Answer:
A dice generally has 6 sides, numbered from 1 - 6. Answer all the following:
(a) There is only one side number 6 out of the 6 sides. The probability would be 1/6.
(b) There are 3 sides that have an even number (2, 4, 6). The probability would be 3/6. Simplify. Divide 3 to both the numerator and denominator:
(3/6)/(3/3) = 1/2
1/2 would be your simplified answer.
(c)There are 2 numbers divisible by 3 (3, 6). The probability would be 2/6. Simplify. Divide 2 from both the numerator and denominator:
(2/6)/(2/2) = 1/3
1/3 would be your simplified answer.
(d) You have 2 dices. You are trying to roll for 2 6's. There are one 6 in each dice. Remember, one dice has the probability of 1/6 to get a 6. The two dices are independent variables, meaning that one dice would not affect the other. Multiply the two fractions together:
(1/6)(1/6) = (1 * 1)/(6 * 6) = 1/36
1/36 would be your answer.
(e) You have 2 dices. One has to roll a odd number, while the other a even number.
Remember, there are 6 sides:
1, 3, 5 are the odd sides (3 odd sides in all)
2, 4, 6 are the even sides (3 even sides in all)
You have a 1/2 chance of rolling an odd number on one dice, and 1/2 a chance to roll an even number on the other. Multiply the two numbers together:
(1/2)(1/2) = (1 * 1)/(2 * 2) = 1/4
1/4 is your answer.
(f) You are trying to roll matching numbers. Take only ONE pair of matching numbers. (for example, 1). In this case, it is the same as (d). Multiply the probability of getting 1 (out of 6 sides) with two dices worth of sides:
(1/6)(1/6) = (1 * 1)/(6 * 6) = 1/36
1/36 would be your answer.
(g) You are rolling for numbers over 4 for both of the dices (5, 6) Remember, there are 6 side in all. The fraction for numbers over 4 on a dice is 2/6, or 1/3. You have 2 dices, so multiply two fractions:
(1/3)(1/3) = (1 * 1)/(3 * 3) = 1/9
1/9 would be your answer.
~
Final answer:
The probabilities of specific outcomes when rolling dice vary, from rolling a single number like a 6 at 1/6 chance, to more complex scenarios like rolling matching numbers on two dice at 1/6. These examples help illustrate basic principles of probability through the lens of a simple, everyday random experiment.
Explanation:
Understanding probabilities with dice throws covers various basic probability concepts. Here's a breakdown of each part of the question:
a) The probability of rolling a 6 on a single die is 1/6, as there is one favorable outcome out of six possible outcomes.
b) An even number (2, 4, or 6) has a 1/2 probability of being rolled because there are three favorable outcomes out of six.
c) The chance of rolling a number divisible by 3 (either a 3 or a 6) is also 1/3, as there are two favorable outcomes out of six.
d) For rolling two 6s with a pair of dice, the probability is 1/36, since each die has a 1/6 chance of landing on 6, and the outcomes are independent.
e) Rolling an even number on one die and an odd number on the other has a probability of 1/2, considering the independent outcomes and that half the numbers on a die are even, and half are odd.
f) The chance of rolling matching numbers on both dice is 1/6, as there are six possible matching outcomes (1-1, 2-2, and so on) out of 36 total outcomes.
g) Rolling two numbers both over 4 (either 5 or 6) has a probability of 1/9, since there are four favorable outcomes (5-5, 5-6, 6-5, 6-6) out of 36 possible outcomes.
These calculations are fundamental to understanding how probabilities work in simple random experiments like dice rolling.
Which of the following statements is most accurate or true?
a. The nearly neutral theory posits that the vast majority of substitutions influence the fitness of individuals in a highly negative manner.
b. the nearly neutral theory posits that the vast majority of mutations influence the fitness of individuals in a highly negative manner.
c. the neutral theory posits that the vast majority of mutations do not influence the fitness of individuals.
d. the neutral theory posits that the vast majority of substitutions do not influence the fitness of individuals.
Answer:
c. the neutral theory posits that the vast majority of mutations do not influence the fitness of individuals
Explanation:
The neutral theory proposed by Motoo Kimura states that the vast majority of changes at the molecular level (DNA) in a population happens due to genetic drift, not by natural selection, this implies that the mutations are neutral and do not give an advantage to the organisms.
This means that mutant alleles are preserved due to the randomness of life and not because this alleles give selective advantage over other individuals of the population.
Explain how the ozone layer forms? And the consequences of the destruction of the ozon layer.
Answer:
Explanation:
The atmospheric oxygen first combines with UV light of the sun and splits to form single atoms of oxygen.
- These single atom oxygen combines with atmospheric oxygen to form O3 molecules i.e. Ozone
O2 + UV -> O + O
O2 +O -> O3 (Ozone)
Overall reaction: 3O2 ---sunlight-----> 2O3
This forms a thin layer around earth's surface and protects the earth from harmful radiations from the sun.
Consequence of destruction of ozone layer-
Ozone layer is rapidly being depleted by the presence of pollutants in the atmosphere.
As a result there will be less protection from the harmful UV light of the sun.
UVB causes diseases like skin cancer and development of malignant meloma. In addition, UVB has been associated to the formation of cataracts, a clouding of the eye’s lens.
Hope you could get an idea from here.
Doubt clarification - use comment section.
Why does allopatric speciation occur more often in animals than sympatric speciation?
Answer:
Allopatric speciation happens when populations become isolated and the gene flow between populations stops. Is difficult for a population of animals to stop gene flow among the individuals of a population that lives in the same area because animals are dynamic and can actively look for male/females to reproduce.
Explain how continuous traits, like human height and skin color, are controlled by multiple alleles of multiple genes.
Answer:
Continuous traits are determined by total dosage of dominant alleles of all the regulatory gene and exhibit wide variation of phenotype within population.
Explanation:
Continuous traits such as skin color and human height are the polygenic traits and are regulated by multiple alleles of many genes. Each allele of each gene contributes to the phenotype and the effects of all the genes are additive to give a continuous trait.
The phenotype is regulated by the total number of dominant alleles of all the regulatory genes present in an individual.
Human skin color is a polygenic trait and is determined by the regulatory enzymes that determine the production of melanin pigment and its distribution.
Here, the genotype AABBCC having a total of 6 dominant alleles imparts extremely dark skin color to the individual while the genotype "aabbcc" does not have any dominant allele and give extremely light skin color.
Assuming no involvement of the Bombay phenotype: a. If e girl has blood type O, whet could be the genotypes and corresponding phenotypes of her parents? b. If e girl has blood type B end her mother has blood type A, what genotype(s) and corresponding phenotype(s) could the other parent have? c. If a girl has blood type Aa and her mother is also AB, what ere the genotype(s) end corresponding phenotype(s) of any male who could not be her father?
Answer:
a) OO/OO (phenotype O) ; OA (ph A)/OB (ph B) ; OO(phO)/ OA(ph A); OO(ph O)/OB (ph B).
b) OB (ph B) or BB (phB) or AB (ph AB).
c) OO(ph O)
Explanation:
a) Blood type 0 is recessive. This girls genotype is OO.
Then, parents need to have at least one allele O each in their genotype. Possibilities genotypes and phenotypes (ph): OO/OO (phenotype O) ; OA (ph A)/OB (ph B) ; OO(phO)/ OA(ph A); OO(ph O)/OB (ph B).
b) Blood type B is co-dominant with A. If the girl is B, it means her genotype can be OB or BB.
But we are told that the mother has blood type A. Also co-dominant. This means the girls genotype cannot be BB.
If the girl is OB, it means she got the O allele from her mother.
The other parent then has to be responsible for the B allele. This means the father could have been OB (ph B) or BB (phB) or AB (ph AB).
c) If the girl is AB (I assume misspelling) and her mother ALSO is AB, then the father cannot be OO(phO). Because he has to give the allele A or B to the girl.
Any other genotype is possible.
The molecule that carries amino acids to the ribosome and binds to a mRNA ensuring a proper amino acid sequence in the resulting polypeptide is a(n):
a. tRNA
b. mRNA
c. rRNA
d. sRNA
Answer: a. tRNA
Explanation: The transference RNA is a nucleic acid that participates of the protein synthesis. tRNA is a small RNA with folding as a trefoil. The tRNA has a site where aminoacid is loaded and a anticodon site that is complementary to the codon in the mRNA, ensuring the proper aminoacid sequence in the resulting polypeptide.
The primary function of the mitochondrion is the production of ATP. To carry out this function, the mitochondrion must have all of the following except
A) the membrane-bound electron transport chain
B) proton pumps embedded in the inner membrane.
C) enzymes for glycolysis.
D) enzymes for the Krebs cycle.
E) mitochondrial ATP synthase
The mitochondrion absolutely requires a membrane-bound electron transport chain, proton pumps, Krebs cycle enzymes, and ATP synthase. However, it does not need glycolysis enzymes as glycolysis happens in the cytosol, not in the mitochondrion.
Explanation:The primary function of the mitochondrion is indeed the production of ATP, and it does so via a process called cellular respiration. Most of the factors listed are absolutely essential for the mitochondrion to carry out this primary function. This includes the membrane-bound electron transport chain (Option A), proton pumps (Option B), enzymes for the Krebs cycle(Option D), and mitochondrial ATP synthase (Option E). However, the enzymes for glycolysis (Option C) are an exception. Glycolysis occurs in the cytosol of a cell, not in the mitochondrion, which is why the mitochondrion does not need to have enzymes for glycolysis to produce ATP.
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Summarize the key factors DNA polymerase requires to replicate DNA.
Answer:
Explanation:
DNA polymerase is an enzyme that helps in the synthesis of new strands of DNA. It is found in both prokaryote and eukaryotes. In prokaryotes, there are 3 types of DNA polymerase and more DNA polymerase found in eukaryotes.
The 3 types of DNA polymerase are DNA polymerase I, DNA polymerase II, DNA polymerase III. The DNA pol I and DNA pol II helps in DNA repair rather than DNA replication. The DNA pol III is the major enzyme that initiates the replication.
DNA polymerase III is a multisubunit enzyme that functions as a dimer of these multiple subunits. The DNA polymerase enzyme has 3 significant enzymatic activities -
All DNA polymerase direct the synthesis of DNA from 3' to 5' end.
It possesses 3' to 5' exonuclease activity. It also helps in proofreading activity by replacing the incorrect nucleotides with the correct base sequence.
Some DNA polymerase has a 5' to 3' exonuclease activity. It is found in the lagging strand.
DNA polymerase is not able to initiate DNA synthesis alone. They need a free 3' end, where the enzyme can add new nucleotides. It means they require 2 primers to initiate the DNA replication in both the direction.
The strands act as complementary to the DNA polymerase. The DNA polymerase adds new strands continuously in 5' to 3' direction in the leading strand. While in lagging strand short fragments of DNA formed. Later they attached by DNA ligase.
DNA polymerase also needs RNA polymerase in some cases to start replication. Such a process is called reverse transcription.
The key factors DNA polymerase requires to replicate DNA are:
1. A template strand of DNA to guide the synthesis of the new strand.
2. Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs) as the building blocks for the new DNA strand.
3. A primer, typically an RNA primer, to initiate the synthesis of the new strand.
DNA polymerase is an enzyme that synthesizes DNA from deoxyribonucleotides, the monomers of DNA. The process of DNA replication is semiconservative, meaning that each strand of the original DNA molecule serves as a template for the synthesis of a new complementary strand.
Here are the key factors required for DNA polymerase to function in DNA replication:
1. Template Strand: DNA polymerase requires a single-stranded DNA template to direct the synthesis of the new strand. The enzyme reads the template strand in the 3' to 5' direction and adds nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing strand.
2. Deoxyribonucleoside Triphosphates (dNTPs): These are the precursors for DNA synthesis. dNTPs include adenine (A), thymine (T), cytosine (C), and guanine (G) nucleotides. DNA polymerase links these nucleotides together in a sequence that is complementary to the template strand.
3. Primer: DNA polymerase cannot initiate synthesis de novo; it requires a short piece of RNA or DNA called a primer that is hydrogen-bonded to the template strand. DNA synthesis starts at the 3' end of this primer.
4.Temperature Conditions: DNA polymerase has optimal temperatures at which it functions most efficiently. In humans and other eukaryotes, this temperature is around 37°C, while in bacteria like E. coli, it is slightly higher.
In summary, DNA polymerase requires a template strand, dNTPs, a primer, magnesium ions, and appropriate temperature conditions to accurately replicate DNA. These factors ensure the high fidelity of DNA replication, which is crucial for the maintenance of genetic information."
Which of the following processes require the presence of 02 in order to occur?
a. Glycolysis
b. Glycogenesis
c. Fermentation
d. Citric acid cycle
e. More than one is correct
Answer:
d. Citric acid cycle
Explanation:
The only process in the list that requires the presence of O2 in order to occur is the Citric acid cycle or Krebs cycle. This cycle is part of the aerobic cellular respiration and it occurs only when O2 is available. If there is no oxygen, an alternative process that could happen is fermentation, but this is only carried by some microorganisms and some cells such as muscle cells.
In fact, oxygen is not needed by citric acid cycle but it is by the next step: the electron transport chain. In this chain, oxygen is the final acceptor of electrons, and without oxygen, the Krebs cycle doesn't occur because the final electron transport chain can't be done.
Explain the function of receptors and their location(s) in the cell.
Answer:
Function: Cell signalling; Location: Cell membranes
Explanation:
Receptors are usually trans-membrane proteins located on cell membranes. Their extracellular part transmits chemical signals from outside the cell into the intracellular where a response is induced.
Explain Mendel's law of independent assortment and how the 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio among the F2 of a dihybrid cross provides evidence for this law.
Answer:
Explanation:
Mendel's law of independent assortment state that two different genes assort independently in gamete formation.
To reach this conclusion, one has to do a dihybrid cross. This means that two genes responsible for different traits need to be analyzed at the same time.
1) Starting with a parental generation of a cross between two pure lines (homozygous for both genes) with different traits, a plant with yellow and round seeds (YYRR) and another with green and wrinkled seeds (yyrr). The F1 will be phenotypically homogeneous (yellow and round), and genotypically heterozygous (YyRr).
2) If the individuals from the F1 are crossed with one another, we have to do a Punnett Square to determine the phenotypic ratio of the F2.
If the genes assort independently, the F1 individuals will produce their different gametes with the same probability. Each possible gamete will appear in a 1/4 proportion: YR, Yr, yR, yr.The 9:3:3:1 ratio is a result of analyzing the possible phenotypes that result from the dihybrid cross.See the attached image for an illustration of the crosses in each generation and the Punnett Square.
Final answer:
Mendel's law of independent assortment demonstrates that alleles for different traits segregate independently during gamete formation, which was evidenced by the 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio seen in the F2 generation of a dihybrid cross. This law contrasts with gene linkage, which would lead to non-independent assortment and different ratios.
Explanation:
Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment
Mendel's law of independent assortment states that the inheritance pattern of one trait will not affect the inheritance pattern of another. This principle emerged from dihybrid cross experiments, indicating that the alleles for different traits segregate independently during the formation of gametes. By crossing two pea plants that were true-breeding for two different traits (e.g., seed color and seed texture), Mendel found that the F2 generation exhibited a phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1.
How does this support the law? If we consider two traits—seed color (yellow Y, green y) and seed texture (round R, wrinkled r)—the cross between F1 heterozygotes (YyRr × YyRr) should produce offspring with varying combinations. Using a Punnett Square, we find that the gametes form four possible allele combinations (YR, Yr, yR, yr) in equal proportions, leading to the 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio. This ratio emerges because, for example, 9/16 of the progeny will be both dominant for both traits (YR), 3/16 will be dominant for one and recessive for the other (Yr or yR), and 1/16 will be recessive for both (yr), provided the two traits assort independently.
What if genes were linked? If traits were linked, meaning they do not follow independent assortment, the observed phenotypic ratios would deviate significantly from the 9:3:3:1 expectation. Instead, some combinations of traits would occur more frequently than others, reflecting the physical proximity of the genes on the chromosomes and their tendency to be inherited together.
You do a cross between two true-breeding strains of zucchini. One has green fruit end the other has yellow fruit. The Fl plants are ell green, but when these are crossed, the F2 plants consist of 9 green : 7 yellow. Explain this result. What a. were the genotypes of the two parental strains? b. Indicate the phenotypes, with frequencies, of the progeny of a testcross of the Fl plant .
Answer:
a) GG and gg
b) GG: Gg: gg
1: 2: 1
Phenotype ration
Green : yellow
3:1
Explanation:
As mentioned the two true breeding strains of zucchini were crossed.
True breeding means they must be homozygous for their genotype structure.
Let green fruit allele be represented by "G" and yellow fruit allele be represented by "g"
In first cross all green offspring were produced , thus it is clear that green fruit allele is dominant over yellow color fruit.
a) Genotype of the parents is
GG and gg
GG * gg
Gg, Gg, Gg, Gg
b) F1 cross will be between Gg * Gg
Offspring produced - GG, Gg, Gg, gg
Hence
Genotype ratio
GG: Gg: gg
1: 2: 1
Phenotype ration
Green : yellow
3:1
Choose the sex-linked traits from the choices below. Choose all that apply.
a. Height
b. Hemophilia
c. Duchenes Muscular Dystrophy
d. Cystic Fibrosis
e. Sickle Cell Disease
a. Height
It's true that if you have tall parents, you might be tall too.
But no proof is a sex-linked trait.
b. Hemophilia
This is a disease related to blood coagulation.
It's recessive and linked to X chromosomes.
c. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
This is also a recessive sex-linked disease.
Girls can carry but only affect boys.
d. Cystic Fibrosis
This is also a hereditary disease but not linked to sex chromosomes.
e. Sickle Cell Disease
It's a malformation of blood cells and it can be inherited but not linked to sex chromosomes.
What are the three main components of biodiversity?
a. Species diversity, species productivity, and species stability
b. Genetic diversity, species abundance, and species evenness
c. Species richness, species abundance, and species evenness
d. Species diversity, species-area relationship, and species evenness
e. Species diversity, genetic diversity, and habitat diversity
Answer:
C. Species richness, species abundance, and species evenness
Explanation:
Biodiversity is the variety and variability of all living organisms within a given environment. The main components that contribute to biodiversity are :
1 - Species richness: It takes into account the number of different species present in an area. So the more species, the more richer that place is.
2 - Species evenness: It describes the relative abundance of the different species in an area. That is, the more similar the abundance (quantity) of a species, the more uniform it will be.
The three main components of biodiversity are species diversity, genetic diversity, and habitat diversity. These are crucial for ensuring natural sustainability, resistance to diseases, and the adaptation to environmental changes.
Explanation:The three main components of biodiversity are species diversity, genetic diversity, and habitat diversity. Species diversity is the variety of different species within a specific area. Genetic diversity is the total number of genetic characteristics in the genetic makeup of a species, and habitat diversity refers to the range of different habitats present in an area.
Species diversity is important because a high diversity ensures natural sustainability for all life forms. Genetic diversity helps in providing resistance to diseases, and it enables natural populations to adapt to changes in the environment. Habitat diversity allows for a multitude of niches to be occupied by various species, enhancing species and genetic diversity.
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Answer the questions that follow for each stage of the cell cycle (G1, S, G2, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase). If necessary, use an arrow to indicate a change that occurs during a particular cell cycle stage (for example, 1→ 2 or yes → no). a. How many chromatids comprise each chromosome during this stage? b. Is the nucleolus present? c. Is the mitotic spindle organized? d. Is the nuclear membrane present?
Answer: the answer is based on 46 chromosomes assuming humans.
G1.
Chromatids: 46 chromosomes/ 46 chromatid.
Nucleolus: yes. only disappears during mitosis( RNA synthesis is crucial for making proteins all the time)
Mitotic spindle: no. only appears during mitosis.
Nuclear membrane: yes. only disappears during mitosis.
S. DNA replication occurs.
Chromatids: 46 chromosome/ 92 chromatids
Nucleolus: yes
Mitotic spindle: no
Nuclear membrane: yes
G2
Chromatids: 46 chromosome/ 92 chromatids
Nucleolus: yes
Mitotic spindle: no
Nuclear membrane: yes
Prophase:
Chromatids: 46 chromosome/ 92 chromatids
Nucleolus: will disintegrate at the beginning of the phase.
Mitotic spindle: starts to arrange at the beginning of the phase.
Nuclear membrane: starts dissolving at the beginning of the phase.
metaphase, (chromosomes appear in the middle)
Chromatids: 46 chromosome/ 92 chromatids
Nucleolus: no
Mitotic spindle: arranges chromosomes in the middle.
Nuclear membrane: no
anaphase, sister chromatids split and move to either poles of the cell
Chromatids: 92 chromosome / 92 chromatids)
Nucleolus: no
Mitotic spindle: starts to disassemble during early telophase.
Nuclear membrane: no
telophase at the end of telophase when the cytoplasm finally splits
Chromatids: 46 chromosome / 46 chromatids per cell
Nucleolus: yes
Mitotic spindle: starts to disassemble during early telophase.
Nuclear membrane: will start to form at the end of telophase.
Remember that is a continuous process it has been named in 4 phases by humans to study it.
Why are the lungs highly vascularized? Where does oxygenation of the blood take place?
The lungs are highly vascularized to facilitate efficient gas exchange between the respiratory system and the circulatory system and Oxygenation of the blood takes place in the pulmonary capillaries.
The extensive network of blood vessels in the lungs ensures that a large surface area of the lungs is in close contact with the blood. This allows for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli (tiny air sacs in the lungs) and the bloodstream.
Oxygenation of the blood takes place in the pulmonary capillaries, which are the smallest blood vessels in the lungs. As blood flows through the pulmonary capillaries, oxygen from the inhaled air diffuses across the thin walls of the alveoli and into the bloodstream. At the same time, carbon dioxide, a waste product of cellular metabolism, diffuses from the blood into the alveoli to be exhaled.
The highly vascularized nature of the lungs ensures that a continuous supply of deoxygenated blood from the heart reaches the pulmonary capillaries, where it is oxygenated. The oxygen-rich blood is then transported back to the heart to be pumped to the rest of the body, supplying oxygen to the tissues and organs.
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Which of these groups of mammals is defined by having multicusped lower molars and a narrow pelvis?
a. allotheria
b. prototheria
c. theria
d. metatheria
e. eutheria
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-A.
Explanation:
Allotheria is an extinct species of a mammalian group called marsupials which lived during the Mesozoic era.
The Allotheria can be easily distinguished by the few unique characteristics which were considered of non-placental mammals:
1. Presence of molariform teeth with longitudinal cusps in the lower portion of the mouth
2. Narrow pelvis which indicates that they used to give birth to young marsupials and used to feed them.
Thus, option-A is the correct answer.
A genetic engineer needs to use gene therapy to help a person with cystic fibrosis. Arrange the following steps in the order the engineer would use them.
a. Use only the steps you need. Inject the modified CFRT gene into a fertilized egg and implant into a woman who will be the surrogate mother.
b. Combine the cloned CFRT gene with a disarmed respiratory virus.
c. Clone the CFRT gene from someone with cystic fibrosis.
d. Clone the CFRT gene from someone without cystic fibrosis.
e.Modify the CFRT gene by putting on a different promoter
f. Test the patient’s blood cell DNA with PCR to see if they have the CFRT transgene.
g. Have the patient use an inhaler that contains the modified respiratory virus.
Answer:
d-b-g-f
Explanation:
1. Clone the CFRT gene from someone without cystic fibrosis.
This will make millions of copies of the gene (wild type, not being mutated and thus unable of producing the disease).
2. Combine the cloned CFRT gene with a disarmed respiratory virus.
This step will allow the virus to transport the gene of interest.
4. Have the patient use an inhaler that contains the modified respiratory virus.
This step helps the virus to enter and infect the patient's cells and thus allowing the copies of the transgene to be integrated into the patient's genome.
3. Test the patient's blood cell DNA with PCR to see if they have the CFRT transgene.
This will confirm if the transgene has actually been integrated into patient's genome.
In a comparison of birds and mammals, the condition of having four limbs is
a. a shared ancestral character.
b. a shared derived character.
c. a character useful for distinguishing birds from mammals.
d. an example of analogy rather than homology
Answer: a. A shared ancestral character.
Explanation:
A shared ancestral character is the character or feature that two lineages of same or distinct species have in common derived from a common ancester. The four limbs in birds and mammals is the example of this.
Having four limbs is a shared ancestral character among birds and mammals, inherited from a common ancestor. It represents homology, not analogy—meaning it's due to shared ancestry, not independent evolution.
Explanation:In a comparison of birds and mammals, the condition of having four limbs is a shared ancestral character. This character trait originated from a common ancestor and has been passed down to the executive lineages. This trait does not differentiate birds from mammals, as both groups possess it. It also represents homology rather than analogy, as it originated from shared ancestry and not independent evolution.
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Plant molecular biologists have recently discovered genes that are responsible for controlling cell division in tomatoes. Why would such a discovery be important to producers of other kinds of fruits and vegetables ?
They can use those recently discovered genes and insert them in another species (fruits and vegetables) using genetic ingeniery technics so they can speed up the cell division on them, and accordingly increase the production.
Which stage of Cell respiration produces CO2:
a. Glycolysis
b. Fermentation
c. Citric Acid cycle
d. Electron transport chain
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-C.
Explanation:
Cellular respiration is a slow process which oxidises the food to release energy in the form of ATP. The process proceeds in 4 stages: glycolysis, link reaction, Citric acid cycle and the electron transport chain.
The citric acid cycle produces energy molecules ATP and reducing equivalents -NADH, and FADH₂ by the oxidizing the acetyl-CoA and releases CO₂.
Thus, Option-C is the correct answer.
Answer: C : Citric acid Cycle
Explanation: Cell respiration or Cellular respiration is term by which food energy is converted into the usable energy source Adenosin triphosphate ( ATP ). Cell respiration is a set of metabolic reactions , processess and pathways.
Citric acid cycle is set of reactions by which maximum amount of CO2 is released. In Citric acid cycle acetyl CoA undergoes releactions in presence of necessary enzymes by which CO2 is released .
Describe two ways in which yeasts are useful to humans.
Yeasts are essential in the production of food and beverages, such as bread and alcoholic drinks, and are also used in biotechnology and medicine for producing compounds like insulin and as a model organism in research.
Food and Beverage Production: Yeasts, particularly Saccharomyces cerevisiae, are crucial in baking and the fermentation of alcoholic beverages. In baking, yeast ferments sugars to produce carbon dioxide, causing bread to rise. In alcoholic beverage production, yeast converts sugars into ethanol and carbon dioxide.Biotechnology and Medicine: Genetically engineered yeast is used in the production of various compounds, including insulin. This application is essential for diabetic patients who need insulin therapy. Furthermore, yeast is a model organism in research, helping scientists understand basic biological processes.A claim put forth by some purveyors of health foods is that vitamins obtained from natural sources are more healthful than those obtained by chemical synthesis. For example, pure L‑ascorbic acid (vitamin C) extracted from rose hips is thought to be healthier than pure L‑ascorbic acid manufactured in a chemical plant. Are the vitamins from the two sources different? Can the body distinguish a vitamin's source?
Answer:
No, the vitamins from the two sources are not different.
No, the body cannot distinguish a vitamin's source.
Explanation:
Pure L-ascorbic acid extracted from rose hips is identical in every way to pure L-ascorbic acid synthesized in a plant.
The only difference that might distinguish the two is the presence of impurities such as byproducts or solvents used in the process of extraction or synthesis. However, "pure" implies that no such impurities are present.
No, the vitamins from two different sources are not different.
Body cannot distinguish a vitamin source.
Synthetic vitamins contain a much higher dose of nutrients than found in a normal food serving. Synthetic vitamins are consumed through dietary supplements and fortified foods.Other than this there is no such difference between the two.What are the vitamins?Vitamins are substances that bodies need to develop and function normally. They include vitamins A, C, D, E, and K and the B vitamins that are thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, pantothenic acid, biotin, vitamin B6, vitamin B12, and folate/folic acid.Vitamin B and C are water soluble others are fat soluble.To know more about vitamins here
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Homeotic genes
a. encode transcription factors that control the expression of genes responsible for specific anatomical structures.
b. are found only in Drosophila and other arthropods.
c. are the only genes that contain the homeobox domain.
d. encode proteins that form anatomical structures in the fly.
Answer: a. encode transcription factors that control the expression of genes
Explanation:
Homeotic Genes - They encode transcription factors that determine the location at which specific structures develop. They give organs identity. Homeotic genes act as regulators of development and some mutations found in flies were instrumental in unraveling the macroevolution related mysteries.
Mutations in homeotic genes are often fatal in the early stages of development, however viable mutant flies with strange aberrations have been found, such as the discovery of Antennapedia mutants, in which paws are formed in place of antennae. Homeotic genes regulate the development of specific embryonic segments and are fundamental, among other functions, in determining the anteroposterior axis of metazoans. When we compare flies and humans, homeotic genes resemble both their nucleotide sequence and their relative position on chromosomes.
Antibiotics can be used to treat some viral infections.
a. True
b. False
Answer: False
Explanation:
Antibiotics cannot be used for the treatment of viral infections. Antibiotics can be used to treat bacterial infections only.
Antibiotics cannot be used to treat viral infections as it will not kill virus. Common illness that is caused by the bacteria like urinary tract infection, pneumonia, can be treated by antibiotics.
Antibiotics act by interfering the replication, transcription and translational machinery which could be either enzymes or complexes used during the processes. Since, viruses do not carry out these processes therefore antibiotics do not work on viral infections.
Hence, the given statement is false.
The thylakoid membrane becomes damaged, causing the inside of the thylakoid to mix with the stroma Which of the following processes is likely to be most affected by this damage?
A) The reduction ot NADP+ to NADP
B) Sunlight absorption by the chloroplasts
C) The movement of electrons from photosystem I (PSll) to photosystem I (PSI)
D) ATP synthesis
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-D.
Explanation:
Thylakoid membrane is the membrane of the thylakoid present in the chloroplast which encloses thylakoid lumen.
Thylakoid is the site of the light-dependent reaction as they contain chlorophyll in their photosystem. This membrane carries out main reactions of photosynthesis like water photolysis, ATP synthesis and electron transport chain.
If leaking is observed in this membrane then it will interfere with ATP synthesis as membrane maintains the proton gradient in and out of the thylakoid. The leaking will cause mixing the content of the stroma and lumen which will disturb the proton gradient. This proton gradient will prevent ATP synthesis.
Thus, option-D is the correct answer.
Explain the differences between the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system.
Answer:
Central nervous system:
Central nervous system consists of the brain and the spinal cord. Short nerve impulse are present in the central nervous system. The information are obtained from the sensory organs. The damage of nerve fibers are irreparable in the central nervous system.
Peripheral nervous system:
Peripheral nervous system consists of the motor neurons, sensory receptor and sensory neurons. Long nerve impulse are present in the peripheral nervous system. The information are pass out to the effector organs. The damage of nerve fibers are reparable in the peripheral nervous system.
Which nucleotide bases are purines?
a. adenine & guanine
b. adenine & thymine
c. guanine & cytosine
d. cytosine& thymine
Answer:
a. adenine and guanine
Explanation:
A purines nucleotide is a combination of the heterocyclic aromatic rings, the imidazole and pyrimidine ring.
What is homeostasis, and why is it important?
Answer:
Homeostasis is the body trying to maintain a equilibrium for many body elements, such as body temperature, body functions, etc, even with changes in the environment.
For example, the body, in trying to maintain body temperature in a cold area, would burn more calories and "create more heat" to equalize the body temperature.
Another example would be the body sweating so that excess heat would escape on a hot day.
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How do animal cells, Plant cells, freshwater protists, and
bacteriaeach deal with the problem of osmosis ?
Answer:
Plant cells deal with osmosis by being enclosed in a cell wall.
Animal cells use active transport systems to deal with the problem of osmosis.
Fresh water protists have contractile vacuoles to deal with osmosis.
Many bacteria have cell wall to protect them from osmosis.
Explanation:
Plant cells have a rigid cell wall. If a plant cell is places in a place where the conditions are hypotonic, then the cell will tale up water by osmosis but the cell wall will prevent it from bursting. This condition is termed as the cell being 'turgid'.
As animal cells do not have the rigid cell wall, they use the mechanism of active transport system to stop the cell from bursting during osmosis. In this process, ions are moved out of the cell so that the pressure in the cell due to osmosis can be reduced.
Fresh water protists have a structure present in them called as the contractile vacuole. The contractile vacuole has the capability to remove any excess water from the cell as well storing water if there is not enough water.
Bacteria have peptidoglycan cell walls to prevent osmosis.
Osmosis is managed differently in animal cells, plant cells, freshwater protists, and bacteria; animal cells use osmoregulation, plant cells use a cell wall and vacuoles, protists use contractile vacuoles, and bacteria use a semi-permeable membrane.
Explanation:Osmosis is the process by which water molecules move from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration. Animal cells, plant cells, freshwater protists, and bacteria each have their own ways of dealing with osmosis.
Animal cells are dependent on osmoregulation which involves regulation of salt concentrations and water balance. This process is critical to maintaining homeostasis within the cell.
Plant cells have a cell wall which provides additional protection against overhydration. They also have central vacuoles that can store water, allowing plants to maintain the appropriate levels of hydration.
Protists, specifically freshwater forms, have specialized organelles called contractile vacuoles which pump excess water out to prevent the cell from bursting due to osmotic pressure.
Bacteria, meanwhile, use a semi-permeable membrane to control the flow of water into and out of the cell. The membrane allows the bacteria to maintain the correct balance of water and nutrients.
Learn more about osmosis here:https://brainly.com/question/31028904
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