Answer:
A. the spillover effect.
Explanation:
Spillover effect: The term spillover effect refers to the propensity of an individual's emotion to influence the way other individuals feel around him or her.
In other words, spillover theory defines the legal principle of splitting off the similar evidence that is related to both an accused and a codefendant.
In the question above, the spillover effect is being seen as the people aroused just by seeing the rock videos are compared to that of the people being provoked but didn't get aroused.
8. Who is responsible for leading the Federal Government's response efforts to ensure that the necessary coordinating structures, leadership, and resources are applied quickly and efficiently to large-scale and catastrophic incidents? A. Secretary of Homeland Security B. The President C. FEMA Administrator D. DHS Director of Operations Coordination
President is responsible for leading the Federal Government's response efforts
Explanation:
The President of the U.S holds the similar powers and responsibility that Indian prime minister holds. He or she acts as the head of the state and head of the government also the chief of the armed forces. He or she is responsible implementing and enforcing laws which are written by the Congress.
He or she is also responsible for appointing the heads of cabinet and federal agencies, including the Cabinet. Singing the legislation into law is also a part of the president’s work.
Working memory is said to be used for more complex _______ tasks, while short term memory functions as primarily a __________ facility
Answer:
Explanation:
blank one explanation:
Known as “working memory capacity,” this ability is measured most often through a test that requires people to commit a short list of items to memory while performing some other task
blank two explanation:
Different parts of the brain handle the different stages of memory. Short-term memory primarily takes place in the frontal lobe of the cerebral cortet.
Although he stayed calm during the conversation, Mark was angry as he left Professor McArthur's office, because he felt he had been treated unfairly. A short while later, Mark snapped at a fellow student who asked if she could borrow his notes. Which ego defense mechanism best accounts for Mark's behavior toward the other student
Answer:
The answer is displacement.
Explanation:
The displacement mechanism is shown when a person directs strong emotions towards someone or something that didn't provoke the reaction in the first place. This is usually done to avoid negative consequences.
A classic example of displacement is when someone has a bad time with his/her boss at work, and then acts aggressively towards a member of his family.
Timmy said, "My name is Timmy Bogokowsy and I live on the corner of Phillis and Emerson Roads." It is very likely that Timmy is the first human being in history to have uttered this sentence. This description illustrates language’s __________ property.
Answer:
Generative property.
Explanation:
The generative property of language explains how, out of finite words and linguistic resources we are able to create new phrases and new meanings. It explains how, out of a finite quantity of words and structures in our heads we are able to rearrange them to form new ones that we haven't heard before.
This is why Timmy has, most likely, been the first to said those words in that exact order and meaning.
Brooke is a very good student, and she always makes careful decisions about how to budget her time. She is disciplined and always finishes her work on time, and she maintains an organized set of lecture notes for all her classes. According to Big Five theorists, Brooke would probably score high on measures of____________.
A. extraversion.
B. openness to experience.
C. agreeableness
D. conscientiousness
Answer:
D. conscientiousness
Explanation:
The Big Five traits of personality consists of five dimensions of personality, they are:
1. Extraversion or extroversion.
2. Agreeableness.
3. Openness.
4. Neuroticism.
5. Conscientiousness
Conscientiousness: This is one of the personality traits that implies the tendency of being diligent, careful, a desire to perform a task well-defined, and taking other person obligation seriously. A conscientious person is considered to be organized and efficient. A person who is high on conscientiousness is said to be reliable and responsible.
Conscientiousness leads a person to regulates, directs, and controls, his or her impulses.
In the question above, Brooke would properly score high on measures of conscientiousness.
According to Big Five theorists, Brooke would probably score high on measures of conscientiousness.
Explanation:According to Big Five theorists, Brooke would probably score high on measures of conscientiousness. Conscientiousness refers to one's level of organization, self-discipline, and ability to adhere to rules and responsibilities. Brooke's careful decision-making, disciplined approach to completing work on time, and maintaining an organized set of lecture notes are all indicators of high conscientiousness.
Learn more about Conscientiousness here:https://brainly.com/question/32078390
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The frequency of ______ personality disorder in women is nearly two to three times greater that in men, leading researchers to believe that hormonal influences, childhood experiences with incest or drug abuse, and a poor mother-infant relationship can cause the disorder.
Answer:
Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:
Borderline personality disorder is a psychological mental disorder. This disorder effect a person by its way of thinking and how you think about yourself and of course about others. These symptoms distract the ability of the patient due to which the patient daily routine activities get disturbed. This disorder includes self-image issues, control emotions, etc.
Symptoms:
Fear of abundant Raid changes in self-identity stress-related paranoia Impulsive and risky behavior This disorder is more prevalence in females rather males.Environmental impact statements (EIS) must:
a. be written by all developers.
b. contain alternate courses of action.
c. discuss the economic impact of the proposed action.
d. be written only when there is an air pollution concern.
Environmental impact statements (EIS) must contain alternate courses of action.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Environmental impact statements are the statements or the document which is prepared to describe the effects that a particular action that has been proposed will have on the environment. How will that action impact the environment whether in a positive or in the negative way is given in this document.
Here the world environment has been defined as the natural and the physical environment and how and what relation the people have with the environment. It also gives alternative course of action to change the actions in a way which is better for the environment.
Felix's family finally convinces him to see a mental health specialist, and he has subsequently been diagnosed with a personality disorder. If Felix is diagnosed with an odd or eccentric personality disorder, which is most likely his specific diagnosis?
Final answer:
Felix is likely diagnosed with Paranoid, Schizoid, or Schizotypal Personality Disorder as these fall under the umbrella of odd or eccentric personality disorders classified in the DSM.
Explanation:
If Felix has been diagnosed with an odd or eccentric personality disorder, his specific diagnosis is most likely one of the following: Paranoid Personality Disorder, Schizoid Personality Disorder, or Schizotypal Personality Disorder. These disorders are categorized as Cluster A personality disorders in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM), which characterizes them by odd, quirky, or eccentric behaviors and thoughts.
Paranoid Personality Disorder entails a pervasive distrust and suspicion of others. Schizoid Personality Disorder is characterized by a lack of interest in social relationships, a tendency towards a solitary lifestyle, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal Personality Disorder involves acute discomfort in close relationships, cognitive or perceptual distortions, and eccentric behavior.
As mental illnesses, these disorders are part of a broader range of conditions that affect a person's mood, thinking, and behavior, potentially impacting their ability to function in daily life. It's crucial to distinguish these from other disorders because of their unique symptoms and potential treatments. The DSM provides guidance on the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for all recognized mental disorders.
Which of the following is true of transformational leadership?
a.It inspires new ways of thinking.
b.It leads to fewer learning experiences.
c.It assumes that charisma is an individual characteristic of a leader.
d.It is aimed at creating a mechanistic workforce.
Answer: (A)
Transformational leadership "inspires new ways of thinking."
Explanation:
A transformational leader is one who encourages creativity and inspires his followers to attain higher performance levels.
He listens to, and understands his followers, knows their strengths and weaknesses, and works together with them to accomplish organizational goals and objectives.
The true statement about transformational leadership is that it inspires new ways of thinking. Transformational leaders are charismatic, inspiring, and motivate their teams to transcend beyond current boundaries, which fosters organizational change and effective outcomes.
Explanation:Which of the following is true of transformational leadership? The answer is a. It inspires new ways of thinking. The transformational leadership style is characteristic of leaders who are charismatic role models, inspirational, and intellectually stimulating. They encourage individual consideration and seek to create change within an organization. Unlike transactional leaders, transformational leaders motivate their subordinates to exceed their current abilities and contribute to the organization's evolution.
Transformational leadership is designed to reconfigure a group's norms, values, and culture. It is embodied by leaders with social skills who can accurately perceive the needs and goals of their team members and communicate effectively. As such, transformational leaders are fundamental in the introduction and sustenance of meaningful change within groups and organizations, leading to more effective outcomes as opposed to fostering a mechanistic or unengaging work environment.
Paolo has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. His parents have a difficult time understanding him because his speech is fragmented and bizarre. He jumps from one idea to another, sometimes within sentences, creating a _____.
Answer:
The answer is word salad.
Explanation:
Comic as it might sound, this term is widely used in psychology for describing a varity of speech problems, especially as a symtpom of mental disorders.
This fragmented speech can be surprisingly accurate in terms of grammar, but the ideas are mixed and unrelated, thus making it impossible to form a clear meaning.
A postindustrial economy is based on tertiary sector production—the provision of services rather than goods, as a primary source of livelihood for workers and profit for owners and corporate shareholders. A majority of U.S. jobs are in tertiary sector employment.
Answer:
The tertiary sector or service sector includes industries related to public services: transport, trade, consumer services, banking; business and administrative, information and telecommunication services; education, healthcare, culture, science. An increasingly important role is played by recreational services associated with the growing need of the population for recreation and tourism. The predominant development of the tertiary sphere is characteristic of a post-industrial society in which employment in the primary and secondary sectors of the economy is sharply reduced as a result of dominant automation and growth in labor productivity. Labor moves to a growing tertiary sector. It currently accounts for about 2/3 of global GDP. The tertiary sector is absolutely dominant in the US economy (about 80% of GDP). Currently, less than one out of six workers in the economy of the country work in the industry, while in the service sector - more than 70%.
Explanation:
According to Karl Marx, the capitalist class uses religious ideology as a tool of domination to mislead the workers about their true interests. In this regard, Marx referred to religion as the "_____of the masses."
a. opiate
b. puzzle
c. falsehood
d. conviction
Answer:
Opiate
Explanation:
In his famous statement published on 1844 in the german newspaper "Deutsch-Französischen Jahrbücher", Karl Marx condemns religion as a "drug" which enables the high ruling class to manage lower working classes.
It is clear that Marx refers to the principles of Christian religion about slaves being obedient to their masters, about poverty as a condition to go to heaven, etc.
We sould notice how deeply his opposition to religion influences comunist regimes still today, which generally are against any kind of spiritual believes, mainly the Catholic church.
When you have to make a long-distance call, dialing an unfamiliar area code plus a seven-digit number, you are likely to have trouble retaining the just-looked-up number. This best illustrates the limited capacity of ________ memory.
A. None of the listed answers are correctB. long-termC. flashbulbD. implicitE. short-termF. explicit
Answer:
E. Short term.
Explanation:
Short term memory allowes the person to retain some information while doing another activity. It does not last very long, contrary to the long term memory.
Dave’s wife suggests that he talk to a doctor because of his inability to cope with criticism. The doctor suggests that Dave’s problem represents the expression of a repressed, unresolved, internal conflict buried in his unconscious mind that has its roots in Dave’s childhood. This view is typical of the ________ model of abnormality.
a) biological
b) cognitive
c) behavioral
d) REBT
e) psychoanalytic
Answer:
The correct answer is: e) psychoanalytic
Explanation:
The psychoanalytic model of abnormality (also refered to as psychodynamic psychology) was first developed by Sigmund Freud, who believed that human personality and abnormality develop from early childhood. Through the deployment of a set of techniques, the unconscious causes (hidden and unknown to the patient) of mental disorders could be treated.
Bethany is writing a paper for her management class. She already has a strong 'A' in the class, and only needs to get a C on the paper to keep her A. As she prepares the final version of the paper, she takes special care that the paper is well-written, insightful, and error-free, something that she can be proud of. Bethany is experiencing
A. an intrinsic reward.
B. high equity.
C. a belongingness need.
D. a hygiene factor.
E. a high need for affiliation.
Answer:
I believe the answer is B because Bethany is comparing what she usually gets to how she can get another A. Therefore, I think the answer is B but please be sure to take my answer with caution because I am not so sure if I am right. C;
Answer:
The correct answer is B
Explanation:
An effective attention getter should always relate the topic to the audience and pique the audience's interest in the topic. In addition, for a speech to persuade, the attention getter should
Final answer:
An effective introduction in persuasive writing should engage the audience with a relevant hook, transition into the main topic with a clear thesis statement, and outline forthcoming arguments, thereby establishing a foundation for the writer's credibility and intent.
Explanation:
Importance of an Effective Introduction in Persuasive Writing
An effective attention getter is essential in the introduction of a persuasive speech or essay. It should relate the topic to the audience and pique the audience's interest in order to be engaging. To achieve this, writers can use anecdotes, quotations, questions, humor, surprising facts, or statistics that connect to the topic. As the introduction progresses, it should transition to a definitive statement of the main theme or claim, which acts as the thesis of the persuasive writing.
The thesis statement should preview the central idea and touch on key points to guide the audience through the upcoming arguments. A well-crafted hook not only grabs attention but sets the stage for the writer to present their argument convincingly. After establishing the hook, it's crucial to connect it to the main topic, ensuring that the thesis statement is clear and aligns with the arguments to follow.
Understanding and engaging the audience is paramount, as the introduction sets the tone and establishes credibility. Including a statement that summarizes the central idea of the presentation will help the speaker convey their aim effectively. The introductory paragraph serves as a roadmap for both the writer and the audience, outlining the arguments that will be presented in the body of the work.
An effective persuasive speech attention getter should:
1. Establish credibility: Gains trust.
2. Evoke emotion: Engages audience.
3. Present a surprising fact: Captures interest.
4. Ask a rhetorical question: Promotes thinking.
5. Tell a relevant story: Makes topic relatable.
An effective attention getter should always relate the topic to the audience and pique the audience's interest in the topic. In addition, for a speech to persuade, the attention getter should:
1. Establish credibility:
- Importance: Establishing credibility helps the audience trust the speaker. When the speaker appears knowledgeable and authoritative on the subject, the audience is more likely to be persuaded by the arguments presented.
2. Evoke an emotional response:
- Importance: Evoking an emotional response engages the audience on a personal level. Emotions can drive people to action and make the message more memorable. An emotional connection can also make the audience more receptive to the speaker's message.
3. Present a surprising fact or statistic:
- Importance: Presenting a surprising fact or statistic can capture the audience's attention by challenging their assumptions or providing new information. This can create curiosity and encourage the audience to listen more closely to understand the implications of the fact or statistic.
4. Ask a rhetorical question:
- Importance: Asking a rhetorical question prompts the audience to think actively about the topic. It can stimulate their curiosity and encourage them to consider the speaker's perspective. This technique also helps to engage the audience mentally and keep their attention focused on the speech.
5. Tell a relevant story or anecdote:
- Importance: Telling a relevant story or anecdote can make the topic more relatable and concrete. Stories can illustrate complex ideas in an understandable way and make the message more engaging. A well-chosen anecdote can also help to highlight the importance of the issue and draw the audience into the speaker's narrative.
By incorporating these elements, a speaker can create an attention getter that not only grabs the audience's interest but also sets the stage for a persuasive and impactful speech.
The complete question is:
An effective attention getter should always relate the topic to the audience and pique the audience's interest in the topic. In addition, for a speech to persuade, the attention getter should:
1. Establish credibility
2. Evoke an emotional response
3. Present a surprising fact or statistic
4. Ask a rhetorical question
5. Tell a relevant story or anecdote
Explain why each of these elements is important in making an attention getter effective for a persuasive speech.
Darnita, manager of customer service for a large company, is conducting performance appraisals for her staff. HRM has given her a sheet with a number of grouped statements. She has to select 1 from each group. For instance, she has to indicate whether an employee is "cheerful" or "confident". She returns the form to HR, who score it and report the results to her. What performance appraisal method is she using?
The performance appraisal method used by Darnita is Forced choice appraisal method.
Explanation:
Forced choice method forces Darnita to make the choice between the given characteristics of "Cheerful or Confident" about the employee. Every employee should be placed under each category mentioned. In simple words it seems to be like multiple choice questions and the option is chosen from the given options.
The choices would be either positive or negative. In some case even the answerer does not know which option suits for the employee so he would be forced to select anyone of the given options. Many feedback in companies or appraisal would be based on forced choice appraisal in which some higher authority will not have the control to decide whether the performance of the employee is good or bad.
An assembly for the discussion of common concerns that features experts in a given field who take opposite sides of an issue in a panel discussion and includes the opportunity for audience participation is known as a:
Answer:
forum
Explanation:
A forum is a discussion that takes place among common people in the pressence of experts in the field in which the discussion is taking place.
The topic is analyzed through discussions in the favor of the motion and against the motion. This helps the people to critically think about the topic and arrive at the best path to take. It is a good way to deal with problems that everyone is dealing with as nobodies opinion is left unsaid.
Hence, the statement here describes a forum.
Which of the information security roles is usually tasked with configuring firewalls, deploying IDSs, implementing security software, diagnosing and troubleshooting problems, and coordinating with systems and network administrators to ensure that security technology is operating to protect the organization?
Answer:
Security Technician
Explanation:
A security technician is a professional who is qualified to access some of the most advanced configuration options for any computer, mechanism, system or database that is designed for security purposes or that it needs to be protected from certain attacks such as hacking, DDos, etc.
The ________ Inkblot Test employs a series of symmetrical inkblot cards that are presented
to a client by a psychologist in an effort to reveal the person's unconscious desires, fears, and struggles.
A. Julian Rotter
B. Rorschach
C. TAT
D. TEMAS
Answer: Rorschach
Explanation: The Rorschach inkblot test is a series of 10 symmetrical inkblot cards presented to a patient in order to evaluate a wide range of things. It was developed by Hermann Rorschach, a swedish psychiatrist in order to determine patterns of pathology when it comes to perception and interpretation. Originally there were more than ten cards but Hermann was told to reduce the number.
It is one of the most complete tests for clinical evaluation due to its perceptual and psychometrical nature.
When we make judgments about the behavior of other people, we tend to underestimate the influence of external factors and to overestimate the influence of internal factors. This tendency is called the self-serving bias.
Answer:
False. The tendency is called Fundamental attribution error.
Explanation:
The fundamental attribution error is the tendency of the people to judge others on the basis of their personal behavior while ignoring the situational factors. It refers to the cognitive bias of people's actions depend on internal factors rather than situational or external factors. For example, if a friend of yours sees you and runs towards the bus we tend to think he is ignoring us but we ignored that there might be a possibility of a medical emergency in his family.
Jennifer pushes her baby brother and lies to her father about doing it. Later, she falls on the sidewalk and scrapes her knee. She relates the two events and believes that her injury was the punishment for lying. According to Piaget's theory of moral development, which of the following stages of moral development does Jennifer fall under?
A) Autonomous morality
B) The postconventional level
C) The conventional level
D) Objective morality
Answer:
Objective Morality
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it seems that Jennifer falls under the stage of moral development known as Objective Morality. This stage focuses on the belief that morality is universal and cannot be interpreted differently by individuals, yet it should be understood by all as the same set of objective rules that should be followed.
Billy initially started playing golf as a hobby. As he began to get better at the sport, he wanted to represent his club in the championships so that he could get sponsorships and get recognized for his talent. In the context of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, this scenario best illustrates Billy's _____.
Answer:
The answer is esteem needs.
Explanation:
Esteem needs are related to self-esteem, self-respect and dignity, as well as the desire to be recognised, admired or respected by others. During this stage, people need to feel they are useful to society.
When people succeed at this stage, they usually gain confidence about themselves and their skills; failure often leads to feelings of inferiority.
Billy's ambition to excel in golf and seek recognition aligns with his quest for esteem needs, as defined by Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, and potentially pursues self-actualization as he fulfills his potential in the sport.
Explanation:In the context of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, Billy's desire to represent his club in the championships to gain sponsorships and recognition can be best understood as an attempt to fulfill his esteem needs. According to Maslow, once an individual's physiological, safety, love and belonging needs are met, they are able to pursue esteem needs, which pertain to the desire for respect, self-esteem, status, recognition, strength, and freedom. Once these needs are satisfied, an individual can then strive for self-actualization, the process of realizing and fulfilling one's potential and capabilities. In Billy's case, his determination to excel in golf and achieve recognition suggests that he is working towards satisfying his esteem needs, which may eventually lead to self-actualization within the realm of his sport.
Which of the following is accurate?
a. the reason that researchers use probability samples is because they guarantee representativeness of the sample
b. in general, the more heterogeneous a population, the smaller the sample needed for representativeness
c. a simple random sample is appropriate when the researcher wants to over-represent a characteristic in the population
d. a sample is representative of the population from which it is drawn if the aggregate characteristics of the sample approximate those of the general population
Answer:
The affirmation accurated is:
d. A sample is representative of the population from which it is drawn if the aggregate characteristics of the sample approximate those of the general population.
Explanation:
When is taken a sample from a population, in change of taken all them, regularly must be because the population is enough big and the analysis of that could be too extensive or expensive, but when the sample is taken, this must show the characteristics of the total population, in contrary case, it could not be named "representative", because although the investigator realizes the analysis, this won't be applied to the original population.
The correct answer is d, emphasizing that a sample is representative if it closely mirrors the general population's aggregate characteristics. Probability samples aim for this representativeness to allow generalizations from the sample to the broader population, contrary to the inaccuracies or misunderstandings presented in the other options.
Explanation:The accurate statement among the options provided is d. a sample is representative of the population from which it is drawn if the aggregate characteristics of the sample approximate those of the general population. This statement concisely encapsulates the essence of what makes a sample representative. In probability sampling, the goal is to ensure that every member of the target population has an equal chance of being selected. This principle underlies various random sampling techniques such as simple random sampling, stratified sampling, cluster sampling, and systematic sampling. The core idea of representativeness is to ensure that the sample reflects the broader population in all aspects relevant to the research, thereby allowing researchers to generalize their findings from the sample to the population.
On the contrary, the concepts mentioned in options a, b, and c do not accurately represent the principles of probability sampling or the requirements for a sample to be representative. Specifically, probability samples do not guarantee representativeness purely by their nature (a), a more heterogeneous population typically requires a larger, not smaller, sample for representativeness (b), and a simple random sample aims for representativeness, not to over-represent any characteristic (c).
Inflexible, maladaptive functioning is to the family of _____ disorders as the break or disruption in consciousness from one's identity (to the point of malfunction) is to the family of _____ disorders.
Answer: mental, personality
Explanation:
Mental disorders are behavioural patterns that cause an individual to act and interacts with the world in a different way that a normal human being would do. It affects the brain function and its causes are mainly genetic or enviromental factors, sometimes even traumatic experiences.
Among the various mental disorders that exists, one of the most known ones are personality disorders. These ones happen when an unhealthy and inflexible pattern behaviour cause an individual to loose their right selves and even believing that they are, in fact, other people. This can lead a person to feel caged in its own skin and, if not treated, could mean a danger to people around them and even to themselves.
Added years of longevity and health plus financial stability have granted an active, opportunistic time of life to so many older adults that some experts believe a new phase of late adulthood has evolved, known as __________.
a. the Second Age
b. the Third Age
c. emerging old age
d. extended old age
Answer:
The correct response is Option B. The Third Age.
Explanation:
Because of advances in the quality of life and access to health care, human beings are generally living much longer than they did in the past. Researchers who specialize in geriatrics and longevity have begun to use a new term called the Third Age, which generally spans the time between when a person retires and when they begin to experience more limitations in health and mobility due to old age in their 80s. They tend to have fewer responsibilities between the ages of 65-80 and if they enjoy good health and financial resources they can dedicate their time to purposeful and engaging pursuits that lead them to self-fulfillment.
Recent findings suggest that the use of blended sentences may be ineffective as about ____________ of juveniles who were released early and did not complete their sentence in adult prisons were later rearrested
About fifty percent of the juveniles who were given blended sentence were rearrested if they did not complete the sentence in the adult prison
Explanation:
Blended sentencing refers to the sentencing program which is imposed to the serious juvenile criminals. Blended sentence ensures that the youth serves in corrective facilities with moral conduct and if he completes it successfully, he may be granted an appeal for revoking the adult sentence.
But if he does not prove his good conduct while serving, he may be again arrested and will be put in an adult prison. This blended sentence thus provides opportunity for the juvenile criminals to correct themselves and get freed from some serious sentences by the court.
Many people think that nowadays people are being subjected to more and more pressure in their work, and thus are having less and less time to relax. What is your opinion?
Answer:
As we are moving in fast moving world therefore people need to put their best effort to fix their position in this competitive world.
Explanation:
As we are moving in fast moving world therefore people need to put their best effort to fix their position in this competitive world.
everyone either at high or low level are competing with each other. low level are struggling for higher level while higher level is struggling for stability or more higher position. Therefore they got less time to relax.
condition of today's scenario is change since past years. People are dependent on smart technologies which directly or indirectly affect their pockets. hereby also they are subjected to more work for more output
When nationalist leaders define nationality in a way that preserves the cultural domination of the ruling group but also includes enough cultural features from subordinated groups to insure their loyalty, they are engaging in a process called_____
Answer: Transformist hegemony
Explanation:
The nationalist program in order to characterize the nationality in such a fashion that tends to perpetuate and conserves cultural dominance and influence of the ruling faction or group while encompassing enough of the cultural emphasize from the subordinated faction in order to ensure their adherence.
Alaska Airlines uses mathematical short-term scheduling techniques and a high-tech nerve center to manage the rapid rescheduling necessary to cope with weather delays and similar disruptions. True or False?
Alaska Airlines uses mathematical short-term scheduling techniques and a high-tech nerve center to manage the rapid rescheduling necessary to cope with weather delays and similar disruptions is TRUE statement.
Explanation:
Alaskan Airlines limits travelers and promotes air safety. Unexpected situations mostly weather-related result in delays and cancellations. Events like these need rapid rescheduling for operations running and to hinder passenger inconvenience. This involves a high-tech nerve center of communication and computer gear which utilizes models to reroute and reschedule as soon as possible.
This effective scheduling favors faster movement of services through a facility. The result is more capacity per dollar invested, which translates into lower costs. This kind of scheduling provides added flexibility, faster throughput and reliable delivery, improving customer service and making a good business in return.