Answer:
conduction deafness
Explanation:
A client with depression who is undergoing a colonoscopy tomorrow is receiving preoperative education regarding the procedure. Which nursing task best describes the explanation of the procedure and the associated risks and benefits?
Answer:
The correct answer is - acquiring informed consent.
Explanation:
Nurses normally are assigned the task to explain the procedure of the treatment of the healthcare, This task is called as the acquiring informed consent. The purpose of this task is to be confirmed about patient autonomy.
Acquiring informed consent is a process that needs a detailed explanation regarding the risk and benefits of the particular treatment so that the patient can choose what is better for him.
Thus, the correct answer is - acquiring informed consent.
Lynda is 87 years old, eats a very healthy diet, completes daily household chores, goes for a morning walk, and frequently interacts with her family members and friends. These are considered _____ that may lengthen life.
Answer:
exercises
Explanation:
Answer:
Lifestyle Factors
Explanation:
Julie is a 16-year-old member of an independent female gang. Her family background was turbulent and she was victimized at home and in school. Since joining the gang, Julie has been able to buy clothes, an iPad, and a new car by selling drugs and turning tricks. Recently, she found out she is pregnant and has decided to keep the baby. Based on the facts presented, what is the status of Julie ’s gang?
Answer :
Autonomous Gang.
Julie's gang fits the definition of a criminal street gang based on her involvement in illegal activities.
Julie's gang can be categorized as a criminal gang based on her involvement in criminal activities such as selling drugs and engaging in prostitution to earn money. Her actions align with the characteristics of a street gang that operates in neighborhoods and engages in illicit activities.
Successful ethical discussion depends on people who have a clear sense of personal values. When a group of people shares many of the same values, it may be possible to refer for guidance to philosophical principles of utilitarianism. Which statement describes utilitarianism?
a. The value of something is determined by its usefulness to society.
b. People's values are determined by religious leaders.
c. The decision to perform a liver transplant depends on a measure of the moral life that the patient has led so far.
d. The best way to determine the solution to an ethical dilemma is to refer the case to the attending physician or health care provider.
Answer:
the value of something is determined by its usefulness to society
Explanation:
Research into the memories of those claiming to suffer from dissociative identity disorder (DID) has found that information presented to one ""alter"" is usually available to the other. This finding has shed doubt on the concept of amnesia across alternate personalities in cases of DID. This situation demonstrates which of the six principles mentioned in your chapter?
Answer:
This situation demonstrates the principle of falsifiability.
Explanation:
The concept of falsifiability in science was introduced by Karl Popper, who states that if a theory or statement can be proven false the theory or statement is, in the end, false. The theory has to be contradicted by a basic statement, as in the case of people with amnesia suffering from alternate personalities and people suffering from DID.
Jessi is a vegan and knows she needs to consume more iron. She does not want to take supplements, instead get iron from natural foods. Which of the following would be the best source of iron for Jessi that does not include animal products?
A. lentils
B. lettuce
C. carrots
D. beans
Answer:
lentils
Explanation:
A client diagnosed with cancer makes the following statement to the nurse: "I guess I will tell my health care provider to forego the chemotherapy. I do not want to be throwing up all the time. I would rather die." Which of the following facts supports the use of chemotherapy for this client?
a. Nausea and vomiting are only a factor for the first 24 hours after treatment
b. Most clients believe the discomfort is well worth the cure for cancer
c. Chemotherapy treatment can be adjusted to optimize effects while limiting adverse effects
d. Clinical trials are opening up new cancer treatments all the time
Answer:
I believe its C ?
IM not forsure ...
Explanation:
The nurse is preparing a client with thrombocytopenia for discharge. Which statement by the client about measures minimizing injury indicates that discharge teaching was effective?
Select all that apply.
1. "I may continue to use an electric shaver."
2. "I will not blow my nose if I get a cold."
3. "I should use an enema instead of laxatives for constipation."
4. "I definitely will play football with my friends this weekend."
5. "I should use a soft-bristled toothbrush to avoid mouth trauma."
Answer:
The answers are numbers: 1, 2, and 5.
Explanation:
1. "I may continue to use an electric shaver."
2. "I will not blow my nose if I get a cold."
5. "I should use a soft-bristled toothbrush to avoid mouth trauma."
Karl is a prolific painter. However, he is also prone to periods of hopelessness and depression, which are followed by periods of hyperactivity. It is very likely that Karl is suffering from:
Years after he barely survived an attack that killed his wife and two children, Mr. Yousafzai suffers recurring flashbacks and frequent nightmares of the event. They render him incapable of holding a steady job. Mr. Yousafzai is most clearly showing signs of _____.
Answer:
PTSD
Explanation:
This are normal signs of ptsd.
Answer:
PTSD
Explanation:
Virus-infected cells are detected and destroyed by which cell-mediated immune response?
Answer:
The answer is cytotoxic T cells
Explanation:
Cytoxic T cells are cell-mediated immune response which are able to induce apoptosis in body cells in order to display epitopes or foreign antigen on their surface such as cells with intracellular bacteria, virus infected cells and cancer cells displaying tumor antigens.
Virus-infected cells are detected and destroyed by Cytotoxic T cells (CD8+ T cells). They recognize viral proteins on the cell surface and subsequently kill these infected cells to prevent further viral multiplication.
Explanation:Virus-infected cells are primarily detected and destroyed by the Cytotoxic T cells (CD8+ T cells). These are a type of T cell which play an important role in the cell-mediated immune response. Cytotoxic T cells are especially effective against virus-infected or cancer cells. They are trained to recognize viral proteins on the surface of infected cells. Once identified, they kill the infected cells to prevent the virus from proliferating.
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You are the couple's genetic counselor. When consulting with you, they express their conviction that they are not at risk for having an affected child because they each carry different mutations and cannot have a child who is homozygous for either mutation. What would you say to them?
Hint: Recall that cystic fibrosis is inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion. It may be helpful to construct a Punnett square to determine possible outcomes from this mating. When doing so, be sure to distinguish alleles with different mutations from one another.
Answer:
The probability that they have a homozygous child is of 0%.
Explanation:
This can be explained with a Punnet square:
Alleles:
Female: Aa
Male: Bb
They are both heterozygous
A a
B AB aB
b Ab ab
They have 50% of having one mutation from the A allele and 25% of the allele B.
During orientation, an RN learns that LPN/LVNs in the facility receive additional training to perform some tasks such as hanging continuously infusing intravenous fluids that have no additives. It is important for the RN to understand that:
Answer:see explanation
Explanation:
LPN/LVNs in the facility receive additional training to perform some tasks such as hanging continuously infusing intravenous fluids that have no additives. It is important for the RN to understand the following;
(1). The scope of work of the LPN/LVN varies from one state to the other. The RN should know the LPN/LVN nurse practice act in the state in which they practice and should understand the legal scope of practice of the LPN/LVN.
(2). The RN should also know that the nurse practice act and state regulations related to delegation override the organization's policies.
A(n) ____ refers to treatment preferences and the designation of a surrogate decision maker in the event that a person should become unable to make decisions on her or his own behalf as a result of coma, dementia, brain tumor or other serious medical condition.
Answer:
A(n) advance directive refers to treatment preferences and the designation of a surrogate decision maker in the event that a person should become unable to make decisions on her or his own behalf as a result of coma, dementia, brain tumor or other serious medical condition.
Explanation:
An advance directive is a legal focument that records treatment preferenes and a designation tu a surrogate decision maker, whenever a person has lost his or her capatity to make decisions.
Danielle recently gained 80 pounds when she began eating a lot more food and driving to work instead of walking. What is the likely result now that she has reduced her food intake to what it was before and has started walking to work again?
Answer:
The likely result is that she will lose the 80 pounds that she gained recently.
Explanation:
Danielle will lose weight because she has reduced the amount of food that she eats and has started walking to work again. In other words, there will be fewer calories to burn and she is likely to burn that extra fat that she has gained while she walks to work.
Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would be most affected by a drug that prevents
Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would be most affected by a drug that prevents shortening of microtubules.
Explanation:
The anaphase stage of mitosis - anaphase A and anaphase B stages - results in the separation of the sister chromatids and the movement of the daughter chromatids to the cellular poles.
This chromosomal separation takes place by the depolymerisation and shortening of the microtubules (kinetochore, interpolar, and astral) in the mitotic spindles and by the force generated by them.
These microtubules are formed of tubulin protein monomers which assemble and disassemble during a normal mitotic cell division.
Mitotic inhibiting drugs like plant alkaloids, taxols interfere with this microtubular shortening action and thereby interferes mitotic cell division.
The movement of chromosomes during anaphase would be more affected by a drug that acts directly on the DNA to prevent the cell from reproducing, the alkylating agents.
Alkylating agentsThis group of drugs acts directly on the DNA to stop the cell from reproducing. These drugs kill cells at all stages of the cell cycle. Some examples of alkylating agents are
ChlorambucilCyclophosphamideCisplatinand Carboplatin.With this information we can conclude that the movement of chromosomes during anaphase would be more affected by a drug that acts directly on the DNA to prevent cell reproduction, the alkylating agents.
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You are working at an emergency practice and a woman brings in her ferret "Macy" who is obtunded. The ferret is very weak and appears neurologic. The veterinarian suspects an insulinoma, which is the third most common tumor in the ferret. If this is the case, what laboratory finding would you expect? vtne
Answer:
Hypoglycemia.
Explanation:
An insulinoma is a benign tumor formed by the pancreas cells that secret insulin. As there are a lot of these cells, there is a lot of insulin, which makes the glucose levels in the blood decrease, causing weakness. If this is the case, I would be expecting to find low levels of glucose in the blood (hypoglycemia) in the laboratory results.
A series of transient ischemic attacks have caused an older adult to become dysphagic. The client is opposed to eating minced and pureed foods and wishes to eat a regular diet. How should the care team respond to this request?A)Insert a feeding tube to provide nutrition while eliminating the risk of aspiration.B)Continue providing a minced and pureed diet to the client in order to ensure safety.C)Defer responsibility for feeding to the client's friends and family.D)Provide the client's requested diet after ensuring the client understands the risks
Answer:
D. Provide the client's requested diet after ensuring the client understands the risks.
Explanation:
https://quizlet.com/159043701/older-adult-practice-test-6-chapters-9-and-10-flash-cards/
The care team should discuss the potential risks of a regular diet with the dysphagic client, and, if the client insists after being informed, consider supervised trial periods of the desired diet. Interventions should respect the client's autonomy, balancing safety and dignity. Hence, option D is correct.
When an older adult with dysphagia, resulting from transient ischemic attacks, expresses opposition to eating minced and pureed foods, the care team should respond respectfully to the client's request. It’s crucial that the client understands the risks associated with eating a regular diet, which includes the potential for aspiration and the development of pneumonia. If, after being informed, the client still wishes to eat a regular diet, the care team—in collaboration with speech therapists, physicians, and dietitians—may consider trial periods of the desired diet with close supervision and appropriate safeguards in place.
America’s drug problem is expensive and ill-advised. In an effort to address the increasing number of drug-using offenders clogging the criminal justice system, ______ were established, especially in urban areas of the United States.
Drug treatment courts (DTC) were established to reduce the increasing number of drug using offenders clogging the criminal justice system.
Explanation:Courts formed to stop drug abuse and related criminal activity of offenders through treatment and rehabilitation directed by the court. Eligible participants undergo treatment instead of punishment/imprisonment. The Court’s multi-disciplinary justice and healthcare systems team monitor their progress.
Compliance to rules is monitored by frequent substance-abuse testing. Successful completion may lead to, dismissal of the criminal case. Recidivism/ non-compliance leads to expulsion.
Which element is used as rat poison and is found in the title of the
Answer:
The rat poison is Arsenic and is found in the title of the murder mystery.
Explanation:
Arsenic was the king of poisons during the 19th century. It was widely used in everyday life and was part of kills, pigments, wallpapers, pesticides and even medications. Its use in agriculture and medicine intensified in the early twentieth century. Currently, its presence in groundwater transforms it into one of the ten most dangerous substances for human health, according to WHO reports. And yet, he has lost his position of honor as king of poisons.
The ease with which it could be obtained in commerce was one of the keys that made arsenic the king of poisons during the nineteenth century. But there were also other factors that are related to the physical, chemical and medical properties of arsenic. With this name, what modern chemists call diarsenic trioxide, arsenious oxide and arsenic oxide (III) were commonly known, and which they usually represent with the formula As2O3. But we will keep here the most traditional denomination: arsenic, without more. It is a white, crystalline powder, which does not differ excessively from substances in everyday life such as flour or sugar, so it is easy to mix it with them. It barely tastes, so it can be supplied at meals without raising too much suspicion. Faced with these rather bland physical and organoleptic traits, arsenic has very notable poisonous properties. It acts on various parts of the human body and leads to a great diversity of symptoms that depend on the dose, the mode of administration and the particular characteristics of the victim. Many of these symptoms resemble other diseases. In the 1830s, when cholera reached European cities, many of the first victims thought they had been poisoned with arsenic and various people were persecuted for these alleged crimes.
As for the title of a mystery and murder movie, "Arsenic and Old Lace" was about women who poisoned and killed the men who visited them by adding arsenic to the wine.
A child being treated with cardiac drugs developed vomiting, bradycardia, anorexia, and dysrhythmias. Which drug toxicity is responsible for these symptoms?
1. Digoxin
2. Nesiritide
3. Dobutamine
4. Spironolactone
Answer:(1). Digoxin
Explanation:
Digoxin is a drug that is administer to patients so as to
help in the improvement in the pumping efficacy of the heart.
The overdose of the drug Digoxin causes toxicity leading to nausea, vomiting, bradycardia, anorexia, and dysrhythmias.
For the drug Nesiritide, its side effects include effects like headache, insomnia, and hypotension.
For the drug dobutamine, dobutamine does not cause nausea or vomiting but may cause hypertension and hypotension.
And finally, the drug Sprironolactone, Spironolactone may cause edema.
A triple-lumen indwelling urinary catheter is inserted for continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral resection of the prostate. In addition to balloon inflation, the nurse is aware that the functions of the three lumens include:
A. Continuous inflow and outflow of irrigation solution.
B. Intermittent inflow and continuous outflow of irrigation solution.
C. Continuous inflow and intermittent outflow of irrigation solution.
D. Intermittent flow of irrigation solution and prevention of hemorrhage.
The correct answer is A: Continuous inflow and outflow of irrigation solution.
Further Explanation:
The lumens will provide for the inflation of the balloon and for the continuous inflow and the outflow of the irrigation solution. When the nurse is preparing to administer the continuous bladder irrigation she will use a triple-lumen "indwelling" catheter. She will then insert this catheter into the patient.
This helps the patient to keep a clean bladder and can also administer medications directly into the bladder of the patient. This is a common procedure used after surgery and in patients with bladder and kidney issues.
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The three lumens in a triple-lumen urinary catheter allow for the continuous inflow and outflow of irrigation solution and to inflate a balloon that keeps the catheter in place.
Explanation:In a triple-lumen indwelling urinary catheter used for continuous bladder irrigation, such as following a transurethral resection of the prostate, the three lumens each feature a distinct function. The first is for the continuous inflow of the irrigation solution, ensuring that the bladder remains flushed and free from potential clots or debris. The second lumen provides a route for the continuous outflow of the irrigation solution, along with any waste materials. The third lumen functions to inflate and deflate the balloon that helps keep the catheter in its correct position within the bladder. Together, these three lumens of the catheter allow for continuous and effective bladder irrigation.
The functions of the three lumens of a triple-lumen indwelling urinary catheter after a transurethral resection of the prostate include continuous inflow and intermittent outflow of irrigation solution. One lumen is used for continuous inflow of the irrigation solution, another lumen allows for intermittent outflow to drain the irrigation fluid and other bladder contents, and the third lumen is used to inflate the balloon that holds the catheter in place.
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You are on the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a car has driven off the roadway and is resting at the bottom of an embankment. The driver is in severe respiratory distress and is unable to speak. His skin is flushed and he has hives. A Medic-Alert bracelet indicates an allergy to peanuts. You notice a candy bar wrapper on the floor of the car. Which of the following should you do first?
A) Perform rapid extrication.
B) Administer high-concentration oxygen.
C) Read the candy wrapper to see if it contains peanuts.
D) Search the patient for an epinephrine auto-injector.
Answer:
Administer high-concentration oxygen.
Explanation:
Respiratory distress may be defined as the medical condition when the fluid gets filled in the airsacs of the lungs. Respiratory distress indicates the medical emergency and shows life threatening situation.
The individual indicates the sign of respiratory distress and peanut allergy. The respiratory distress decreases the amount of oxygen in the organs and the allergy condition increases this reaction. The high concentration oxygen must be provided to the individual and oxygen deficiency can be overcome.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Which of these structures is found in the stomach but nowhere else in the alimentary canal? Which of these structures is found in the stomach but nowhere else in the alimentary canal? an oblique muscle layer mucus-forming cells a lining of columnar epithelium a circular muscle layer
Answer:
An oblique muscle layer.
Explanation:
Stomach is one of the most important organ involved in the process of digestion. The initiation of the protein digestion occurs in the stomach and the acidic environment of the stomach kills the harmful bacteria.
The whole area of the alimentary canal longitudinal layer of the muscle and the circular layer of the muscle. The stomach also contains the additional layer known as the oblique muscle layer that is used for the wringing for itself during food processing.
Thus, the correct answer is option (1).
Imagine that you are part of a study that measures your heart rate and breathing throughout the day. For the most part, your heart rate and breathing only changes when you exercise or are very excited. However, it seems like every time you visit the researcher to get your equipment updated, your heart rate and breathing spike for seemingly no reason. This phenomenon is referred to as:
Answer:
White coat hypertension
Explanation:
This phenomenon is pretty curious and it happens when the patients experience an increment in their tension level just because they are going through an anxiety situation probably due to the clinical setting or just because they are seeing the doctor and his white coat .
Which statement indicates to the nurse that the patient needs additional teaching on oral hypoglycemic agents?
Which statement indicates to the nurse that the patient needs additional teaching on oral hypoglycemic agents?
Answer:
I will take the medication only when I need it.
Option:
Explanation:
To prevent the effect of diabetes on health, the patient must take the medicine of oral hypoglycemic in regular basis. It maintains the euglycemia if taken in regular scheduled way. So if the patient have the thoughts of taking medication of oral hypoglycemic agents only when he or she feels need of it, then nurse must teach the patient about the right way of its treatment.A client is administered methotrexate for the treatment of severe rheumatoid arthritis. Administration of this drug should be performed with particular care because of the associated high risk of a. Intracapsular b. bleeding C. infarctiond. Myocardial
Answer:
hepatotoxicity
Explanation:
Even in the low doses used in rheumatoid arthritis , methotrexate can cause hepatotoxicity. It is recommended by many clinicians serial liver biopsies for patients on long-term, low-dose methotrexate.
Hepatotoxicity means chemical-driven liver damage. Drug-induced liver injury is a cause of acute and chronic liver disease. The liver plays a central role in transforming and clearing chemicals and is susceptible to the toxicity from these agents.
A 49-year-old male was climbing on a truck at a construction site when he fell backward to the ground. He presents with a two-inch linear wound to the top of his head. Bleeding has been controlled and the skull can be seen through the wound. How should you document this injury on the prehospital care report?
Answer:
Laceration.
Explanation:
The wound may occur due to damage in the body tissue part.The climbing on the construction site might cause damage or accident that might be harmful for the individual. The wounds or bleeding is common during such accident. Platelets plays an important role in the blood coagulation.
The individual gets affected and has wound on his top head. The pre hospital care report can be made on the basis of laceration. Laceration is the open wound that might occur due to the damage in the soft tissue and deep tissues are injured.
Thus, the answer is laceration.
A male client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted to an acute care facility. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. Which "related-to" phrase should the nurse add to complete the nursing diagnosis statement?a. Related to visual field deficitsb. Related to difficulty swallowingc. Related to impaired balanced. Related to psychomotor seizures
Answer:c
Explanation:
It affects balance
The appropriate "related-to" phrase to complete the nursing diagnosis statement is Related to visual field deficits. The correct option is a. The nursing diagnosis would be Risk for injury related to visual field deficits.
Visual field deficits can occur with a cerebellar brain tumor and can lead to an increased risk of injury due to difficulties with spatial awareness .by identifying the risk for injury related to visual field deficits, the nurse can implement appropriate interventions to promote safety and prevent accidents during the client's hospitalization.
The nursing diagnosis "Risk for injury related to visual field deficits" means that the client's condition, characterized by impaired visual fields due to the cerebellar brain tumor, poses a risk for accidents or injuries. The nurse's role is to closely monitor the client, implement safety measures, and provide appropriate interventions to minimize the risk and ensure the client's safety during their stay in the acute care facility. These interventions might include using assistive devices, providing adequate lighting, ensuring clear pathways, and educating the client and their caregivers about safety precautions to prevent falls or other injuries.
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Natalie Burns has just arrived for her 1:00 p.m. appointment with Dr. Earl. She informs the healthcare professional that she is there for a follow-up of her hypertension. This is known as Natalie's____________.
Answer:
chief complaint
Explanation: