protect herself from an increase in the cost of oranges,  the financial engineering strategy that would be most beneficial to her is that she should buy in-the-money calls on oranges so that she will have an option to buy the oranges at the pre-decided strike price of the call option.

By doing the above, she would be protected against the price hike.

Answer:

Please see answer in the explanation column.

Explanation:

Given,  

Type of Account----- Account Name --- Amount in dollars  

Stockholders' Equity--- Retained earnings ----$5,481  

Expense----- Cost of goods sold ----$7,184  

Expense---- Selling and administrative expenses ----$3,390  

Asset ---Cash -----$334

Liability -----Notes payable---- $44  

Expense---- Interest expense----$ 295  

Liability---- Bonds payable----$ 4,835  

Asset---- Inventory---- $910  

Revenue---- Sales revenue----$12,575

Liability ----Accounts payable---- $1,077  

Stockholders' Equity--- Common stock---- $105

Expense---- Income tax expense -----$512

Journal for income statement for Kellogg Company for the year ended December 31, 2014.

Revenue----  

Sales revenue----$12,575  

Expenses

Cost of goods sold ----$7,184

Selling and administrative expenses $3,390

Interest expense---- $295  

Income tax expense -----$512

Total Expense---$11,381

Net Income = Total Revenue –  Total Expense= $1,194

The Net income of the Kellogg Company for the year ended Dec. 31, 2014, is $23, 956. The preparation of the Income statement is attached below in the form of an MSWord Document.

An income statement, often known as a profit and loss account, is one of a company's financial statements that shows the company's or firm's revenues and expenses for a specific time period. It explains how revenues are converted into net profit or net income.

For more information regarding the Income statement, click here:

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Answer:

$7.63

Explanation:

Worth of the stock is the present value of all the cash flows associated with the stock. Dividend is the only cash flow that a stock holder receives against its investment in the stocks. We need to calculate the present values of all the dividend payments.

Formula for PV of dividend

PV of Dividend = Dividend x ( 1 + r )^-n

1st year

PV of Dividend = $0.63 x ( 1 + 15% )^-1 = $0.55

2nd year

PV of Dividend = $0.68 x ( 1 + 15% )^-2 = $0.51

3rd year

PV of Dividend = $0.83 x ( 1 + 15% )^-3 = $0.55

4th year

PV of Dividend = $1.13 x ( 1 + 15% )^-4 = $0.65

After four years the dividend will grow at a constant rate of 4.1%, so we will use the following formula to calculate the present value

PV of Dividend = [ $1.13 x ( 1 + 4.1% ) / ( 15% - 4.1% ) ] x [ ( 1 + 15% )^-5 ]

PV of Dividend = $5.37

Value of Stock = $0.55 + $0.51 + $0.55 + $0.65 + $5.37 = $7.63

Answer:

Option D is correct.

Explanation:

A manufacturer’s compliance with the occupational and safety code is least likely to have a direct effect on the financial statements of the entity identified.

Answer:

The Net Cash used in Financing activities is $30,800

Explanation:

Step 1 Determine the Movement in Cash during the period.

Movement = Ending Cash Balance - Beginning Cash  Balance \

                  = 18,200 - 11,600

                  = 6,600 (inflow)

Step 2 Determine the Cash flow in Financing Activities

Cash flow statement for the year

Cash flow from Operating Activities                                              $29,000

Net Cash flow from Investing Activities                                          $ 8,400

Net Cash flow from Financing Activities (Balancing figure)        ($30,800)

Movement in Cash during the year                                                 $6,600

Therefore, The Net Cash used in Financing activities is $30,800

Answer:

-1,004,500

Explanation:

Cash used by an transaction is known as the cash outflow and cash provided by the transaction is known as cash inflow. Expenses and payments uses the cash and Revenue or receipts provide the cash.

All of the following cash flows are incurred in year 0

Base price = $970,000

Installation cost = $19,500

Increase in Working capital = $15,000

Total Cash Flow = $970,000 + $19,500 + $15,000 = $1,004,500

Cash has been used by each above transaction so,There is a Cash out flow of $1,004,500.

Final answer:

The Year-0 net cash flow for the Campbell Company upon purchasing a robotic paint sprayer is the sum of its cost, installation, and increased inventory needs, amounting to -$1,004,500.

Explanation:

The Year-0 net cash flow for Campbell Company considering the purchase of a robotic paint sprayer is calculated by adding the initial cost of the sprayer, installation costs, and the change in net working capital. We do not include depreciation here as it not a cash flow, and it will be considered when calculating tax savings in the later years. Therefore, the initial cash outflow (net cash flow at Year-0) for the sprayer is:

Cost of the sprayer: $970,000

Installation costs: $19,500

Increase in net working capital: $15,000

Adding these together, the total Year-0 net cash flow is:

-$970,000 (cost of the sprayer) - $19,500 (installation costs) - $15,000 (net working capital) = -$1,004,500