Answer:
2-4 Years
Explanation:
To become an oncology nurse, a student must finish an undergraduate degree or diploma program in nursing and obtain licensure as a registered nurse (RN). Diploma and associate degree programs take 2-3 years to complete, while bachelor's degree programs are four years in length
Becoming an oncology nurse generally requires 4-6 years of education and practical experience after high school. This includes obtaining a nursing degree, passing the NCLEX-RN, and then specializing in oncology nursing, which requires additional certification.
Becoming an oncology nurse typically involves several years of education and training. Firstly, you must obtain a nursing degree, which can be an Associate Degree in Nursing (ADN) taking about two years or a Bachelor of Science in Nursing (BSN) taking about four years. Afterward, passing the National Council Licensure Examination (NCLEX-RN) is necessary to become a registered nurse. It is then common for registered nurses to gain a few years of experience in a general nursing role before specializing in oncology. Oncology nursing certification, which requires two years of experience as an RN, at least 2,000 hours of adult oncology nursing practice, and 10 hours of approved continuing education, must then be achieved. In total, the process can take approximately 4-6 years post-high school, depending on the educational path and the amount of practical experience acquired.
Oncology nurses play a crucial role in patient care, especially in the context of terminal illnesses such as cancer. They not only provide medical treatment but also emotional support to patients and their families in trying times. Professional development in this field is ongoing, as nurses often continue learning about different disease states and treatments throughout their careers, which significantly enhances their nursing knowledge and skills. For instance, working in end-of-life care can broaden a nurse's expertise across multiple health conditions and healthcare system intricacies, not just in oncology.
What is the primary role of communication in enhancing health?
Communication prevents a person from having cancer.
Communication helps medical staff determine a healthcare plan.
Communication ensures that a person will get great health care.
Communication prevents medical staff from misdiagnosing a condition.
Answer: Communication helps medical staff determine a healthcare plan.
Explanation:
This is the best option out of all of these choices. Communication is key for a healthcare plan because the individual wanting healthcare has to voice what they want and their needs.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Exam Attempt 2
14. Name the best storage location for Chemicals:
OA. Next to the dishwashing station in the kitchen area
OB.In a non-food storage closet on the bottom shelf
OC. In your establishment's public restroom
OD. In a non-food storage closet on the top shelf
Submit Answer
Answer: The correct answer is OD, in a non-food storage closet on the top shelf.
Explanation:
Chemicals, of any kind, should be stored away from any food preparation stations, away from silverware and dishes, and away from the kitchen area. The chemicals need to be out of reach of children and put on a high shelf. Chemicals will need their own storage container or closet. All chemicals need to be labeled correctly and put away after each use. The phone numbers for poison control need to be listed nearby and in view of employees.
Answer:
SHOULD NOT BE ON TOP,in case you knock it over
Explanation:
Select the correct answer.
In the preparation stage, individuals are aware of the problem, but they still believe the positive aspects outweigh the negative aspects. They are
beginning to think about changing, but they have made no commitment to change.
Points
How could you best help people with eating disorders?
Answer:
A.
Explanation:
How much exercise should teens do daily
Answer:
At least 60 mins
Explanation:
You go into a back bedroom at a party to pick up your coat, and find someone passed out on the floor laying on his side. you try to wake him up, but he doesn’t move. what do you do next?
Answer:
check to see if he is breathing
Explanation:
always make sure the person is breathing first. if not breathing begin CPR while dialing 911. if breathing and just unresponsive call 911
A person is said to be passed out if they might have taken any drugs or alcohol. If the person doesn't wake then one should check the breathing followed by CPR if needed, or should call EMS.
What is EMS?EMS is the emergency medical service are paramedics that provide urgent medical treatment to patients. They are called in emergencies where the person needs to be hospitalized.
If a person is passed out then, one should pinch the skin causing him pain, and if they still don't wake then one should call EMS and not leave the person till the help arrives.
Therefore, in an emergency, EMS should be called.
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List some of the most common problems for which people go to a doctor when seeking medical advice and an examination
Answer:
colds/Viruses
the flu
allergies
gas buildup
major heartburn
addiction
explain the relationship between the key terms in each of the following pairs
1. aggressive and assertive
2. self concept and self esteem
3. emotion and mental health
Aggressive and assertive denote types of behavior with the former being conflict-causing and the latter not. Self-concept and self-esteem both relate to one's view of themselves and usually, a positive self-concept results in high self-esteem. Lastly, emotions affect our mental health significantly, with persistent negative emotions potentially harming it.
Explanation:The relationship between the key terms in each of the pairs is as follows:
Aggressive and Assertive: These terms represent different types of behavior. Assertive communication involves expressing your point of view in a clear, non-conflict-causing way, respecting yourself and others. However, Aggressive behavior tends to disregard the feelings and opinions of others and can often lead to conflict.Self Concept and Self Esteem: These are closely connected as they both relate to our perception of ourselves. Self-concept is a person's perception or image of their abilities and uniqueness. On the other hand, Self-esteem is a person's overall sense of their value or worth. A positive self-concept often leads to high self-esteem.Emotion and Mental Health: There is a strong relationship between these two terms. Emotions greatly influence our mental health. Frequent negative emotions can have a detrimental effect on our mental health, whereas positive emotions can enhance our mental well-being.Learn more about Psychological Concepts here:https://brainly.com/question/34138052
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Which term defines a person one sees occasionally or only knows casually?
stranger
acquaintance
peer
friend
Answer:
acquaintance
Explanation:
you don't know a stranger at all, and you know a friend really well
so probably acuantainance
What is the name of the division of U.S. Public Health Services which is in charge of
investigation and control of various diseases?
a. NCCLS
b. OSHA
c. CDC
d. ASCP
cdc
stands for center of disease control
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) is the division of the U.S. Public Health Services in charge of investigating and controlling various diseases.
Explanation:The division of U.S. Public Health Services that is responsible for the investigation and control of various diseases is the CDC, or the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
This agency is a significant entity in monitoring public health in the United States. It conducts research, provides education, and establishes policies regarding health issues.
For example, during a disease outbreak, the CDC would take a lead role in identifying the disease, providing guidance to health professionals and the public, and coordinating efforts to control its spread.
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What best describes an act of self-management? taking positive risks that benefit one’s overall health monitoring negative behavior through the use of strong social networks practicing health-enhancing behaviors and reducing negative influences and risk practicing abstinence of alcohol, drugs, and tobacco
Answer:
Reducing negative influences and risk, practicing abstinence of alcohol, drugs, and tobacco
Practicing health-enhancing behaviors and reducing negative influences and risk. Therefore option C is correct.
Self-management involves proactively taking charge of one's well-being and making informed choices to maintain and enhance their health.
Practicing health-enhancing behaviors and reducing negative influences and risk, best encapsulates this concept. This approach encompasses actions like engaging in regular exercise, maintaining a balanced diet, managing stress, and avoiding harmful habits.
It involves conscious decisions to promote physical, emotional, and mental health while minimizing risks that could compromise well-being.
This proactive stance empowers individuals to lead healthier lives, displaying a combination of awareness, responsibility, and action towards their own health and wellness.
Therefore option C is correct.
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Why do red meats have a high nutritional value?
Subatomic particles that do not provide any charge are called _____.
Subatomic particles that do not have any charge are known as neutrons and neutrinos. Neutrons are part of an atom's nucleus and neutrinos are elementary particles similar to electrons but lack charge.
Explanation:Subatomic particles that do not provide any charge are called neutrons. Neutrons are elementary particles found in the nucleus of an atom. They carry no electrical charge, unlike protons, which carry a positive charge, and electrons, which carry a negative charge. For example, an atom of helium contains two protons, two neutrons, and two electrons. The protons and electrons each carry opposite charges that balance each other out, leaving the neutral neutrons to add mass to the nucleus without affecting the atom's total charge.
Another particle that does not have charge is the neutrino. Neutrinos are subatomic particles that are very similar to electrons but do not carry electric charge. They are incredibly small and rarely interact with other particles, hence they are challenging to detect.
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Why should the DXA be completed before the brachytherapy?
Explanation:
Brachytherapy is a type of cancer radiation therapy/ treatment which involves the placement of radioactive material within specific regions of the body. This maybe utilized to deliver more specific cancer treatments in affected areas. Available within higher doses in comparison to whole body radiation treatments.
Bone density tests called DEXA (dual energy x-ray) scans measure the bones density by focusing on specific regions namely the spine and hip bones This diagnoses and can even determine a person's risk of developing developing osteoporosis which is a condition in which the bones are weakened and fragile
The test uses small doses of ionizing radiation (X-rays) to provide internal scans.
DXAs are also used prior to cancer treatment in order to potentially diagnose cancer present in the bone and to monitor bone health throughout treatment uses a very small dose of ionizing radiation to produce pictures of the inside of the body (usually the lower (or lumbar) spine and hips) to measure bone loss.
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DXA, which measures bone density, should be completed before brachytherapy to evaluate the risk of radiation-related bone damage. This step aids in developing a safe and effective treatment plan.
Explanation:The DXA (Dual-energy X-ray Absorptiometry) should be completed before brachytherapy because DXA is used for bone density measurement. Brachytherapy, on the other hand, is a type of radiotherapy where a sealed radiation source is placed inside or next to the area requiring treatment. Before implementing brachytherapy, especially when the pelvic area or prostate is involved, a DXA scan is necessary to measure the bone density and evaluate the risk of radiation-related bone damage. This precautionary measure is essential for developing an effective and safe treatment plan.
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Which of the following is not a
function of Public Health
organizations?
A. Treating patients.
B. Providing immunizations.
C. Keeping health statistics.
D. Working to prevent and control epidemics.
Hi !
Which of the following is not a
function of Public Health
organizations?
C. Keeping health statistics.
The type of movements made by the TMJ is
4. Heartburn is caused by
a. seepage of gastric acid into the esophagus.
b. seepage of gastric acid into the cardiac muscle.
c. seepage of bile into the stomach.
d. seepage of salivary amylase into the stomach.
Answer:
The answer is A.
Explanation:
Heartburn happens because stomach acid becomes backed up in the esophagus, which moves food from your mouth to your stomach.
The burning sensation is usually the result of stomach acid leaking up into the esophagus through a flaw in a valve known as the lower esophageal sphincter (LES), which connects the esophagus and the stomach. When the LES doesn't tighten properly or becomes weakened, stomach acid can flow back into the esophagus, causing a burning feeling.
What is outbreak at Watersedge?
Answer: A public health discovery game
Explanation:
The query seems to explore the reasons behind and connections between certain events that could lead to public health concerns, referencing environmental damage and infrastructure failure. Confirming any links requires a multidisciplinary approach, incorporating historical, environmental, and health studies.
Explanation:The question regarding 'Outbreak at Watersedge' appears to refer to a hypothetical scenario possibly linked to historical events or environmental studies, as the provided excerpts do not directly relate to a specific outbreak named 'Outbreak at Watersedge'. However, based on the context given, examining potential causes and links between described scenarios can include factors such as environmental damage, infrastructure failure, and public health concerns. For instance, the breakage of moorings and water pipes, and the displacement of a piling due to a north mooring line could lead to water contamination, which is a common precursor to public health crises. The historical note on the Winnebago Outbreak of 1827 suggests that investigating historical records and environmental impacts can offer insights into possible causes and connections between seemingly disparate events. Confirming suspected links would involve interdisciplinary approaches, combining historical research, environmental science, and public health studies to trace the origins and impacts of such events.
which victim of cardiac arrest requires smaller aed pads
Answer:
children
Explanation:
The victim of cardiac arrest with complication such as lack of response, no pulse and no breathing, small AED pads are required.
Explanation:
An AED, elaborately called automated external defibrillator is an electronic gadget that can investigate a heart musicality to decide whether an electric shock is required for somebody in heart failure.
In the event that a adult or a youngster over age 8 years is in heart failure (not responsive, not breathing and no heartbeat), cardiopulmonary revival (CPR) is initiated with chest compressions, and small AED pads.
When then AED is accessible, chest compressions and salvage breathing is initiated by one person whereas another person turns on the AED and appends the cushions.
In the event that the AED says "stun exhorted", the current shock is given followed by CPR.
Which body part should be lifted when clearing a person's airway during CPR?
A)arm
B)chest
C) shoulder
D)chin
Place one hand on the person's forehead and put the fingers of your other hand under the chin. Press down on the forehead and lift out the chin so that the mouth is slightly open.
All of an organisms genetic information can be obtained within the chromosomes in a single cell almost every kind of cell in an organism has the same number of chromosomes for example most human cells have each 46 chromosomes which is a type of cell that contains 23 chromosomes in a human?
Answer:
Genetic information are derived from the chromosome of a single cell.
Explanation:
Each organism has a particular number of chromosome in their cell. Almost every kind of organism has the similar number of chromosomes, as in human. Human cells have 46 chromosomes which have 23 pairs, known as homologous pairs.
Human sperms have haploids i.e. one homologous chromosome for each pair. When the process of sperm fusion takes place the genetic components of the sperm unite themselves into a single set of diploid chromosomes.
The two chromosomes of mother and father in a pair are quite similar and carry same genetic information. However the gene types are different.
The pattern by which our lives be measured is
Answer:
what god measured
how can you most effectively change your body fat percentage?
Answer:
Going onto a diet plan and excising daily for a certain amount of time each day for so and so days
Explanation:
What about their job sounds appealing to you and what would you enjoy about this job?
Answer:
Hi, please give us the background of this question so we know what job you're referring to.
Explanation:
Which activity is BEST for weight management?
Answer:
240 to 300 calories doing light activity such as cleaning house or playing baseball or golf.
370 to 460 calories doing activity such as a brisk walk (3.5 mph), gardening, biking (5.5 mph), or dancing.
580 to 730 calories doing activity such as jogging at a pace of 9 minutes per mile, playing football, or swimming laps.
Which of the following is NOT part of the male reproductive system?
A. Seminiferous tubules
B.Vas deferens
C. Epididymis
D. Bartholin’s glands
Answer: i believe its the Vas deferens
2 Points
Which of the following is not a risk associated with using legal drugs without
medical supervision?
A. Taking inappropriate or dangerous dose amounts,
O
B. Ignoring or not recognizing the side effects.
C. Paying too much on the black market instead of getting a
prescription
D. Not having a guarantee of purity or potency of the drug,
SUBMIT
Answer:
C. paying too much on the black market instead of getting a prescription
Explanation:
this will not happen with illegal prescription
The option that is not associated with the risk of using legal drugs without medical supervision is paying too much on the black market instead of getting a prescription. Thus, the correct option is C.
What is Medical Supervision?Medical supervision may be defined as the process of regular coordination, direction, and inspection by a physician of an individual's exercise of delegation to deliver medical services to patients.
Paying too much on the black market instead of getting a prescription may be considered an illegal activity that can not have any risk associated with using legal drugs without medical supervision.
Therefore, the correct option for this question is C.
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Which of the following is not a function of the male reproductive system
The function that is not part of the male reproductive system is B, nourishing the growing embryo, which is a role of the female reproductive system. The male reproductive system's functions include producing sperm, transporting them, maintaining the cells, and secreting testosterone.
The question asks which option is not a function of the male reproductive system. The correct answer is B: The function of nourishing the growing embryo is carried out by the female reproductive system. This differentiates from the main functions of the male reproductive system, which are to produce sperm, transport them to the female reproductive tract for potential fertilization, maintain these cells, and secrete male sex hormones, like testosterone.
Testosterone is responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics and is a crucial hormone in the male reproductive system. Sperm is produced in the seminiferous tubules of the testes, and the entire system is geared toward ensuring that these sperm can effectively be delivered to the female reproductive system.
The correct question is:
Which of the following is not a function of the male reproductive system?
A. The secretion and production of male sex hormones
B. The function of nourishing the growing embryo is carried out by the female reproductive system.
C. To produce, transport, maintain, and to nourish sperm
D. Discharging of the sperm within the female reproductive tract
blank are formed and run by parents who wish to take part in their children's preschool experiences
Answer:
Parent Cooperatives
Explanation:
Parent cooperatives are formed and run by parents who wish to take part in their children's preschool experiences
Parent cooperatives are educational institutions that are established and managed by the parents of the children who attend them. The primary goal of these cooperatives is to provide a preschool experience that aligns with the parents' values and educational philosophies. By being actively involved in the management and operation of the cooperative, parents can directly influence the curriculum, teaching methods, and overall environment in which their children learn and grow.By working together, parents can create a nurturing and enriching educational environment that reflects their collective vision and goals for their children's development."
Please Help ASAP!!
1. Which of the following Child Care Center policies would be most effective in helping infants and toddlers resolve the trust vs. mistrust crisis? (1 point)
a. Follow a new routine every day so the children do not become bored.
b. Rotate teachers among the children frequently to stimulate interest in learning.
c. Establish continuity of care by assigning teachers to children.
d. Make sure each child is able to spend several hours alone each day.
2. Solitary play is characteristic of __________ year-old children. (1 point)
a. 2- to 2½-
b. 2½- to 3½-
c. 3½- to 4½-
d.4½- to 5½-
3. Teaching infants and toddlers requires more __________ than teaching preschoolers and school aged children. (1 point)
a. emotional investment
b. physical care
c. specialized training
d. lesson planning
4. Which of the following is an example of telegraphic speech? (1 point)
a. “More.”
b. “No eat.”
c. “Daddy wants lunch.”
d. “I don't want that.”
5. Which of the following statements best describes the role of assessment in teaching infants and toddlers? (1 point)
a. Assessment is not an appropriate activity for teaching infants and toddlers.
b. Initial screenings with parents represent the full extent of assessment for infants and toddlers.
c. There is no reliable way to access the cognitive development of infants and toddlers.
d. Recording developmental milestones is an effective assessment method for infants and toddlers.
6. Children typically speak their first words between __________ months of age. (1 point)
a. 6 and 12
b. 12 and 18
c. 24 and 30
d. 30 and 36
7. Which of the following activities is typical of the cognitive development levels of infants and toddlers? (1 point)
a. pretending that a black is a truck
b. repeatedly dropping a block to see what happens
c. cooperating with peers to build a block tower
d. counting the total number of blocks in a tower
8. Right- or left handedness typically emerges by age (1 point)
a. one.
b. two.
c. three.
d. four.
9. __________ are typically associated with the reflexive phrase of motor development. (1 point)
a. Infants
b. Toddlers
c. Preschool-age children
d. Primary-age children
10. One-year-old Sam is able to stand and speak he is in the __________ phrase of motor development. (1 point)
a. reflective
b. rudimentary
c. fundamental
d. specialized
Answer:
I got a HORRIBLE SCORE. So people can know the correct answer....
Explanation:
1. C - Establish continuity of care by assigning teachers to children.
2. A - 2- to 2½-
3. B - Physical Care
4. B - "No Eat"
5. D - Recording developmental milestones is an effective assessment method for infants and toddlers.
6. B - 12 and 18
7. B - repeatedly dropping a block to see what happens
8. C - three
9. A - Infants
10. B - rudimentary
In order to help infants and toddlers resolve the trust vs. mistrust crisis, the most effective Child Care Center policy would be to establish continuity of care by assigning teachers to children. Solitary play is characteristic of 2½- to 3½-year-old children. Teaching infants and toddlers requires more specialized training than teaching preschoolers and school-aged children.
Explanation:1. Establish continuity of care by assigning teachers to children.
This policy would be most effective in helping infants and toddlers resolve the trust vs. mistrust crisis. By having the same teachers consistently care for the children, they can develop a sense of trust and familiarity, which is important for their emotional well-being.
2. 2½- to 3½-year-old children
Solitary play is characteristic of children in this age range. They prefer to play alone and may engage in activities like exploring objects, building with blocks, or drawing without actively seeking interaction with others.
3. specialized training
Teaching infants and toddlers requires more specialized training than teaching preschoolers and school-aged children. Because early childhood development is critical, educators need to understand the unique needs and development of infants and toddlers to provide appropriate care and support.
4. 'No eat.'
This is an example of telegraphic speech. Telegraphic speech refers to the use of short, simple phrases or sentences that omit nonessential words. In this example, the words 'no' and 'eat' convey the message without including additional words like 'I' or 'want.'
5. Recording developmental milestones is an effective assessment method for infants and toddlers.
Assessment in teaching infants and toddlers can be done by recording their developmental milestones. These milestones include physical, cognitive, and social-emotional achievements, such as sitting up, babbling, and imitating gestures. Regularly monitoring and documenting these milestones can provide valuable information about a child's progress and help identify any areas that may need additional support.
6. 12 and 18
Children typically speak their first words between 12 and 18 months of age. This is an important milestone in language development and signifies the beginning of expressive language skills.
7. repeatedly dropping a block to see what happens
This activity is typical of the cognitive development levels of infants and toddlers. During this stage, they are curious about cause and effect, so repeating actions like dropping a block allows them to observe and learn about the consequences of their actions.
8. Two
Right- or left-handedness typically emerges by age two. At this age, children begin to show a preference for using one hand over the other when engaging in fine motor activities like drawing or eating.
9. Infants
Infants are typically associated with the reflexive phase of motor development. During this phase, their motor movements are automatic and reflexive, such as grasping objects or sucking on a bottle.
10. fundamental
One-year-old Sam, who is able to stand and speak, is in the fundamental phase of motor development. This phase marks the development of foundational motor skills like sitting, standing, and walking.
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