Humans have 46 chromosomes in each somatic cell. a. How many chromosomes does a child receive from its father? b. How many autosomes and how many sex chromosomes are present in each somatic cell? c. How many chromosomes are present in a human ovum? d. How many sex chromosomes are present in a human ovum?

Answer:

D) Pseudomonas

Explanation:

Pseudomonas is the group of gram negative bacteria which are considered opportunistic pathogens. This means that they infect in presence of an already existing ailment like cystic fibrosis. They usually target immuno compromised people.

Normally they are present on soil, water and skin. They are a major cause of hospital acquired infections like sepsis syndrome and ventilator-associated pneumonia. They thrive in moist conditions hence can be found on medical equipment causing cross infections in hospitals. They are resistant to many antibiotics hence the treatment is difficult.

Answer:

A. True

Explanation:

The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system stabilizes blood pressure and volume. The system constricts arteries and increases the amount of blood that the heart pumps, as well as the reabsorption of sodium (Na+) by the nephrons. Also, it decreases the glomerular filtration rate. All this increases blood volume and pressure.

On the other hand, ANP decreases blood volume and pressure by increasing the glomerular filtration rate and decreasing reabsorption of sodium by nephrons. Finally, this hormone inhibits the release of renin, aldosterone, and ADH.

Answer:

A) Bacteria cannot carry out RNA splicing to remove introns and so produced a much larger protein.

Explanation:

Human is a eukaryote and has both introns and exons in its genes. Transcription of human genes forms a primary transcript that undergoes post-transcriptional modification.

One of the important even during the post-transcriptional modification is the removal of introns and joining the exons together to make a mature mRNA which in turn serves as the template for protein synthesis.

E. coli is a prokaryote and does not have the enzymatic machinery required for the splicing of introns.

Cloning of a complete human gene into the E. coli cells would not form the respective human protein since the bacterial cells would not be able to splice the introns from the primary transcript.

Answer:

The correct answer is option c. Haploid spores.

Explanation:

In the plants, spores are normally unicellular and haploid and produced by the process of meiosis in the sporophytic body of the plant.

These haploid spores undergo the mitotic division and develop a new individual called gametophyte that forms gametes eventually.

Thus, the correct answer is option C. Haploid spores.

In plants, meiosis produces haploid gametes and haploid spores, both of which carry a single complete set of chromosomes.

In plants, haploid gametes and haploid spores are produced by the process of meiosis. Meiosis is a type of cell division that results in four daughter cells each with half the number of chromosomes of the parent cell, as in the production of gametes and plant spores. Haploid cells contain one complete set of chromosomes, whereas diploid cells carry two complete sets of chromosomes. Hence, haploid gametes and haploid spores are the ones produced by meiosis in plants.

https://brainly.com/question/30614059

#SPJ5

Answer:

The correct answer is option B. has a defective allele and normal phenotype.

Explanation:

Genetic carrier or the hereditary carrier is an organism or a person that has a recessive allele for a particular trait or character (generally mutation) but does not exhibit the trait or any character related to the trait.

The carriers are normal in the sex-linked characters in comparison to the autosomal traits. Females are generally the carrier for sex-linked characters and carry the allele to the next generation.

Thus, the correct answer is option B. has a defective allele and normal.

Answer:

None of the above.

Explanation:

t RNA (transfer RNA) contains the anticodon that are complimentary to the codon of the mRNA molecule. These codons codes for the particular amino acid by the process of translation.

The tRNA contains the anti-codon UGA. The UGA anti-codon is a stop codon and does not code for any amino acid. The UGA codon acts as the signal for the termination of the translation process.

Thus, the correct answer is option (d).

Answer:

(B) Measure the number of tumors formed on plants, which are exposed to Agrobacterium for different lengths of time.

Explanation:

The problem question should be something like:

how long a plant must be exposed to these bacteria to become infected?

so the experimental design needs to include a time variable. The other answers do not include this variable.

Answer: A. Nerve cells in the skin feed the information to the hypothalamus.

Explanation:

The hypothalamus is a part of the brain which controls the body temperature. The nerve cells present on the skin sends the signals to the hypothalamus when the body experience warm external temperature, which sends the signals to the sweat glands so that it's secretion makes the body cool. When the body feels cold then the hypothalamus sends the signal to the muscles to produce shivering to keep the body warm.

Answer:

c. connective tissues

Explanation:

Adipose tissue is a connective tissue which is composed of cells called adipocytes. Since it a loose connective tissue located beneath the skin and around internal organs.

The main function of this tissue is to store fat, although it also cushions and insulates the body. It provides protective covering around internal organs. Since it stores fat it also functions as a reserve of nutrients.

Adipose tissue also acts as an endocrine organ. It has the ability to make a number of biologically active compounds that regulate metabolic homeostasis.

Answer:

It is a learned behavior.

Explanation:

Typically, tool use implies a complex behavior that requires training and observing someone else who already has that particular ability. Thus, this ability shall be learned by one generation from the previous one, which shows and teaches this behavior to the next one.

Answer:

Dissolve 111 grams of CaCl2 in 1 Liter of water and it would give 1 M solution.

Explanation:

This is simple, if you want to make 1M solution of any substance just take one mole of that substance and dissolve it in one decimeter cube or one liter of water.

And one mole of a substance equal to the molecular weight of that substance taken in grams.

So you have to dissolve 111 grams of CaCl2 in one liter water and it would make 1 M solution of CaCl2.

To prepare a 1 M solution of a substance, you need to dissolve the molecular weight of the substance (expressed in grams) in enough water to make 1 Liter of solution. Therefore, to make a 1 M solution of CaCl2, dissolve 111 grams of it in less than 1 Liter of water and then add more water until the volume is 1 Liter.

To make 1 Liter of a 1 M (Molar) solution of CaCl2(Calcium Chloride), which has a molecular weight of approximately 111g/mol, you would need to dissolve 111 grams of CaCl2 in enough water to make 1 Liter of solution.

This is because the molarity of a solution is defined as the number of moles of solute per liter of solution. In this case, 1 mole of CaCl2 is 111g, so to have 1 M solution, you need 1 mole (or 111g) of CaCl2 per 1 Liter of solution. Therefore, you should add 111g of CaCl2 to less than 1 Liter of water, then add water until the volume reaches 1 Liter.

https://brainly.com/question/31879558

#SPJ3

Answer:

True

Explanation:

The thylakoid membrane of chloroplast has electron carriers embedded in it. During light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, the electrons move from water molecules to the PSII and then through electron carriers to the PSI and finally to NADP+.

Movement of electrons through the intermediate carrier is accompanied by the pumping of protons from stroma to the thylakoid lumen. This creates an electrochemical gradient along the thylakoid membrane.

The protons are moved back from the thylakoid lumen into the stroma down the concentration gradient through proton channels known as "CFo".

As the protons move down their concentration gradient, the energy is used to phosphorylate the ADP into ATP.

Merkel discs and tactile corpuscles are found in the hairless skin layers like in lips and finger tips among the body parts.

Explanation:

Merkel cells was first discovered by Friedrich Merkel in 1875 and hence the cells were named after him. They are found in the epidermal layer of the cell.

They are found in the layer of the skin which helps in transmitting tactile signals. There are various types of tactile mechanoreceptors that work together during the process of touch. The Markel cells are encapsulated when touched.

Merkel discs and tactile corpuscles, types of mechanoreceptors found in the skin, are most commonly found in areas with high tactile sensitivity like the fingertips, lips, and genital areas. These areas generally require higher density of these receptors for tasks that demand detailed tactile feedback.

Merkel discs and tactile corpuscles are types of mechanoreceptors found in the skin. These play a crucial role in the sense of touch and help us detect pressure, vibration, and texture.

The areas of the body where you would expect to find the most Merkel discs and tactile corpuscles are those that have a high degree of tactile sensitivity, such as the fingertips, the lips, and the genital areas. These areas require a greater density of Merkel discs and tactile corpuscles to provide the precision required for tasks that demand detailed tactile feedback.

The fingertips, hands, and face (especially the lips) are primary locations for these sensory receptors because our hands and face are often used to explore our environment and require fine tactile discrimination. The genital areas also have a high concentration of these receptors due to their role in sexual response.

https://brainly.com/question/33455124

#SPJ6

Answer:

This disorder is caused by a recessive allele, its inheritance is sex-linked.

Explanation:

The disorder affects boys born to unaffected parents, this means that at least one of them has to be a carrier of the allele which causes the disease. So, if the allele was dominant, it would express in parents and sons. But, in this case, only is expressed in sons, so it can´t be dominant. Moreover, this condition has a sex-linked inheritance because it is always seen in boys and never in girls. This happens due to boys only have an X chromosome, so if they inherit the recessive allele of the disease, they will express it. On the other hand, girls have two X chromosomes, so if they inherit one copy of the recessive allele, they will be carriers and they won't be affected.  

This disorder is never seen in females because they need to have two copies of the recessive allele. However, to have double copy, they should inherit one copy from their mothers and one copy of their fathers, but boys with the allele are affected and they die in early teens without having progeny.  Therefore, a girl can't have a "carrier-father", so they will never have two copies to express the disorder.

Answer:

A dice generally has 6 sides, numbered from 1 - 6. Answer all the following:

(a) There is only one side number 6 out of the 6 sides. The probability would be 1/6.

(b) There are 3 sides that have an even number (2, 4, 6). The probability would be 3/6. Simplify. Divide 3 to both the numerator and denominator:

(3/6)/(3/3) = 1/2

1/2 would be your simplified answer.

(c)There are 2 numbers divisible by 3 (3, 6). The probability would be 2/6. Simplify. Divide 2 from both the numerator and denominator:

(2/6)/(2/2) = 1/3

1/3 would be your simplified answer.

(d) You have 2 dices. You are trying to roll for 2 6's. There are one 6 in each dice. Remember, one dice has the probability of 1/6 to get a 6. The two dices are independent variables, meaning that one dice would not affect the other. Multiply the two fractions together:

(1/6)(1/6) = (1 * 1)/(6 * 6) = 1/36

1/36 would be your answer.

(e) You have 2 dices. One has to roll a odd number, while the other a even number.

Remember, there are 6 sides:

1, 3, 5 are the odd sides (3 odd sides in all)

2, 4, 6 are the even sides (3 even sides in all)

You have a 1/2 chance of rolling an odd number on one dice, and 1/2 a chance to roll an even number on the other. Multiply the two numbers together:

(1/2)(1/2) = (1 * 1)/(2 * 2) = 1/4

1/4 is your answer.

(f) You are trying to roll matching numbers. Take only ONE pair of matching numbers. (for example, 1). In this case, it is the same as (d). Multiply the probability of getting 1 (out of 6 sides) with two dices worth of sides:

(1/6)(1/6) = (1 * 1)/(6 * 6) = 1/36

1/36 would be your answer.

(g) You are rolling for numbers over 4 for both of the dices (5, 6) Remember, there are 6 side in all. The fraction for numbers over 4 on a dice is 2/6, or 1/3. You have 2 dices, so multiply two fractions:

(1/3)(1/3) = (1 * 1)/(3 * 3) = 1/9

1/9 would be your answer.

~

Final answer:

The probabilities of specific outcomes when rolling dice vary, from rolling a single number like a 6 at 1/6 chance, to more complex scenarios like rolling matching numbers on two dice at 1/6. These examples help illustrate basic principles of probability through the lens of a simple, everyday random experiment.

Explanation:

Understanding probabilities with dice throws covers various basic probability concepts. Here's a breakdown of each part of the question:

a) The probability of rolling a 6 on a single die is 1/6, as there is one favorable outcome out of six possible outcomes.

b) An even number (2, 4, or 6) has a 1/2 probability of being rolled because there are three favorable outcomes out of six.

c) The chance of rolling a number divisible by 3 (either a 3 or a 6) is also 1/3, as there are two favorable outcomes out of six.

d) For rolling two 6s with a pair of dice, the probability is 1/36, since each die has a 1/6 chance of landing on 6, and the outcomes are independent.

e) Rolling an even number on one die and an odd number on the other has a probability of 1/2, considering the independent outcomes and that half the numbers on a die are even, and half are odd.

f) The chance of rolling matching numbers on both dice is 1/6, as there are six possible matching outcomes (1-1, 2-2, and so on) out of 36 total outcomes.

g) Rolling two numbers both over 4 (either 5 or 6) has a probability of 1/9, since there are four favorable outcomes (5-5, 5-6, 6-5, 6-6) out of 36 possible outcomes.

These calculations are fundamental to understanding how probabilities work in simple random experiments like dice rolling.

The correct answer is A. True

Explanation:

The external genitalia or vulva includes different organs and structures such as the inner lips, the mons pubis, the urinary meatus, among others that are external rather than internal as it occurs in the case of the uterus, the cervix or the ovaries. All of these structures are linked mainly to reproduction or the urinary system in the case of the urinary meatus. There, it is true the female external genitalia is collectively called the vulva as all the organs and structures in this zone are commonly known by this name.

The term  refers to the collective external female genitalia, including the labia majora and minora, , and the openings of the urethra and. Therefore, the answer to the question is true.

The term is indeed used in biology and health to refer to the collective external female genitalia. This includes anatomical structures such as the labia majora (outer lips), labia minora (inner lips), and the openings of the urethra . So in answer to the question, the female external genitalia are collectively called the , we can confidently affirm that this is true.

https://brainly.com/question/33252890

#SPJ11

Answer:

Apoptosis does not involve:

c. lysis of the cell

Explanation:

Apoptosis is a programmed cell death that occurs under normal physiological conditions and in a controlled manner. Normally seen in cell turnover, embryogenesis, also involved in processes of immune, nervous and endocrine systems.

The main morphological and biochemical changes seen during the apoptosis are the fragmentation of DNA by endonucleases, nuclear, chromatin and cytoplasmatic condensation, apoptotic bodies formation (membrane bound-vesicles form of cell parts) and the phagocytosis (digestion) of those bodies by the scavenger cells.

Apoptosis is regulated by cell- signaling pathways, the caspases, a family of cysteine proteases, are the ones involved in the process.

In the process there is no lysis of the cell as this could lead to a inflammatory response (just happens in necrosis) which would affect contiguous cells, and will involve immune cells. In apoptosis there is just a membrane blebbing, but it does not loss its integrity.

Apoptosis is the programmed cell death process involving DNA fragmentation, cell-signaling pathways, and digestion of cellular contents by scavenger cells. However, it does not involve the lysis of the cell which is associated with necrosis.

Apoptosis, a form of programmed cell death, entails several processes. These include: a. fragmentation of the DNA, which triggers the cell's self-destruct mechanism; b. cell-signaling pathways, which relay the message to commit self-destruction; and d. digestion of cellular contents by scavenger cells, which consume and clean away the debris left behind by the dying cell. However, process c. lysis of the cell is not part of apoptosis. In lysis, the cell burst and spills its contents into the surrounding environment, which is a characteristic of another type of cell-death called necrosis.

https://brainly.com/question/32900670

#SPJ11

Answer:

Answer is D

Explanation:  Experiments in food industry have demonstrated that Clostridium botulinum spores are highly resistant to radiation, so then Clostridium botilinum in canned food,must be controlled by high temperatures (around 120 Celsius degrees)or acid pH (lower than 4,7) in canned food.

Final answer:

The incorrect statement is that cans of sauerkraut are usually irradiated. Instead, the salt and acidic pH inhibit the growth of C. botulinum, and pressure canning is used to destroy the spores.

Explanation:

The statement regarding the control of Clostridium botulinum in canned sauerkraut that is not correct is:

c. cans of sauerkraut are usually irradiated to destroy any spores or bacteria present in the can

The correct methods for ensuring the safety of canned sauerkraut involve the salt in the sauerkraut inhibiting the growth of C. botulinum, and the acidic pH preventing the botulinum spores from germinating. Furthermore, while pressure canning is a recommended practice as it reaches high temperatures sufficient to destroy C. botulinum spores, irradiation is not a standard practice for sauerkraut. The natural fermentation process and adequate canning procedures both play significant roles in making canned sauerkraut safe from botulism.

Answer: The correct answer is option c.

Explanation:

ATP synthase is an enzyme present in inner mitochondrial membrane which catalyses the formation of ATP.

It gets energy directly from chemiosmosis, that is, diffusion of protons from inter-membrane space into mitochondrial matrix through ATP synthase.

The flow of electrons down the electron transport chain help in building the proton concentration gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane.

The proton then diffuse down the concentration gradient provides the ATP synthase with energy required for synthesis of ATP.

The immediate energy source that drives ATP synthesis by ATP synthase during oxidative phosphorylation is the:

During the ATP synthase, there is a movement of the enzyme which is responsible for the synthesis which forms the adenosine triphosphate.

As a result of this, energy is released from the chemiosmosis which moves the protons from where they are plentiful, to where they are needed .

This causes the H+ concentration gradient to move across the gradient which holds the ATP synthase.

Therefore, the correct answer is option C.

Read more here:

https://brainly.com/question/12123982

Answer:

The 4 major stages of the cell cycle are M phase, G1 phase,S phase, and G2 phase.

The stages includes interphase are G1 phase, S phase, and G2 phase.  

Explanation:

The cell cycle is a 4 stage process that leads to cell division. In eukaryotic cells, genome replication is coordinated with the cell cycle. Hence 2 copies of the entire genome are available when the cell divides.  

The dividing cells undergo repeated cycles of metaphase, when nuclear and cell division occurs and the interphase where DNA replication occurs combined known as the cell cycle. The 4 stages of the cell cycle are M-phase (mitosis), G1 Phase (gap 1), S-phase (synthesis phase), and G2 phase (gap 2).

The interphase is also known as the resting phase. But it is a preparatory phase for cell division. During this phase, histone proteins are formed and centrioles divide to form 2 new centrioles.

Interphase has 3 phases of the cell cycle except for M-phase. These are the G1 phase, S phase, and G2 phase.

G- phase: It is the postmitotic gap phase. It occurs at the end of the mitotic cell division. RNA and proteins are synthesized in this phase but not the DNA.  

S-phase: During this phase, DNA is synthesized. In this period DNA content of the nucleus is doubled.  

G2 - phase: This is the premitotic gap phase. Here synthesis of RNA and protein continues. The DNA synthesis stops in this phase.

M-Phase: It is the mitosis period when the nucleus and cell divide.

All human cell division takes 20 hrs to complete. G1 phase takes 9 hrs, and S-phase takes 8 hrs to complete. G2 phase completes in 2 hrs and the M phase takes only 45 min. The G1 and S phase is the longest phase in the cell division.

Final answer:

The cell cycle consists of four major stages: G1, S, G2, and M phase. Interphase, which prepares the cell for division, includes G1, S, and G2. During G1, the cell grows; in S, the cell replicates its DNA; and in G2, the cell prepares for mitosis.

Explanation:

The cell cycle consists of four major stages: G1, S, G2, and M phase. Each of these stages represents a part of the process through which cells duplicate and divide.

Interphase

Interphase is a stage in the cell cycle where the cell prepares for division and includes three phases: G1, S, and G2. During the G1 phase, the cell grows and performs regular functions. The S phase, or synthetic phase, is crucial as the cell replicates its DNA. Finally, in the G2 phase, the cell undergoes further growth and prepares for mitosis.

Distinctive Events of G1, S, and G2 Phases

G1: Cell growth and normal functions continue. It is essentially the cell's preparation phase for DNA replication.

S phase: DNA replication occurs, ensuring that each new cell will have a complete set of genetic information.

G2: Final preparations for mitosis, including further cell growth and production of proteins necessary for cell division.

Mitosis (Cell Division)

Mitosis is the process of dividing the replicated DNA between two new cells. This involves spindle fibers that help segregate chromosomes to opposite sides of the cell. Mitosis comprises several stages leading to the distribution of identical genetic material to daughter cells.

The four major stages of the cell cycle are G1, S, G2, and M phase.

Interphase includes the G1, S, and G2 stages.

The G1 phase is the period of cell growth before DNA replication, the S phase is when DNA replicates, and the G2 phase is when the cell makes final preparations for mitosis.

Answer:

The correct answer is option c. "formation of protocells that use DNA to direct the polymerization of amino acids".

Explanation:

The polymerization of amino acids is a complex biological function that involves multiple proteins and cofactors working together at different locations in the cell. Even though there are some scientific advances in the production of synthetic protocells (cell like structures made from synthetic particles), the formation of protocells able to synthesize amino acids from DNA directly has not been accomplished.

Answer:

H+

Explanation:

Hemoglobin is the major protein of red blood cells. It has many exposed amino groups and carboxylic groups at its surface. These NH3 and COOH groups serve as weak acids and bases respectively and allow hemoglobin to serve as a buffer to maintain the pH of the RBC cytoplasm.

As the exposed amino groups of hemoglobin protein bind to the H+ ions, the free H+ concentration of the cytoplasm of RBC is reduced leading to a buffer action to maintain the pH.

Answer:

1/128

Explanation:

In a diploid individual, 2ⁿ possible gametes can be produced, where n is the haploid chromosome number.

From those possible gametes,

The probability that an individual spore will contain a set of chromosomes all of which came from the male gamete will be:

Final answer:

The probability that an individual spore of Polytrichum commune will contain chromosomes solely from the male gamete is 1/128 or about 0.78%.

Explanation:

In the life cycle of the moss Polytrichum commune, with a haploid chromosome number of 7, the probability that an individual spore will contain a set of chromosomes all of which came from the male gamete is 1/128 or about 0.78%. This is because during fertilization, a haploid male gamete fuses with a haploid female gamete to form a diploid zygote. The zygote then develops into a sporophyte, which is a diploid multicellular organism. This sporophyte will then produce haploid spores through meiosis. Assuming no recombination, the spores will each receive a random assortment of chromosomes from the two sets present in the diploid cells. Since meiosis involves the random segregation of each pair of homologous chromosomes, the probability for each chromosome to come from the male gamete is 1/2. Given there are 7 chromosomes, we calculate this probability as (1/2)⁷ which equals 1/128.

Answer:  

Companion cell is a type of specialized parenchyma cell, which is located in the phloem of the flowering plants.

Each of the companion cell is usually associated with the sieve element. The main function of the companion cell is uncertain but it regulates the activity of sieve tube.

It plays a major role in the loading and unloading of the sugar molecules into the sieve element. As the sieve tubes do not have nucleus and ribosomes so they need companion cell to help in the transportation of sugar molecules.

Answer:

d. The possession of feathers by both major clades of non-avian dinosaurs allowed them to survive the swings in temperature seen through the Mesozoic

Explanation:

The possession of feathers provided dinosaurs with a major advantage: mesothermy. This kind of metabolism is a transition form between cold- (ectothermy) and warm-blooded (endotherm), increasing their adaptation capabilities as the climate changed. The Mesozoic saw the breaking up of Pangaea first into two landmasses (Laurasia and Gondwana) and more individual landmasses towards the end.

a. The late Devonian extinction left many ecological niches open for non-avian dinosaurs to fill.

This cannot be the right answer since the Devonian extinction did not occur during the Mesozoic. The Permo-Triassic extinction did open many ecological niches, but these were exploited by all ornithodirans (meaning crocodiles, dinosaurs, and pterosaurs).

b. Non-avian dinosaurs produce eggs with hard shells which provides protection against desiccation

This is an advantage that relates to the success of amniotes (all vertebrates except for amphibians), and it played an important role in vertebrate evolution during the Late Devonian.

c. Non-avian dinosaurs were al small and so didn' t require much vegetation to survive.

Dinosaurs occupied several size scales, from very small to the most gigantic forms. Additionally, not all of them were herbivores. Although herbivory evolved independently in dinosaurs at least three times (Sauropodomorpha, Thyreophora, Neornithischia), the first dinosaurs were carnivores.

e. The evolution of a bi-directional tidal breathing respiratory mechanism allowed them to outcompete other groups of vertebrates.

This respiratory mechanism evolved at the beginnings of reptile evolution (as early as the Pensylvannian in the Carboniferous). It consists of having two influxes (exhalation and inhalation) of air into the lungs through the same channel. Fish, for instance, have an unidirectional breathing respiratory mechanism were the water enters through the mouth and leaves through the gills, were the oxygen is filtered. Dinosaurs already inherited this breathing mechanism.

Answer:

A. True

Explanation:

Each homologous chromosome pair consists of two homologous chromosomes; one maternal and the other paternal. Prophase-I of meiosis-I includes synapsis (pairing) of homologous chromosomes.

The paired homologous chromosomes are aligned at the equator of the cell during metaphase-I.

During anaphase I, the homologous chromosomes separate from each other due to the dissolution of the synaptonemal complex and move towards opposite poles.

The segregation of homologous chromosomes of a homologous pair is random and creates different combinations of alleles in the daughter cells.

Answer:

The most prominent types of membrane transport are 1) Passive 2) Active 3) Endocytosis/exocytosis.

Explanation:

1) Passive Transport-

It can be further classified into-

a. Diffusion- In diffusion small molecules or lipid soluble molecules pass through the membrane of phospholipid from their high concentration to the areas of their lower concentration.

b. Osmosis- In this process water molecules move through a membrane which is selectively permeable, from their higher concentration to their lower concentration.

c. Facilitated diffusion- In this process molecules take help of the protein channels to move across the membrane.

2) Active Transport- In this process the cell uses its energy(ATP) to move the substance across against their concentration gradient.

3) Endocytosis and Exocytosis( For movement of large particles)-

The cells take up the substance from outside by a process called Endocytosis. Endocytosis can be further classified into-

Phagocyytosis- if the substance taken up is solid

Pinocytosis- If the substance taken up is fluid

Exocytosis- the cell excretes by exocytosis

Answer:

Option (d).

Explanation:

Equilibrium may be defined as the state of  the equality on both the sides of the reaction. Different types of equilibrium are physical equilibrium, chemical equilibrium and dynamic equilibrium.

Chemical equilibrium may be defined as the equilibrium in which the reactants and products concentration remains constant with time. The rate of the backward reaction is equal to the rate of forward reaction.

Thus, the correct answer is option (d).

The statement that correctly describes a chemical reaction at equilibrium is that the rates of the forward and reverse reactions are equal. This means that the reactions are still taking place, but there is no net change in the concentrations of the reactants or products. The equilibrium does not imply that the concentrations of reactants and products are equal, or that the reaction is irreversible.

The statement that correctly describes any chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium is:  'The rates of the forward and reverse reactions are equal. When a chemical reaction is at equilibrium, it does not mean that the concentrations of the products and reactants are equal (Option A), or that the forward and reverse reactions have halted (Option C). Instead, the forward and reverse reactions continue to take place, but at equal rates, meaning there is no net change in the amounts of the reactants or products. Lastly, reaching equilibrium does not make a reaction irreversible (Option B). A reaction at equilibrium can be disturbed, and the system can shift to either make more reactants or products in response.

https://brainly.com/question/14926771

#SPJ6

Answer:

The protein Spo11 performs an essential function in starting the process of recombination. If yeast exhibits a mutation on spo11- allele, it turns non-functional and it cannot generate the protein spo11 anymore. As a consequence, it cannot go through any recombination process, and the spores generated from it would be inviable because of aneuploidy. Aneuploidy refers to a condition in which the cell comprises an unusual number of chromosomes.

The spo11 yeast strain mutant would likely display impaired meiotic recombination due to the mutation causing the Spo11 protein to be nonfunctional. This could lead to difficulties in sexual reproduction and potential growth defects, similar to those observed in arginine mutants. The phenotype of this yeast may also change in response to environmental signals.

The yeast strain with the Spo11 allele mutated to nonfunctionality may display altered meiosis since the Spo11 protein generally functions to trigger double stranded breaks in DNA, initiating a critical part of meiosis. Loss of this protein may lead to impaired meiotic recombination, potentially affecting the yeast strain's ability to sexually reproduce. Furthermore, considering Beadle and Tatum's experiment involving mutants incapable of producing certain amino acids, the spo11 mutant could have observable growth defects on certain media, similar to the growth defects observed in arginine mutants.

Depending upon the environmental trigger for this allele's expression, the genotype of this strain might not change, but its phenotype could differ significantly depending on the conditions, much like how the phenotype of S. mutans alters based on sugar presence.

However, it's essential to note these effects could vary based on the dominance of the mutant allele and its interaction with other proteins in the cell.

https://brainly.com/question/31150144

#SPJ3

Answer:

a. the replacement of the —OH of a carboxyl group with hydrogen

Explanation:

By reduction methods a compound with a carboxylic acid group can be reduced. By adding H2 to said carboxylic group, some catalyst will be needed to allow this reaction to progress (in some cases metal palladium is usually used as a catalyst)

Before replacing the OH group, it is usually reacted to form an acyl chloride, which, when it is reduced with H2 and the catalyst is transformed into an acyl chloride and then rapidly reduced to form the carbonyl group and therefore the aldehyde

Replacing the -OH of a carboxyl group with hydrogen will produce a carbonyl group. Carbonyl groups consist of a carbon atom double bonded to an oxygen atom.

The correct action that could produce a carbonyl group is the replacement of the —OH of a carboxyl group with hydrogen. The carbonyl group consists of a carbon atom double bonded to an oxygen atom. When the —OH of a carboxyl group is replaced with a hydrogen, the remaining carbon-oxygen double bond forms a carbonyl group, represented by the formula —C=O. An important aspect to remember is that carbonyl groups are common in aldehydes and ketones.

https://brainly.com/question/33582119

#SPJ11