Answer:
The correct answer is B photosynthesis stores energy,while cellular respiration releases energy.
Explanation:
Photosynthesis is an anabolic process that utilizes the atmospheric CO2 along with water molecule as a electron donor to generate glucose sugar and oxygen gas.Photosynthesis helps to store the light energy in form of chemical energy in the bonds of glucose molecules produced during photosynthesis..
on the other hand cellular respiration is a catabolic process that oxidizes glucose to generate energy in form of ATP along with CO2 and water as a byproduct.
Suppose that, while on a forest hike, you notice a blue fungus and a pink plant growing along the hiking trail. As you continue walking, you observe that if a blue fungus and a pink plant are growing side by side, they are both much larger than if the fungus and the plant are farther apart. What can you hypothesize about the relationship between the fungus and the plant?
Answer:
Symbiosis can be described as a biological interaction between organisms of different species.
There are different forms of symbiosis. A type of symbiosis in which both the organisms benefit from each other is called as mutualistic symbiosis.
The blue fungus and the pink plant are able to grow more in size when placed side by side because they undergo symbiosis. They both help each other and develop a symbiotic relationship which allows both of them to have enhanced growth.
By virtue of their reproductive cycle, all viruses must possess a mechanism for all of the below except exiting the cell. gaining entry into the host cell. using host cell enzymes to translate viral proteins. incorporating their genetic material into the host genome.
Answer:
All viruses possess a mechanism except exiting the cell
Explanation:
There are two main types of reproductive cycle in viruses, the lytic cycle and the lysogenic cycle.
In the lytic cycle, the bacteriophage attaches itself to the host cell through its tail fibers and gain contact with the host cell wall. The tip of the tail make a hole in the bacterial cell wall by means of enzyme lysozyme. Through this hole or point of entry, the viral genome enters the host cell and transcribe some mRNAs to form enzymes over the host ribosomes and degrades the host DNA and mRNAs. It takes over of the entire cellular machinery. Different components combine to form new phages particles or viruses The eclipse period is the period between entry of viral nucleoid into the host cell and the bursting of host cell to release new viruses.
Contrastingly, in lysogenic cycle, the phage DNA does not take over the control of cellular machinery of the host instead produces a repressor and undergoes reduction to temperate or non violent state.
What nervous system components would you expect to find in a cephalized invertebrate such as a beetle?
a) a nerve net a brain.
b) spinal cord.
c) sensory ganglia nerve cords.
d) transverse nerves a brain.
e) ventral nerve cords.
f) segmental ganglia.
Answer:
The correct answer are - A brain, ventral nerve cords and segmental ganglia.
Explanation:
Cephalized invertebrates are the invertebrates that shows a degree of cephalization which is an evolutionary trend in which the organism developed the nerve ganglia, sense organs, and mouth over the generations in more concentrated at the anterior end of the organism.
Insects have a relatively simple nervous system components that invelove segmental ganglia, A well developed brain, and ventral nerve cords.
Thus, the correct answer is - A brain, ventral nerve cords and segmental ganglia.
The adult human brain contains almost ________ of the body's neural tissue. The adult human brain contains almost ________ of the body's neural tissue. 25 percent 68 percent 35 percent 15 percent 97 percent
Final answer:
The adult human brain contains almost 97 percent of the body's neural tissue. It is the control center of the nervous system and organism, weighing about 1.5 kg and occupying a volume of roughly 1.1 L. The brain uses about 20 percent of the body's total energy and primarily relies on glucose for energy.
Explanation:
The adult human brain contains almost 97 percent of the body's neural tissue.
The brain is the control center of the nervous system and the entire organism. It weighs about 1.5 kg and occupies a volume of roughly 1.1 L. The brain is made up of an estimated one hundred billion neurons, each with thousands of synaptic connections to other neurons. It also uses about 20 percent of the body's total energy and primarily relies on glucose for energy.
How many turns of the citric acid cycle are required for the methyl carbon of acetyl coa to be consumed?
Answer:
two turns
Explanation: At the end of glycolytic pathway, One glucose molecule produces two Acetyl-CoA molecules, the energy output of the Kreb's cycle is usually expressed as the product of the two cycles needed to break down both Acetyl-CoA's.
Steps in the Krebs Cycle
The Krebs Cycle releases energy from acetyl–CoA, but the cellular task is to release energy in a steady and useful way. Thus, the pathway (1) links the acetyl group(2-carbon) of Acetyl-CoA to the substrate(4-carbon) to create a 6-carbon molecule;
(2) rearranges the 6-carbon molecule to a more reactive form;
(3) removes one of the carbon molecules of the substrate to form a 5-carbon molecule and releases energy;
(4) removes another of the carbon atoms of the substrate to form a 4-carbon molecule and releases energy; and
(5) rearranges energy; The main point is that the substratum is first extracted and its carbon atoms emitted in the form of CO2, and only then are the atoms rearranged to reconstruct the substratum in the acetate (from the Acetyl–CoA).
To consume the methyl carbon of acetyl-CoA in the citric acid cycle, approximately three turns are required due to the intricate processes involved in carbon atom distribution and conversion.
The citric acid cycle, also known as the Krebs cycle, processes acetyl-CoA, which enters the cycle contributing two carbon atoms. Each turn of the cycle releases two carbon dioxide molecules, but these do not necessarily contain the same carbon atoms contributed by the acetyl group on that turn. It typically takes multiple turns for the methyl carbon specifically (one of the carbon atoms of acetyl-CoA) to be consumed.
For the methyl carbon of acetyl-CoA to be fully released as carbon dioxide, it requires approximately three turns of the citric acid cycle. This is due to the intricate rearrangement and conversion processes within the cycle that distributes the carbon atoms over subsequent rounds.
"" An experiment was performed to determine the role that ATP plays in kinesin movement along microtubules. Kinesin and microtubules were incubated together in a test tube, but instead of ATP, a non-hydrolyzable analog of ATP was added to the tube. What impact on kinesin function do you expect to observe in the presence of this ATP analog?
Answer:
There will be no movement of kinesin protein along microtubules.
Explanation:
ATP or adenosine tri phosphate is an energy rich compound which undergo hydrolysis to generate free energy that is utilized by the cell to carry out various cellular and biological process such as movement of kinesin along microtubules.
Accoeding to the given question if the kinesin and microtubules are incubated with non hydrolyzable ATP analog instead of ATP then there will be no movement of kinesin along microtubules due lack of free energy.
As non hydrolyzable ATP anolog is used it will unable to undergo hydrolysis to generate free energy.
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1. Which of the following are evidences of evolution? *
a. Fossil Record
b. Geographic Distribution of Living Species
c. Homologous Body structures
d. Similarities in Embryology
e. All of the above
2. Which of the following provides evidence that living things have evolved? *
a. Fossil Record
b. Geographic Distribution of Living Species
c. Homologous Body structures
d. Similarities in Embryology
3.What are the structures that have different mature forms but develop from the same embryonic tissues? *
Analogous Body Structures
Transitional Forms
Homologous Body Structures
Fossil
T/F: The wing of a bat, human arm, and leg of a turtle are examples of Homologous Body Structures. *
True
False
What are traces of homologous organs in other species (they are often organs that serve no useful function)?
Analogous Body Structures
Transitional Forms
Homologous Body Structures
Vestigial Organs
Which term means that organisms change over time?
Evolution
Herpetology
Ornithology
Paleontology
What is an example of a vestigial organ?
Ear
Nose
Appendix
Foot
T/F: In their early stages of development, chickens, turtles and rats look similar, providing evidence that they shared a common ancestry.
True
False
Answer:
1:e
2:d
3: homologous structure
4:true
5: vestigial structures
6: evolution
7: appendix
8:true
One of the greatest proofs of evolution is the existence of fossil records.
Evolution refers to the gradual changes that took place in living organisms over time. One of the greatest evidences of evolution is the existence of fossil records.
Homologous Body Structures are the structures that have different mature forms but develop from the same embryonic tissues. It is a true statement that the wing of a bat, human arm, and leg of a turtle are examples of Homologous Body Structures.
The traces of homologous organs in other species in which they no longer serve a function are called vestigial organs. The appendix in humans is a vestigial organ.
It is a true statement that in their early stages of development, chickens, turtles and rats look similar, providing evidence that they shared a common ancestry.
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Explain the importance of microbes. Distinguish between aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration (fermentation). What two processes sustain ecosystems and the biosphere and how are they linked?
Answer: Importance of Microbes - serving to ferment foods, produce fuel, enzymes and bioactive compounds.
Aerobic (fermentation) uses oxygen anaerobic (fermentation) does not use oxygen.
Processes energy flow and nutrient cycling.
(How are they linked?) These two processes are linked through the natural services that are components of the earth.
Microbes are vital for nutrient cycling, decomposition, and bioremediation in ecosystems. Aerobic respiration uses oxygen to produce energy efficiently, while anaerobic respiration (fermentation) occurs without oxygen, producing energy less efficiently but essential in environments lacking oxygen.
Importance of Microbes:
Microbes play a crucial role in various ecological processes and are essential for the maintenance of life on Earth. They are involved in nutrient cycling, such as the fixation of nitrogen from the atmosphere, making it available to plants, and the decomposition of organic matter, which recycles nutrients back into the ecosystem. Microbes are also used in industrial processes, such as the production of antibiotics, enzymes, and biofuels. Additionally, they are vital components of the human microbiome, influencing human health by aiding in digestion, producing vitamins, and protecting against pathogens.
Aerobic Respiration vs. Anaerobic Respiration (Fermentation):
Aerobic respiration is a metabolic process in which cells use oxygen to convert glucose into energy (ATP). The complete breakdown of glucose results in the release of carbon dioxide, water, and a large amount of energy. The general equation for aerobic respiration is:
[tex]\[ C_6H_{12}O_6 + 6O_2 \rightarrow 6CO_2 + 6H_2O + \text{energy (ATP)} \][/tex]
Anaerobic respiration, or fermentation, occurs in the absence of oxygen. In this process, glucose is only partially oxidized, and the final electron acceptor is an organic molecule, such as pyruvate, which is converted into various products like ethanol, lactic acid, or hydrogen gas, depending on the organism and conditions. The energy yield in anaerobic respiration is much lower than in aerobic respiration. A general equation for fermentation might be:
[tex]\[ C_6H_{12}O_6 \rightarrow 2C_2H_5OH + 2CO_2 + \text{less energy (ATP)} \][/tex]
Two Processes Sustaining Ecosystems and the Biosphere:
The two fundamental processes that sustain ecosystems and the biosphere are photosynthesis and respiration. Photosynthesis is the process by which plants, algae, and certain bacteria convert light energy into chemical energy, storing it in glucose. This process also produces oxygen as a byproduct, which is essential for aerobic respiration. The general equation for photosynthesis is:
[tex]\[ 6CO_2 + 6H_2O + \text{light energy} \rightarrow C_6H_{12}O_6 + 6O_2 \][/tex]
Respiration, as previously discussed, is the process by which organisms convert nutrients into energy (ATP). This energy is used to fuel cellular activities. Respiration can be aerobic or anaerobic, depending on the presence or absence of oxygen.
Link Between Photosynthesis and Respiration:
Photosynthesis and respiration are linked in a cyclical manner. Photosynthesis captures energy from sunlight and stores it in organic compounds like glucose, which are then used by organisms during respiration to release energy for various life processes. During photosynthesis, oxygen is produced, which is necessary for aerobic respiration. Conversely, the carbon dioxide released during respiration is used as a substrate for photosynthesis. This interdependence forms the basis of energy flow and matter cycling within ecosystems and the biosphere as a whole.
Genetic variation leads to genetic diversity in populations and is the raw material for evolution. Biological systems have multiple processes, such as reproduction, that affect genetic variation. They are evolutionarily conserved and shared by various organisms.
Which statement best represents the connection between reproduction and evolution?
A) Plants that use sexual reproduction are rare since this type of reproduction in plants does not contribute to genetic diversity.
B) In order to increase genetic diversity for evolution in sexually reproducing organisms, mutations must occur in the zygote after fertilization.
C) Since prokaryotic organisms reproduce asexually, there is no mechanism for them to add genetic diversity for evolution.
D) Sexual reproduction increases genetic variation because random mutations can be shuffled between organisms.
Answer:
D) Sexual reproduction increases genetic variation because random mutations can be shuffled between organisms.
Explanation:
Sexual reproduction involves the combination of two gametes from two different parents one from the male parent and another from female parents. So as the two different gene combination occurs in sexual reproduction, therefore, it increases the genetic variation.
Also, the random mutation that occurs in the DNA can be shuffled between organisms during the fertilization event of reproduction. This increases the genetic variation because new alleles and genes get added to the gene pool. So good mutation is selected naturally and through reproduction, it passes to a new generation. So the right answer is D.
Mutation and sexual reproduction are the two main mechanisms that contribute to genetic diversity in a population. Mutation introduces new alleles and can have various effects on the phenotype, from reducing fitness to providing a beneficial advantage. Sexual reproduction brings together unique combinations of alleles from two parents, resulting in genetic diversity among offspring.
Explanation:Genetic diversity in a population comes from two main mechanisms: mutation and sexual reproduction. Mutation, a change in DNA, is the ultimate source of new alleles, or new genetic variation in any population. The genetic changes caused by mutation can have one of three outcomes on the phenotype. A mutation can affect the phenotype of the organism in a way that gives it reduced fitness-lower likelihood of survival or fewer offspring. Alternatively, a mutation may produce a phenotype with a beneficial effect on fitness. And, many mutations will also have no effect on the fitness of the phenotype; these are called neutral mutations. Mutations may also have a whole range of effect sizes on the fitness of the organism that expresses them in their phenotype, from a small effect to a great effect. Sexual reproduction also leads to genetic diversity: when two parents reproduce, unique combinations of alleles assemble to produce the unique genotypes and thus phenotypes in each of the offspring.
Which of the following statements about species, as defined by the biological species concept, is (are) correct?
I. Biological species are defined by reproductive isolation.
II. Biological species are the model used for grouping extinct forms of life.
III. The biological species is the largest unit of population in which successful reproduction is possible.
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and III
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
Answer:
C) I and III
Explanation:
The biological species concept defines species as a group of individuals that can interbreed together to give rise to fertile and viable progeny. Therefore, a biological species consists of one or more populations whose members are able to interbreed among themselves to produce fertile progeny but can not interbreed with the members of other biological species. Reproductive isolation is the criteria to classify organisms on the basis of the biological species concept.
The concept cannot be applied to the extinct organisms or the organisms that do not reproduce sexually.
Final answer:
Biological species are defined by reproductive isolation and are the largest unit of population in which successful reproduction is possible.
Explanation:
The correct statements about species, as defined by the biological species concept, are:
Biological species are defined by reproductive isolation. This means that individuals of different species cannot reproduce successfully with each other, leading to the formation of distinct species.
The biological species is the largest unit of population in which successful reproduction is possible. This means that individuals within the same biological species have the ability to interbreed and produce viable, fertile offspring.
Therefore, the correct answer is option C) I and III.
Superoxide turns toxic to cell membrane by association with free radical of ________.A) Nitric oxideB) Hydrogen peroxideC) Sulfur dioxideD) Aminoxyls
Answer:
Nitric oxide.
Explanation:
Superoxide may be defined as the compounds that contain the superoxide anions like oxygen anion (O2-). This is also known as the reactive oxygen species.
These anions are generated by the immune system to kill the pathogens. These superoxide include the species like NO, NO2. These super oxide anions are toxic to the cell membrane and also plays an important role in the process of ageing.
Thus, the correct answer is option (A).
What aspect of dna structure makes it possible for the proteins of nucleotide excision repair to recognize many different types of dna damage?
Answer:
The regularity of DNA's overall structure.
Explanation:
DNA is the genetic material of almost all the living organisms but RNA may also acts as the genetic material in some viruses only. The mutation in DNA may cause characteristic disease in individual.
The nucleotide excision repair mechanism excise the wrong nucletide and replace with the correct nucleotide. The overall DNA structure like its nucleotide sequence, the size and angles between the DNA base pair, its methylation helps in recognizing different DNA type.
Thus, the correct answer is the regularity of DNA's overall structure.
The structure of DNA allows the nucleotide excision repair mechanism to identify and fix various types of DNA damage. The mechanism works by unwinding the DNA, removing the damaged segment, and replacing it with correct nucleotides using the complementary strand as a guide. Then, the DNA strand is resealed and rejoined to its complement.
Explanation:The aspect of DNA structure that enables the recognition of various types of DNA damage is especially linked to the nucleotide excision repair mechanism. In this process, erroneous or damaged bases, such as those that may arise from UV-induced thymine dimers, are identified and excised by certain repair proteins. The DNA molecule is unwound, and the damaged segment gets removed by making an incision on both the 3' and 5' ends of the damaged base.
After the removal of the defective nucleotides, the DNA molecule undergoes reparation, during which the correct nucleotides are added in alignment with the complementary strand. This repair, the fill-in of the correct nucleotides, is facilitated by an enzyme named DNA polymerase. Post that, the DNA strand gets sealed and is allowed to rejoin its complement. The ends of the newly synthesized fragment are attached to the remaining DNA using another enzyme called DNA ligase, which forms a phosphodiester bond.
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Receptors found in signal transduction
a.are always found in membranes.
b.are always found in the cytoplasm.
c.are always found in the nucleus.
d.can be found either in the membrane, cytoplasm, or nucleus.
Which of the following statements are true regarding fatty acids?
I. Fatty acids with fewer than 14 carbons are the most common.
II. Synthesis of fatty acids occurs in 2 carbon units.
III. Fatty acids with conjugated double bonds are the most common type of fatty acid.
IV. In higher plants and animals, C16 and C18 species predominate.
Answer:
Option (I) and (IV).
Explanation:
Fatty acids may be defined as the carboxylic acid that contains the long aliphatic chain. Fats are generally of two types - saturated fatty acid and unsaturated fatty acid.
The fatty acids are generally synthesized in the two carbon units. This helps in the proper synthesis of fat. The fatty acids that are most common in plants and animals are palmittic acid or the fats that contain C16 and C18 species predominate.
Thus, the correct answer is option (I) and (IV).
Cholecalciferol (an inactive form of vitamin D) must undergo 2 conversion steps before it becomes the active form of vitamin D, calcitriol. Those steps take place in the _____ and the _____
Answer:
Those steps take place in the liver and the kidneys.
Explanation:
Cholecalciferol, which is the inactive form of vitamin D, is first transported in the blood via vitamin D binding protein (DBP) to the liver.
Upon reaching the liver, cholecalciferol will undergo chemical changes, forming calcidiol, the deposit form of vitamin D.
After that, calcidiol goes to the kidneys, which will form calcitriol, the metabolically active form of vitamin D.
Cholecalciferol must be converted in both the liver and the kidney to become the active form of vitamin D, known as calcitriol. In the liver, it becomes calcidiol, and then in the kidney, it is finally converted to calcitriol, regulating vital bodily processes.
Explanation:Cholecalciferol, an inactive form of vitamin D, must undergo two conversion steps before it becomes the active form of vitamin D, calcitriol. These steps take place in the liver and the kidney.
In the liver, cholecalciferol is hydroxylated to become 25-hydroxycholecalciferol (calcidiol), also known as 25(OH)D. This is the main circulating form of vitamin D in the blood. From there, it travels to the kidney, where it undergoes another hydroxylation step. The kidneys convert calcidiol into 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol), which is the biologically active form of vitamin D. This transformation is crucial for regulating calcium and phosphorus levels in the blood and is important for maintaining healthy bones and teeth among other physiological processes.
Charles Darwin developed the theory that explains how new species develop based on evidence from many different kinds of scientific inquiry. Darwin’s theory can only be accurate if the earth is very old. The scientists who provided evidence for the earth’s old age were most likely: a) astronomers such as Edwin Hubble. b) geologists such as James Hutton. c) biologists such as Francis Crick. d) physicists such as Marie Curie.
Answer:
The correct option is b) geologists such as James Hutton
Explanation:
Charles Darwin brought forward the theory that new species developed from older species. The species which were better adapted to live in an environment survived and passed on their traits to the offsprings.
As evolution took long periods of time hence, for evolution to occur the Earth must be very old. Geologist such as James Hutton worked out to find the history of the Earth and James Hutton believed that processes such as sedimentation and erosion could be used to diagnose the history of the Earth.
Answer:
b
Explanation:
Give an example of how the rock cycle can change one type of rock into another
The three main rock types are igneous, metamorphic and sedimentary. The three processes that change one rock to another are crystallization, metamorphism, and erosion and sedimentation. Any rock can transform into any other rock by passing through one or more of these processes. This creates the rock cycle
Answer: in the picture
Explanation:
A penetrating stab wound to the heart wall that causes blood to leak into the pericardial cavity would result in A penetrating stab wound to the heart wall that causes blood to leak into the pericardial cavity would result in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. endocarditis. cardiac tamponade. myocardial infarction.
Answer:
The correct answer is cardiac tamponade.
Explanation:
Cardiac tamponade is the cause of the pericardial space being filled with liquid. This syndrome occurs in emergencies, as is the example of a stab penetrating wound and if it is not treated urgently it can result in pulmonary edema, shock and even death.
What happens in this case is that the pericardium receives a high pressure which causes that the pumping of blood it is not carried out correctly, and the heart is compressed decreasing the filling during diastole.
The most appropriate procedure to treat this type of emergency is a pericardiocentesis that allows studying and draining the fluid lodged in the pericardium so that the pressure can decrease.
Ah! I smell cookies baking! I cannot wait to taste them: warm and sweet! Smell and taste are closely related senses. Identify the one statement that does not describe these two senses. A) If an organism does not have a receptor for a particular odor molecule, for that organism, the odor has no smell. B) Both smell and taste use chemoreceptors, which means they are both sensing the chemical environment. C) If one’s sense of smell is not functional, then the sense of taste will also not function. D) The senses of smell and taste combine at the back of the nasal passage
Answer:The answer to this question is D: The senses of smell and taste combine at the back of the nasal passage.
When Thomas Hunt Morgan crossed his red-eyed F₁ generation flies to each other, the F₂ generation included both red- and white-eyed flies. Remarkably, all the white-eyed flies were male. What was the explanation for this result?
A) The involved gene was on the X chromosome
B) The involved gene was on the Y chromosome.
C) The involved gene was on an autosome.
D) Other in.ilc-spccific factors influence eye color in flies
E) Other fc.nalc-sjxcific factors influence eye color in flics.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-A
Explanation:
Thomas Hunt Morgan performed the experiment in 1910 on the Drosophila which explained the role played by the chromosomes in heredity. When Morgan crossed red-eyed flies he observed that F₂ flies included both red ad white-eyed flies in which the males are white-eyed only.
Morgan concluded that the genetic factor which controlled the eye color was present on the same chromosome which determined the sex of the flies. This indicated that the gene in involved on the X chromosome and the male is hemizygous for the trait.
Thus, option-A is the correct answer.
The explanation for the observed outcome of Thomas Hunt Morgan's fruit fly experiment is that the gene for eye color was on the X chromosome. The white-eyed flies were all male due to inheriting this gene from their mothers, as males only have one X chromosome and thus cannot mask the expression of recessive traits.
Explanation:The explanation for the observed phenomenon in Thomas Hunt Morgan’s experiment pertains to the genes and where they are located. In this case, the correct explanation is A) The involved gene was on the X chromosome. This is because in fruit flies, which is what Morgan used, the sex is determined by the XY system, where males are XY and females are XX. If a male receives a recessive gene (like the one for white eyes) it will be expressed because he has no other allele on a second X to mask it. This is why all the white-eyed flies were male in Morgan’s F₂ generation, as they inherited the white-eye gene on their X chromosome from their mother.
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It became apparent to Watson and Crick after completion of their model that the DNA molecule could carry a vast amount of hereditary information. Which of the following characteristics of DNA is responsible for this?:
a. sequence of bases
b. sugar-phosphate backbones
c. complimentary base pairs
d. side groups
e. 5-carbon sugars
Answer: a. Sequence of bases
Explanation:
James Watson and Francis Crick, discovered the famous double helix structure or spiral staircase, found in DNA.
DNA is a molecule composed of a sugar-phosphate backbone, which consists of 5-carbon deoxyribose sugars and phosphate groups. The monomers of DNA are called nucleotides, and each one contains a phosphate group, a sugar group and a base. A sequence of bases is a succession of letters representing the primary structure of DNA with the ability to carry information. The letters are A, C, G, and T, which symbolize the four nucleotide subunits of a DNA (adenine, cytosine, guanine, thymine) And there is a complementary base pairing which is the phenomenon where guanine always bonds to cytosine, and adenine always binds to thymine.
The sequence of bases in DNA determines the sequence of amino acids in a particular protein, which will have a specific structure and function.
What is this an example of:
a) a cow who's coat color is roan (red and white)
b) A red flower and a white flower produce a pink flower
c) In rabbits there are 4 different versions of the gene for coat color
Answer:
A) a cow who's coat color is roan (red and white) : Co- dominance
B) A red flower and a white flower produce a pink flower: Incomplete dominance
C) In rabbits there are 4 different versions of the gene for coat color- Multiple alleles
Explanation:
Co-dominance can be described as a phenomenon in which the two different phenotypes of the parents can be seen in the offspring produced by them. For example, In the option A, the cow had a parent with red coat colour and a parent with a white coat colour. Both these traits were seen in the offspring.
Incomplete dominance is a phenomenon in which parents of two different phenotypes give rise to a new phenotype in the offspring which is not present in both of the parents.
Classify a fiber tract that communicates between the left prefrontal lobe and the left parietal lobe.
Answer:
The answer is association fibers
Explanation:
Association fibers communicate between gyri in the same cerebral hemisphere.
The gyri is a ridge tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemisphere.
Despite inhabiting overlapping ranges, the western spotted skunk and the eastern spotted skunk do not interbreed, partly because the western species breeds in early fall and the eastern species breeds in late winter to early spring. This is an example of _______ isolation.
A. chemical
B. gametic
C. post-zygotic
D. temporal
E. mechanical
Answer:
D. temporal
Explanation:
Temporal isolation is a reproductive barrier that occurs when two similar members of a biological population occupying the same habitat breed at different times of the day or at different seasons. When this occurs, the two similar members would be unable to mate with each other. Over time, both individuals become entirely two different species through this evolutionary mechanism
Which meiosis stages is functionally the most similar to mitosis?
Answer:
Stages of Meiosis II
Explanation:
Meiosis is a type of cell division that results in the four gamete cells, with each of the cells reduced by half of the number of chromosomes of the parent cell.
Mitosis is another type of cell division that results in two identical daughter cells, with each having the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.
Meiosis is divided into meiosis I and meiosis II. Meiosis I is completely distinct from mitosis because every change that distinguishes meiosis from mitosis occurs in meiosis I. Meiosis II is similar to mitosis in its order of activities. Some of them include:
- Prophase II: This involves condensation of chromosomes and formation of new spindle fibres. The similarity in this stage is that the breaking and rejoining of the arm of a chromatid, a process called crossing-over, does not occur unlike in Meiosis I.
- Anaphase II: sister chromatids (replicated pair of chromosome joined by a centromere) separates. This is similar to what occurs in mitosis unlike Meiosis II, where homologous pairs of chromosomes are pulled apart by spindle fibres moving two sister chromatids to each pole.
-Cytokinesis: After the cytokinesis of meiosis II, each daughter cell has the same number of chromosome as the parent cell that divided e.g. a parent cell with n gives rise to two n cells. This is similar to the cytokinesis of mitosis (equal division) unlike Meiosis I, where the number of chromosomes of the daughter cell has been reduced by half (reduction division) e.g a parent cell with 2n gives rise to two cells with n each.
The registered nurse is teaching the student nurse about care provided for clients according to the five level triage system of the Emergency Severity Index (ESI). Which statement made by the student nurse indicates effective learning? Select all that apply:
a. "Clients in the ESI-2 category do not have life-threatening injuries."
b. "Clients who are in the ESI-4 category present with stable vital signs."
c. "The ESI-1 clients should be seen by the physician within 10 minutes."
d. "Clients with severe respiratory distress fall within the ESI-1 category."
Student nurse indicates effective Clients who are in the ESI-4 category present with stable vital signs, and Clients with severe respiratory distress fall within the ESI-1 category.
Answer: Option B & D
Explanation:
The ESI has developed by many hospitals from all over the countries in the world. It stands for Emergency Severity Index that is a 5 level algorithm categorizing the patient's degree of emergency for the treatment.
They can be mentioned as ESI 1-5 and in terms of Immediate, high risk, medium risk, low risk and stable. Respiratory distress falls within ESI-1 because the chance of pursuing life at risk is more than high-risk situations.
ESI-4 is a low-risk state where the patient can be little stable. This state shows the signs of being stable that is only one resource has to cured to get stable.
Robert’s fraternal twin sister Desiree has a diagnosis of schizophrenia. Armend’s identical twin brother, Nigel, also has a diagnosis of schizophrenia. Robert, compared with Armend, probably has a ______ chance of having a diagnosis of schizophrenia. A. lower
Answer:
The correct option is lower.
Explanation:
Schizophrenia can be described as an inherited disease and it is a type of mental illness. As Armend has an identical twin brother with diagnosis of schizophrenia hence, he will have more chances than Robert whose fraternal twin sister has schizophrenia.
As fraternal twins develop from two different eggs hence, the chances in them having the same disease will be lower. Identical twins develop from the same egg, hence they will have more chances of having the same inherited disease.
Robert, who has a fraternal twin with schizophrenia, likely has a lower chance of being diagnosed with schizophrenia compared to Armend, who has an identical twin with the condition, because identical twins share more genetic material than fraternal twins.
Explanation:The question asks about the likelihood of Robert, who has a fraternal twin sister with schizophrenia, compared to Armend, who has an identical twin brother with the same diagnosis, in having schizophrenia himself. From a genetic point of view, Armend, having an identical twin with schizophrenia, has a higher chance of developing the disorder compared to Robert, who has a fraternal twin sister with the condition. This is due to the fact that identical twins share all of their genetic material, while fraternal twins only share about half, similar to any siblings. The statistics also show that environmental factors play a role, but the genetic risk is significant.
Based on the provided information, which highlights that adoptees with a high genetic risk have a significantly higher likelihood of developing schizophrenia when raised in disturbed environments compared to those raised in healthy environments, it's important to note that while the environment is influential, genetics carry substantial weight in the risk for developing schizophrenia. However, in the context of this question, we are comparing fraternal to identical twins, which implicates the genetic factor as the primary variable. Therefore, it is likely that Robert has a lower chance of having a diagnosis of schizophrenia compared to Armend.
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A young child suffers a debilitating condition that includes progressive degeneration of the motor axons that innervate the masseter muscle. Which of the following muscles is most likely to exhibit the same fate?
A. Genioglossus
B. Tensor veli palatini
C. Orbicularis oris
D. Levator veli palatini
E. Stylopharyngeus
Answer:
The correct answer is option B. "Tensor veli palatini".
Explanation:
Masseter muscle plays an important role in chewing solid foods while the tensor veli palatini acts elevating the palate and preventing that food goes into the nasopharynx. A progressive degeneration of the motor axons that innervate the masseter muscle will likely produce a similar effect in the tensor veli palatini muscle. Not only both muscles have functions during chewing of food, but also both muscles are controlled by similar motor axons.
You decide to plant a garden in your backyard. You dig up a strip of grass in a sunny spot. When you have finished digging up the grass, but you haven't planted anything, you have created a(an) _____ in the lawn.
a. ecological disturbance
b. new community
c. None of the answer options is correct.
d. ecological disturbance and a new community
Answer:
The correct answer is a. ecological disturbance
Explanation:
Any event that disrupts the ecosystem by changing the structure of biotic communities and abiotic elements is called ecological disturbance. So ecological disturbance has a devastating effect on communities that like in that ecosystem.
These disturbances can be natural like disturbance from tsunami, volcanic eruptions, landslide, flood, etc. Disturbance created by human activities comes under artificial ecological disturbance for example disturbance created by dams.
Here the disturbance is created by digging up the grass which changes the structure of biotic and abiotic elements of that ecosystem therefore it is an example of ecological disturbance.
Final answer:
Digging up the grass for a new garden creates an ecological disturbance. The immediate effect is the disruption of the existing ecosystem, potentially allowing new species to colonize through ecological succession.
Explanation:
When you have finished digging up the grass to plant a garden, but have not yet planted anything, you have created an ecological disturbance in the lawn. The correct answer to the question is option a. For reference, an ecological disturbance is an event that disrupts ecosystem, community, or population structure and changes resources, substrate availability, or the physical environment. As described in ecological studies, when a disturbance occurs, it often provides opportunities for new species to colonize and potentially creates a new community over time through the process of ecological succession. However, immediately after the disturbance and before any new species have established themselves, the primary effect is the disturbance itself, not the creation of a new community.
Furthermore, to address the follow-up question related to ecological roles, the function of a life-form within a community is called a niche, which is option A.
How many unique gametes could be produced through independent assortment by an individual with the genotype AaBbCCDdEE?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 32 (e) none of the above
An individual with the genotype AaBbCCDdEE can produce 8 unique gametes through independent assortment, considering the independently assorting genes Aa, Bb, and Dd.
Explanation:The student has asked how many unique gametes could be produced through independent assortment by an individual with the genotype AaBbCCDdEE. To answer this, we must first consider the alleles that can segregate independently. The genotype AaBbCCDdEE has three genes where independent assortment can occur: Aa, Bb, and Dd. CC and EE do not affect the calculation since they are homozygous and only provide one type of allele. The number of unique gametes is calculated by raising the number of possible allele combinations for a single gene to the power of the number of genes that can segregate independently. In this case, each gene with different alleles (Aa, Bb, and Dd) can produce 2 different gametes (A or a, B or b, D or d). Since we have three such genes, the number of unique gametes is 2^3, which equals 8. Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 8.