If a plant that is heterozygous for all three characters is allowed to self-fertilize, what proportion of the offspring would you expect to be homozygous for the three dominant traits? Express your answer as a fraction using the slash symbol and no spaces (for example, 1/16).

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

1/64

Explanation:

This cross is a trihybrid cross because it involves three genes. The cross is said to be a self-fertilization of plant heterozygous for the three traits i.e. two plants which have a combination of dominant and recessive alleles for each trait is crossed.

Let's say the three genes involved are genes P, Q and R. Where P, Q and R alleles are dominant over p, q and r alleles respectively. Thus, a heterozygous plant will possess PpQqRr genotype.

In concordance with Mendel's law of independent assortment, the alleles get sorted into gametes independently of one another. Meiosis occurs and each heterozygous plant (PpQqRr) produces 8 possible combinations of gametes viz; PQR, PQr, PqR, Pqr, pQR, pQr, pqR and pqr.

These gametes are crossed using a punnet square (see attached image) to produce a total of 64 possible offsprings i.e. 8 (male gametes) × 8 (female gametes).

A phenotypic ratio of 27:9:9:9:3:3:3:1 will result from a trihybrid cross involving two species heterozygous for the three genes/traits. (Check attached image for details of their phenotype)

According to the question, the fraction of offsprings expected to be homozygous dominant for the three traits is 1 out of 64 possible offsprings = 1/64

Note that, homozygous dominance is a state where the alleles for each gene are the same type i.e PPQQRR. Since P, Q and R are the dominant alleles.

Although 27 of the 64 offsprings are dominant for each trait but only one is homozygous dominant (PPQQRR) for the three traits, the other 26 are dominant but had one or more recessive genes i.e. are heterozygous for some/all genes

If A Plant That Is Heterozygous For All Three Characters Is Allowed To Self-fertilize, What Proportion
Answer 2

Final answer:

The proportion of offspring from a heterozygous plant self-fertilization that are homozygous for three dominant traits is 1/64.

Explanation:

If a plant that is heterozygous for all three characters is allowed to self-fertilize, the proportion of the offspring expected to be homozygous for the three dominant traits is found by considering each trait independently. Using the product rule for independent assortment, the probability for each trait to be homozygous dominant is 1/4 (since for a single trait, there is a 1:2:1 ratio for YY:Yy:yy genotypes). With three traits, this is (1/4) × (1/4) × (1/4), which equals 1/64. Therefore, the fraction of offspring that are homozygous dominant for all three traits is 1/64.


Related Questions

What evidence on Earth's surface shows deposition, erosion, and weathering?

Answers

the layers show in earths rocks when weathering occurs
The layers show in earths rocks due to weathering

Which of these would be considered a cis-regulatory element for a gene? Group of answer choices
a.Methylation of DNA preventing transcription
b.A protein that binds to an enhancer to activate gene expression
c.A DNA binding protein that functions to repress transcription
d.A region of DNA sequence upstream of a gene where transcription factors bind
e.A ribosome that translates a mRNA sequence to produce a transcription factor

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option d. "A region of DNA sequence upstream of a gene where transcription factors bind".

Explanation:

Cis-regulatory elements (CREs) are fragments of DNA that do not encode to a protein, but regulate the transcription of nearby genes. CREs regulation is based on binding to transcription factors. These elements are vital for the regulation of complex molecular mechanisms that involve the participation of multiple genes. Additionally, CREs could participate in pleiotropy (a single gene being responsible for the development of multiple traits), because a single transcription factor could bind to different CREs.

Suppose a new form of DNA polymerase III is discovered that does not require a primer to begin synthesis of a new strand. All other properties of the enzyme remain unchanged. If this new enzyme were to be expressed in the same organism that normally expresses DNA polymerase III, what would no longer be necessary to completely replicate all of the cellular DNA?A. DNA polymerase IB. telomeraseC. DNA ligaseD. DNA helicaseE. single strand-binding protein

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer will be option-A

Explanation:

DNA replication is the process of making replicas of the DNA from the parent DNA strands mediated by the replication enzymes and the ATP.

DNA polymerase is the enzyme which adds a nucleotide to the 3' end of the growing polypeptide chain thus synthesizing the DNA strand in 5' to 3' direction.DNA polymerase requires an RNA primer sequence and DNA polymerase I to add nucleotides.

Since in the given question, a new DNA polymerase III does not require RNA primer which helps in the synthesis of the Okazaki fragments or the lagging strand, therefore, the cell will also no longer require DNA polymerase I as DNA polymerase I fill the gaps between the Okazaki frangments.

Thus, option-A is the correct answer.

Blood returning to the mammalian heart in a pulmonary vein drains first into the _____.

Answers

Is there like options in this question?

Acetylcholine stimulates cells in the pancreas to secrete enzymes that aid in digestion of sugars. It does so by activating GPCRs that stimulate the membrane-bound enzyme phospholipase C (PLC). PLC then triggers which of these downstream events?

Answers

Answer:

An elevation of cytosolic Ca2+ concentration, which leads to the activation of protein kinase C (PKC).

Explanation:

Pancreatic enzymes are stored in acinar cells inside zymogen granules and released when necessary. The pancreas secretes a wide range of enzymes, which includes proteases, carbohydrases (pancreatic amylase and, in some cases, chitinase) and pancreatic lipase.

Acetylcholine is a molecule that is produced in neurons and is necessary so that it can transmit the nerve impulse both at the level of the central and peripheral nervous system. It is one of the most important neurotransmitters, being the main neurotransmitter of the so-called cholinergic system.

Acetylcholine, which is released from parasympathetic nerve terminals, stimulates the secretion of insulin, glucagon, somatostatin and pancreatic polypeptide.

Phospholipase C  is a phosphodiesterase in charge for hydrolysis of a glycerophosphate bond , Phospholipase C is the target enzyme for some GPCRs.

Protein kinase C, is a family of protein kinase enzymes that are involved in controlling the function of other proteins through the phosphorylation of hydroxyl groups of serine and threonine amino acid residues on these proteins, or a member of this family.

In humans, the steroid hormone testosterone enters cells and binds to specific proteins, which in turn bind to specific sites on the cells' DNA. The result is expression of genes associated with male sexual characteristics. What is the function of these proteins?

Answers

Answer:

Translation is the process of formation of the protein  from the RNA molecules. Different proteins and enzymes  are required for the process of translation. Three steps of translation are- initiation, elongation and termination.

The testosterone hormone  in humans beings help in the development of the sperms and the male secondary sexual characters. The testosterone hormone binds with the specific proteins. Protein then binds to the specific DNA sites. These proteins helps in the transcription of the specific genes and may acts as the enhancers molecules. These proteins helps in the transcription of the certain genes.

In the experiment of Avery, McLeod, and McCarty, the addition of RNase and protease (but not DNase) to the DNA extracts yielded which of the following outcome? Select one: a. Prevented the conversion of type S bacteria into type R bacteria.b. Allowed the conversion of type S bacteria into type R bacteria.c. Prevented the conversion of type R bacteria into type S bacteria.d. Allowed the conversion of type R bacteria into type S bacteria.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer will be option-D

Explanation:

Avery, McLeod, and McCarty performed the experiment to test the chemical nature of the transforming principle.  

The transformation experiment was performed by the Griffith in 1928 which results in the transformation of the avirulent R bacteria strain to virulent S bacteria as S bacteria released a transforming chemical in the solution which transformed the R bacteria to S bacteria.

Since DNase help digest the DNA molecules present in the solution therefore this showed that the transforming principle which turned the R bacteria to S bacteria is DNA.

Thus, option-D is the correct answer.

Final answer:

Avery, McLeod, and McCarty found that adding protease and RNase, but not DNase, to DNA extracts enabled the conversion of R bacteria into S bacteria, concluding that DNA is the transforming principle.

Explanation:

In the Avery, McLeod, and McCarty experiment, the scientists aimed to determine the molecule responsible for the transformation of bacteria. Proteins and nucleic acids from the S strain were isolated and introduced to the R strain after being subjected to enzymes that degraded each component. It was found that the addition of protease (which breaks down proteins) and RNase (an enzyme that digests RNA) did not prevent the conversion of R bacteria into S. However, when DNase (which degrades DNA) was added, the transformation did not occur. This led to the conclusion that DNA was the transforming principle.

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During exponential growth, a population always ________. a) grows at its maximum per capita b) rate increases by the same number of individuals c) each generation grows by thousands of individuals d) quickly reaches its carrying capacity

Answers

Answer: A

Explanation:

Exponential growth simply means a rapid increase in size and a constant growing rate

Final answer:

During exponential growth, a population always grows at its maximum per capita. This type of growth is typically seen in environments with abundant resources and few limiting factors. However, as resources become limited, the growth rate will slow down and eventually reach a point where the population stabilizes, known as the carrying capacity.

Explanation:

In biology, during exponential growth, a population always grows at its maximum per capita. This means that the population size increases at its fastest rate possible, with each individual producing the maximum number of offspring. This type of growth is typically seen in environments with abundant resources and few limiting factors. However, as resources become limited, the growth rate will slow down and eventually reach a point where the population stabilizes, known as the carrying capacity.

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Because of which structure does very little albumin escape from the blood during glomerular filtration?

a. Fenestrated endothelium
b. Basement membrane
c. Filtration pore
d. Juxtaglomerular apparatus
e. Macula densa

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option - B. basement membrane.

Explanation:

The basement membrane of the glomerular basement membrane or GBM is a thin ribbon-like extracellular matrix located in between the endothelium and podocyte foot processes.  

Biochemical and genetic studies have proved that the GBM or basement membrane during glomerular filtration prevents the leakage of plasma proteins such as albumin into the urine. It plays a crucial role as permselective barrier.

Thus, the correct answer is option B. basement membrane.

Glomerulonephritis, or inflammation of the glomerulus, will result leaky glomerular capillaries and damaged glomeruli, both which will cause the GFR to decrease. If GFR decreases, which mechanisms would be triggered to help maintain the GFR?A. Tubuloglomerular feedback and myogenic mechanism.B. RAAS and atrial natriuretic peptide.C. RAAS and myogenic mechanism.D. RAAS and tubuloglomerular feedback.

Answers

Answer:

RAAS and tubuloglomerular feedback.

Explanation:

Kidney is  important organ of the body that performs the process of excretion. The kidney contains the millions of neurons that acts as the filtration unit.

In case of low glomerular filtration rate (GFR), the RAAS and tubuloglomerular feedback initiates in the body. Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system increases the blood pressure and GFR rate by using the enzymes renin and angiotensin. The reabsorption of sodium chloride decreases and results in the increase of GFR in case of ubuloglomerular feedback mechanism.

Thus, the correct answer is option (D).

You have chosen to study the genetics of snapdragon flower color. True-breeding red-flowered plants crossed with true-breeding white-flowered plants generate all pink-flowered F1 offspring. When the F1 offspring are crossed, you get the following numbers of F2 offspring: 24 red, 54 pink, and 22 white. You interpret this inheritance pattern as
A. blending.
B. epistasis.
C. pleiotropy.
D. codominance.
E. incomplete dominance.

Answers

Answer:

Incomplete dominance.

Explanation:

Mendel is known as the father of genetics. He had explained the different inheritance pattern present in different organisms. The Mendel explained the law of segregation, law of independent assortment and concept of dominance.

The incomplete dominance may be defined as the inheritance pattern in which the dominant trait is unable to express it self completely in the heterozygous condition and blending traits are produced. Here, the red color is unable to express itself in the heterozygous condition and produce pink color.

Thus, the correct answer is option (E).

A news article discussing the evolution of domestic dogs from wolves included this statement: "On its way from pack-hunting carnivore to fireside companion, dogs learned to love or at least live on wheat, rice, barley, corn, and potatoes."
What is a more scientifically accurate way to state what happened with dogs?
A) Dogs mutated to be able to eat wheat, rice, barley, corn, and potatoes.
B) Some wolves may have had variants in their digestion that allowed them to eat wheat, rice, barley, corn, and potatoes and so were able tosurvive with humans.
C) Being around humans represented an advantage, so wolves were able to take advantage of that by changing their digestion to be able toeat wheat, rice, barley, corn, and potatoes.
D) Dogs were created at the same time as wolves.

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is B) Some wolves may have had variants in their digestion that allowed them to eat wheat, rice, barley, corn, and potatoes and so were able to survive with humans.

Explanation:

Organism of a population might have genetic variations in them due to many reasons. The species of a population which are better adapted to live in a particular area are able to survive and produce more offsprings. As a result, that particular area increases in that genetic variant.

In the above scenario, some of the wolves had variants in their digestion which made them better adapted to live with the humans as they could eat wheat, rice etc. The wolves which did not have variants in their digestion couldn't survive in the human areas.

And cabbage butterfly's white color is dominant and yellow color is recessive if a pure white cabbage butterfly meant to the yellow cabbage butterfly all the resulting butterflies are heterozygous white which cross represent the genotypes of the parents generation

Answers

Answer:

The genotype of the white parent will be homozygous and dominant and the genotype of the yellow parent will be homozygous and recessive in order to produce offsprings having genotype heterozygous white.

This cross can be shown as

            w           w

W       Ww         Ww

W      Ww         Ww

In the cross, the allele W is considered to be dominant over the allele w. Hnece, the white dominant parent will have the alleles WW. The recessive parent will have the alleles ww.

Final answer:

When a pure white ('WW') cabbage butterfly mates with a pure yellow ('ww') one, all the offspring will be heterozygous white ('Ww') as white is the dominant color.

Explanation:

To understand the cross between a pure white cabbage butterfly and a yellow cabbage butterfly, we need to look at genotypes and dominant and recessive alleles. Since white color is dominant, we will assign it the allele 'W', and since yellow is recessive, we will assign it 'w'. A pure white butterfly has the genotype 'WW', while a pure yellow has 'ww'.

When a 'WW' individual crosses with a 'ww' individual, all their offspring will have one allele for white and one for yellow, thus being heterozygous 'Ww'. This outcome can be predicted using a Punnett square, which is a grid used to determine the possible genotypes of offspring given the genotypes of their parents. Each offspring from this cross will display the white coloration because 'W' is dominant over 'w'.

In 1959, doctors began using the powerful antibiotic methicillin to treat infections of Staphylococcus aureus, but within two years, methicillin-resistant strains of S. aureus (MRSA) appeared. How did the resistant strains of S. aureus emerge?A) In response to treatment of Staphylococcus aureus infections with methicillin, some bacteria began to synthesize cell walls using a protein that was not affected by methicillin. These bacteria survived the methicillin treatments and reproduced at higher rates than did other individuals. Over time, these resistant individuals became increasingly common.B) In response to treatment of Staphylococcus aureus infections with methicillin, bacterial populations gradually began to synthesize cell walls using a protein that was not affected by methicillin.C) Staphylococcus aureus bacteria that were able to synthesize cell walls using a protein that was not affected by methicillin survived the methicillin treatments and reproduced at higher rates than did other individuals. Over time, these resistant individuals became increasingly common.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer will be option-B

Explanation:

Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive, spherical and one of the first described pathogens by scientific communities.  The S. aureus is known to cause a number of infections to humans in homes and hospitals and is able to adapt to the environmental conditions.

When Methicillin antibiotic was given to treat the infections caused by the S. aureus, within two years they became resistant to methicillin. This adaptability is the result of the due to the incorporation of the mecA gene at specific sites in their chromosomes.

This gene coded for an alternative penicillin-binding protein which has low affinity for the methicillin including other antibiotics. This gene spread to the S. aureus population and the species became resistant to methicillin.

Thus, Option-B is the correct answer.

 

Final answer:

Methicillin-resistant strains of Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) emerged when bacteria with the ability to synthesize cell walls using a protein unaffected by methicillin survived treatment and reproduced at higher rates than other individuals.

Explanation:

In response to treatment with methicillin, Staphylococcus aureus (S. aureus) bacteria that were able to synthesize cell walls using a protein not affected by methicillin survived the treatments and reproduced at higher rates than others. Over time, these resistant individuals became more common and led to the emergence of methicillin-resistant strains of S. aureus (MRSA).

A client is admitted to the emergency department with reports right lower quadrant pain. Blood specimens are drawn and sent to the laboratory.
Which laboratory finding should be reported to the health care provider immediately?

Answers

Answer: The answer is White Blood Cell (WBC) count 22.8/mm3

Explanation:

The nurse is to immediately report increase in the white blood cells. An elevated white blood cell count is a sign of infection. Since the pain is felt in the right lower quadrant it is safe to say it is a problem with the appendix as it is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. An elevated white blood cell count is a sign of infection because the body is releasing white blood cells to fight it off, this suggests a rupture of the client's appendix. The other options ; Hematocrit of 42%, serum potassium of 4.2 mEq/L, and serum sodium of 135 mEq/L are within normal limits and any alterations to them doesn't indicate appendicitis.

The normal White Blood Cell Count ranges between 4500-11,000/mm3

D. Species reintrouuLLIUI
7. Which of the following is a main goal of a Species Survival Plan?
A. breeding new species
B. using DNA to recover extinct species
C. reintroducing captive-bred organisms into the wild
D. cloning extremely endangered organisms to increase their population size

Answers

Answer:

D. cloning extremely endangered organisms to increase their population size

Explanation:

the main goal of Species survival plan is management of population and survival of them. the plan is used for the implementation of the methods and strategies can be used for the survival of endangered species  for example cloning extremely endangered organisms to increase their population size

Answer:

D. cloning extremely endangered organisms to increase their population size

Explanation:

An injury to the temporal lobe will likely impair the function of the ________.

Answers

Answer:

An injury to the temporal lobe will likely impair the function of the memory.

Explanation:

The temporal lobe is responsible for interpreting sounds and integrating hearing and  language comprehension, it allows the processing of language in general and processes immediate events in recent and long-term memory. Part of the left temporal lobe controls the understanding of language. An injury on this part will affect the verbal memory, being significantly altered, as well as the ability to understand language. An injury on certain parts of the right temporal lobe, memory for sounds and music is affected.

Penicillin inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis in bacterial cell walls. Humans do not have cell walls. This is an example of
A. allergic sensitivity.
B. selective toxicity.
C. spectrum of activity.
D. minimum inhibitory concentration.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

A

A 54-year-old client has been prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin. After the nurse has finished teaching the client about the medication, what statement could the client make to suggest that the client understands proper self-administration?

Answers

Answer:

"I will take three nitroglycerin tablets 5 minutes apart, and if I do not have any relief I will seek emergency care immediately."

Explanation:

sublingual nitroglycerin is prescribed to clients with stable or unstable angina to relieve chest pain symptoms.

The client is advised to take up to three tablets of sublingual nitroglycerin 5 minutes apart for relieve of chest pain and if there's no relieve to seek emergency medical care immediately.

P.S: it is advised to take few doses as necessary to relieve pain at the first sign of pain

Locate the false statement below. Lysosomes help to digest worn-out or damaged organelles. Lysosomes synthesize proteins from the recycled amino acids. Lysosomes fuse with food vacuoles to expose nutrients to lysosomal enzymes. Lysosomes destroy harmful bacteria engulfed by white blood cells.

Answers

Answer: Lysosomes synthesize proteins from the recycled amino acids.

Explanation:

This is a cell organelle with a spherical sac shape, bounded by a single membrane.( Unlike chloroplast and mitochondrial which  double membranes.) It contain digestive enzymes which is hydrolytic in nature, this splits molecules by addition of water molecules. The digestive enzymes are separated from other cell organelles because of autolysis/autophagic which is automatic discharge of digestive enzymes in a contained cell which destroy the whole cell.

They  release  vesicles  containing the enzymes towards the target structure,and the  vesicle  fused with the membrane of the target cell to discharged the hydrolytic  enzymes for digestion

They breakdown old and worn out cells organelles, or the whole cell (for example the breakdown of mammary glands after lactation. Lysosomes are also used to digest bacterial in white blood cells by ENDOCYTOSIS.

Note: RIBOSOMES  play a role in protein Synthesis not LYSOSOMES.

Their average size is 0.1-0.5µm in diameter

6. Use the results of your observations to explain the roles of muscles, tendons, bones, ligaments, cartilage, and joints in the back-and-forth movement of the lower chicken wing.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Muscles are the main form of movement within the wing, extending and contracting the wing, similar to the movement in an arm. Tendons are strands of tough connective tissue that connect the skeletal muscles to bones. Tendons move the wing up and down, allowing for flight and vertical movements. Without tendons, muscles and bones are independent from each other, so by connecting muscles and bones, whenever a muscle contracts or moves, the bone moves as well. Once the bone and muscle have the ability to move together, the body itself can thus be moved in different ways. Muscles also initiate body movements, and, being attached to the bones by the tendons, it controls the movements of the chicken wing by being pushed back and forth. Ligament is the type of connective tissue that connects bones to other bones. The ligaments will allow the bones to move and still keep the bones together in the joint. Cartilages are composed mostly of long, stringy collagen fibers that create bands of tough, fibrous connective tissue. They connect bone to bone at joints and function to reduce friction and protect the ends of the bones when the joint moves. Joints connect the bones together and creates flexibility of the movement being controlled by the muscles and tendons.

Final answer:

The musculoskeletal system includes muscles, tendons, ligaments, bones, cartilage, and joints, which collaborate to enable movement. Muscles contract to move bones, which are connected at joints by tendons and stabilized by ligaments, while cartilage prevents bone friction.

Explanation:

The musculoskeletal system is composed of muscles, tendons, ligaments, bones, cartilage, and joints, all working together to facilitate movement. When a muscle attached to a bone via a tendon is pulled, the resulting movement of the bone at the joint is because the muscle exerts a force, causing a specific action such as flexion or extension, depending on which muscle in the antagonistic pair is contracted. For example, when pulling a muscle in the chicken wing, it flexes at the elbow joint, a process known as flexion. The tendons, which are robust and connective, serve as points of attachment for the muscles to the bones, ensuring efficient transfer of force. Ligaments help stabilize the joints by connecting bone to bone, while cartilage reduces friction between bones at the joints, facilitating smooth motion.

Within a chicken wing, just like in the human body, the tendons are tightly connected to the muscles and bones. When dissecting a wing, one can observe the connection between the tendon and muscle, the muscular activity inducing motion in the wings, and the role of cartilage as a shock absorber and enabler of smooth joint movements. Blood vessels are found between the muscles, providing them with the necessary nutrients.

Ligaments connect bones at the joints, muscles are connected to bones with tendons that allow for movement, and cartilage fills spaces between bones, preventing them from scraping against one another. The skeletal system must work cohesively to sustain movement and provide support and protection to the body.

Assume that a mutation occurs in the gene responsible for the production of hexosaminidase a

Answers

Answer:

A Tay-Sachs disease is a rare degenerative disease that affects the brain and central nervous system and is hereditary, autosomal recessive (more common in descendants of Hebrews).

It is one of the diseases by lysosomal deposition. Individuals who suffer are unable to produce a lysosomal enzyme called hexosaminidase-A that participates in the degradation of the ganglia, a type of sphingolipid, which accumulate and degenerate in the central nervous system. It is included within lipidosis or lipid storage diseases.

Where are ganglia of the parasympathetic division located? Innervation pathways of the autonomic nervous system. Where are ganglia of the parasympathetic division located? Innervation pathways of the autonomic nervous system. within the medullas of endocrine glands in chains on either side the spinal column near major arteries just as they exit the aorta within or near effector organs

Answers

Answer: They are located within or near effector organs

Explanation:

Ganglia are aggregations of neuronal somata and are different in structure and size.

Parasympathetic ganglia are the autonomic ganglia of the parasympathetic nervous system. They are involuntary and act alongside the sympathetic nervous system in order to regulate body homeostasis. They are a division of efferent nerve fibers and ganglia of the autonomic nervous system. They are located near or within the organs in which they innervate.

Final answer:

Ganglia of the parasympathetic division are located within or near effector organs.

Explanation:

The ganglia of the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system are located within or near effector organs. Unlike the sympathetic division, which has ganglia located in chains on either side of the spinal column near major arteries, the parasympathetic ganglia are closer to the organs they innervate. For example, in the digestive system, the ganglia are located within the walls of the intestines and stomach.

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A researcher has noticed that the population density of rabbits in his town has drastically increased over the last 5 years. This means that each rabbit will have access to a smaller portion of the _____, or the environment in which the rabbits live.

Answers

Answer:

habitat

Explanation:

please answer all questions.
ELISA:

1- what is false positive? what kind of error could result this? what is false negative test? What kind of error could result this and why is this so dangerous, specially for AIDS?

2- After doing this lab, wold you agree or disagree with the following statement? "when you have sex with someone, you are also having sex with everyone that they have previously had sex with." explain your answer.

3- What was the purpose of washing the plates between the addition of each reagents?

4- how can you protect yourself from sexually transmitted disease?

5- list three fluorescent stains and their usefullness

Answers

Answer:

I need multiple answer.

Explanation:

Within kingdom Protista, _____ are subdivided into the flagellates, the amoebas, the apicomplexans, and the ciliates.

Answers

Within kingdom Protista, Protozoa  are subdivided into the flagellates, the amoebas, the apicomplexans, and the ciliates.

Explanation:

The protist is an organism of eukaryotic family but is neither plant and fungus nor animal. It contents are divided in various super groups, like- protozoa, algae, excavate etc. It was first coined by Ernst Haeckel in the year 1886.

The ‘protists’ were divided in various groups depending on the kingdom that is higher. The first group is of Protozoa, a single celled organism that looks like animal. This group is again classified in super groups of – flagella, amoeba, ciliophora etc.  

Who is responsible for determining the structure of the dna molecule

Answers

Answer: James Watson and Francis Crick

Explanation:

In 1953 James Watson and Francis Crick are responsible for determining the structure of DNA. James and Watson proposed that the DNA is made up of a double polynucleotide chains that are twisted around each other to forming a helical structure. The two DNA chains runs anti-parallel in opposite direction to each other. Like the structure of the ladder.

The answer is James Watson and Francis Crick

14 peas are generated from parents having the​ green/yellow pair of​ genes, so there is a 0.75 probability that an individual pea will have a green pod. Find the probability that among the 14 offspring​ peas, at least 13 have green pods. Is it unusual to get at least 13 peas with green pods when 12 offspring peas are​ generated? Why or why​ not?

Answers

It is not u usual cause it’s natural each p generation (parent) has a certain amount of chromosomes

Terrestrial biomes include all of the following regions except the _________ region.

Answers

Limnetic would be the right answer!

Most cnidarians are known to produce toxins. In fact, it has been claimed that one particular species produces the most deadly of all toxins on the planet. What feature of this group most likely evolved simultaneously with the evolution of these toxins?

Answers

Answer:

A slow-moving or sessile lifestyle in the adult.

Explanation:

Evolution is change in the characteristics of species with respect to time. Natural selection acts as the main driving force for the process of evolution.

The cnidarians species shows motility and adults are generally sessile in nature. The protection of the cnidarians is important for their survival and reproduction. This evolves the development of the deadly toxin by the cnidarians that kills their enemies and protect themselves from the predator.

Thus, the correct answer is a slow-moving or sessile lifestyle in the adult.

Other Questions
Today, Jennifer earns $55000 at her first job. Her mom used to make $15,000 at her first job in 1975. Jennifer is of the opinion that she makes more than her mom would have made if she started working today. Her mom thinks Jennifer would have earned less than she if Jennifer had started working in 1975. If the CPI today is 237 and the CPI in 1975 was 82, then A disk of radius R = 11 cm is pulled along a frictionless surface with a force of F = 16 N by a string wrapped around the edge.At the instant when d = 30 cm of string has unwound off the disk, what is the torque exerted about the center of the disk? On October 1, 2018, Sunland Company sells (factors) $711000 of receivables to Beanfield Factors, Inc. Beanfield assesses a service charge of 3% of the amount of receivables sold. The journal entry to record the sale by Sunland will include: Which of the following is not a carcinogen What was General Teodoro de Croix supposed to do in New Mexico? Which of the following expands upon the behavioral intentions model by including a perceived control component that assesses the difficulty involved in performing the behavior and the extent to which the consumer perceives that he or she is in control of the product selection?a. Theory of planned actionb. Theory of self-efficacyc. Balance theoryd. Elaboration likelihood theorye. Social judgment theory You should _______ remove a guard while a tool is in use. A patient comes into the emergency department. During the physical exam, you note that a clear fluid is leaking from the nose. You notice that this is cerebrospinal fluid. Which bone has been likely fractured to allow for leakage? Aidan goes to a therapist for help in losing weight. He and his therapist develop a written agreement spelling out weekly step-by-step methods for Aidan to use in order to reach his weight goal. The plan specifies rewards for reaching weekly goals and penalties for not achieving them. Aidan's therapist is using which of the following methods?a. classical conditioningb. desensitizationc. contingency contractd. a token economy What is a Supreme Court clerk, and what are the qualifications of a clerk? The drug dideoxycytidine, used to treat certain viral infections, is a nucleotide made with 2,3-dideoxyribose. This sugar lacks OH groups at both the 2 and the 3 positions. This drug stops the growth of a DNA chain when added to DNA because:__________ This man was known for revolutionizing the Athenian government by introducing democracy, stipends for public officials, and juries for court trials.SocratesPericlesSolonHomer help!! please!! 30 points and i will give brainliest! Which social change resulted from the Industrial Revolution? The nurse is caring for a 13-year-old girl. As part of a routine health assessment the nurse needs to address areas relating to sexuality and substance use. Which statement or question should the nurse say first to encourage communication? William Jones, an 84-year-old black man, is brought to the endoscopy clinic for a colonoscopy as an outpatient. He wears bilateral hearing aids. Mr. Jones also has macular degeneration and has not been driving for the past 4 years because of poor eyesight from the disease. He is a retired railroad worker. His wife and daughter are accompanying him. Mr. and Mrs. Jones live in a small house, and their daughter comes to check on them each day. Mr. Jones is alert and oriented, but his family is concerned because he has become more withdrawn. Linda Martinis a student nurse who is assigned to Mr. Jones. She is doing the initial assessment, observing during the procedure and caring for him after the procedure.Linda begins the initial assessment, and when she asks each question, Mr. Jones asks her to repeat it. Mrs. Jones tells Linda that he is not wearing his hearing aids today. What is the best approach for Linda so Mr. Jones can answer her questions?A. Ask the family to go home and get his hearing aids, and postpone the procedure until the family returns.B. Ask Mrs. Jones all of the questions so Mr. Jones will not have to hear her.C. Write down all of her questions, and ask him to read the questions and then answer.D. Ask the questions directly to Mr. Jones while facing him, speaking slower and in a normal tone of voice. The escape velocity on earth is 11.2 km/s. What fraction of the escape velocity is the rms speed of H2 at a temperature of 31.0 degrees Celsius on the earth? Note that virtually all the molecules will have escaped the earth's atmosphere if this fraction exceeds 0.15. In prokaryotes, termination of transcription can include which of the following? a. The formation of a hairpin structure. b. An enzyme with 5'3' exonuclease activity. c. The transcription of a Urich region. d. An enzyme with helicase activity. Conflicts over toilet training, and other attempts by a 2-year-old to exert control over his or her environment, are most evident during the __________ stage of psychosexual development. A 74-year-old is being seen in the mental health clinic. The client has never fully regained the level of activity the client had prior to the death of the client's spouse. The client continues to have symptoms of depression and has not been able to work or volunteer. In addition, the client complains of "anxiety attacks" that occur nearly every night. What type of grief reaction is this client exhibiting