Answer:
Sexual dimorphism.
Explanation:
Sexual selection may be defined as the mode of natural selection in which the species choose its mate and prevent the other's individual mating. This provide better reproductive success in nature.
The sexual selection depends upon the attractive colors, size and behavior of other partner. The sexual selection results in sexual dimorphism as the male and female of the species can be easily distinguished. Their mating organ, behavior are different in opposite sexes.
Thus, the correct answer is sexual dimorphism.
how do inselbergs develop
Inselbergs arise from rocks which erode at a slower rate than that of the surrounding rocks
You identify a new fish species in the UCSB pond. The fish is diploid and shows 40 chromosomes in its somatic cells. Following mitosis, each daughter cell will have ____ chromosomes. After meiosis I, each daughter cell has ___ chromosomes, each formed by _____ chromatid(s). After meiosis II, each daughter cell is ___.
Answer:
40 chromosomes, 20 chromosomes, 2 chromatids, haploid
Explanation:
Mitosis is a type of cell division that results in two identical daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell. The fish is a diploid with 40 chromosomes (80 chromatids), after the separation of sister chromatids during the anaphase of mitosis, each sister chromatid becomes a chromosome i.e 40 chromatids (chromosome) each moves to the opposite poles and after the cell divides (cytokinesis), each daughter cell will have 40chromosomes each.
Meiosis is a type of cell division that results in four daughter cells with each having half of the parental number of chromosomes. It involves two divisions; Meiosis I and Meiosis II
In meiosis I, homologous chromosomes lie side by side to form a structure called tetrad or bivalent consisting of 4 chromatids. During anaphase I, 20 chromosomes are pulled apart to each pole with each chromosome containing 2 chromatids. After cytokinesis in meiosis I, each of the two cells will have 20 chromosomes (40 chromatids) i.e 1 chromosome = 2 chromatids
At the end of meiosis II, which is similar to mitosis, chromatids are pulled apart and each becomes a chromosome, meaning 20 chromatids will be separated to each pole and become 20 chromosomes in each cell after cytokinesis. Since the parental organism was a diploid with 40 chromosomes, and the resulting daughter cells now have 20 chromosomes each, it shows that the chromosomal number has been reduced by half. 2n ---- n
Diploid organism produce haploid daughter cells
A is a DNA sequence where RNA polymerase binds and begins the process of transcription. A is a DNA sequence that binds regulatory proteins that interact with promoter-bound proteins to activate transcription. A is a DNA sequence that binds regulatory proteins that inhibit transcription. is the protein complex that is part of the RNA interference (RNAi) mechanism. It denatures short double-stranded RNAs to single strands that carry out RNAi. is the enzyme complex that is active in RNAi, where it cuts double-stranded regulatory RNAs into 21-bp to 26-bp segments that are subsequently denatured by RISC.
Answer:
A is a DNA sequence that binds regulatory proteins that interact with promoter-bound proteins to activate transcription.
Explanation:
Background Knowledge:
DNA contains genes which is a particular segment of DNA. A gene usually has regulatory regions and a structural region.
Promoter: The regulatory region located to the 5 prime end of coding strand of the gene which is called as promoter that controls the binding RNA Polymerase during transcription.
The Terminator is the other regulatory region, located to the 3 prime end of coding strand of the gene. The terminator region causes RNA polymerase to stop transcription.
Structural region is the region present between the promoter and terminator.
Answer of the question is:
A is a DNA sequence that binds regulatory proteins that interact with promoter-bound proteins to activate transcription.
Transcription is initiated at a promoter, where RNA polymerase binds, and regulated by transcription factors that act as activators or repressors. Enhancers and repressors control the transcription process by modifying DNA structure or affecting RNA polymerase activity.
Explanation:Transcription is initiated at a specific DNA sequence known as the promoter, which is found upstream of the gene it regulates. A promoter is crucial because it determines the exact location where RNA polymerase binds and initiates transcription, starting the synthesis of RNA from the DNA template. The formation of this initiation complex involves unwinding the DNA to create a transcription bubble, where the DNA strand is read and transcribed into mRNA.
Transcription is also regulated by transcription factors, which can function as either activators or repressors. These regulatory proteins bind to sequences known as regulatory elements near the promoter. Activator proteins enhance the interaction between RNA polymerase and the promoter, facilitating transcription, while repressors inhibit this process, thereby impeding RNA synthesis. Methylation and DNA-bending due to protein interactions also play a role in facilitation and control of these regulative actions.
Enhancers and repressors influence transcription by altering the DNA's shape or by recruiting other regulatory elements to control the availability and activity of RNA polymerase at the promoter region. The overall regulatory mechanisms ensure that transcription is precise and responsive to the cell's needs, allowing for efficient and controlled gene expression.
Which of the following is an example of biological mechanical action (or weathering?) A. Rocks breaking into smaller pieces due to growing salt crystals in their pores. B. Potholes forming on roads when water inside pavement joints freezes and expands. C. The heating and cooling of minerals inside rocks, fracturing them. D. Tree roots from a tree next to a sidewalk growing underneath it and uplifting and cracking the sidewalk. E. Acid and rain water producing an acidic solution that disintegrates gravestones.
Answer:
D. Tree roots from a tree next to a sidewalk growing underneath it and cracking the sidewalk.
Explanation:
This type of action is a biological weathering.
Which part of the government has authority to enforce the Clean Water Act?
U.S. Forest Service
Congress
the president
the Environmental Protection Agency
Answer:
The Environmental Protection Agency
Explanation:
Answer:
Which part of the government has authority to enforce the clean water act? 4.- The Environmental ProtectionAgency
Explanation:
The 1972 amendments stablished that the Environmental Protection Agency was the responsible authority to supervise the Clean Water measures it developed. It was not the first time the government had established laws about it. However, the expansion of the amendments structured the modern system. Providing guidelines for water quality, standards and also to the acts of anyone that acted against the water state and condition. Qualifying them as polluters and criminals. It is known as the Clean Water law, amendment.
Ap biology work pls help
In the video, the whale exhaled carbon dioxide, which is made of one carbon atom and two oxygen atoms. List two things a scientist might ask about the movement of carbon dioxide through the whale and its surroundings.
Answer:
One thing that a scientist might ask about the movement of carbon dioxide through the whale and its surrounding is “how did the whale get the carbon dioxide?”. Another thing that a scientistmay ask about this is “how does the carbon dioxide affect the ecosystem?”
Two potential queries a scientist might have about the whale's exhalation of carbon dioxide could focus on the whale's respiration process and the effect of the exhaled carbon dioxide on the surrounding marine environment.
Explanation:A scientist studying the carbon dioxide exhaled by a whale might ask a couple of intriguing questions related to its movement. One crucial question might be, "How does the whale's body process and expel carbon dioxide?", to understand the animal's respiratory system. In simpler terms, they might question how the whale inhales oxygen and exhales carbon dioxide, which is a basic process of respiration. Another potential question could center around the interaction between the whale’s breath and its environment: "How does the exhaled carbon dioxide contribute to or impact the surrounding marine environment?". This question could help to explore the impact of the whale's respiration on its surroundings.
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A detective finds a miniscule spot of blood on a murder suspect’s shirt. What method would the police lab be expected to use to get enough DNA from the blood droplet to perform DNA fingerprinting?
Answer:
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Explanation:
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a method by which a target DNA fragment is amplified to produce millions of copies. In PCR, the Taq polymerase enzyme uses nucleotides and primers to replicate a small DNA segment in vitro and produces two DNA molecules. The newly formed DNA molecules are denatured by heating to facilitate their replication to produce four double-stranded DNA molecules. In this way, the number of DNA molecules is doubled in each cycle. Therefore, the small amount of DNA obtained from the minuscule spot of blood on a murder suspect’s shirt can be amplified using PCR.
PCR is the method that the police lab would be expected to use to extract and amplify DNA from the blood droplet found on the murder suspect's shirt. Gel electrophoresis is used to separate and analyze the amplified DNA.
Explanation:The police lab would be expected to use a method called PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) to extract and amplify DNA from the miniscule spot of blood found on the murder suspect's shirt. PCR is a technique used to copy a specific DNA segment, and it is commonly used in forensic DNA analysis to obtain enough DNA for DNA fingerprinting. After the DNA is amplified, it can be separated and analyzed using gel electrophoresis.
How do the antibiotics called cell wall inhibitors works specifically?, and why can't they be used on animals cells?
Answer & explanation:
Cell wall inhibitors are the bactericides that interfere with the synthesis of peptidoglycan, a polymer made up of sugars and amino acids that form a mesh on the outside of the bacterial cell membrane, so peptidoglycan is primarily responsible for bacterial cell wall formation.
As a consequence of peptidoglycan inhibition, cell wall weakening occurs, and the cell undergoes lysis (breakdown).
The best known cell wall inhibitor antibiotic is penicillin, which has low toxicity and therefore attacks bacterial cells, but will hardly affect host cells, since animal cells lack peptidoglycan.
3.6 Of the three possible modes by which a cutting tool can fail during a machining operation, which one is most preferable: (a) fracture failure, (b) gradual wear, or (c) temperature failure
Answer: B (gradual failure)
Explanation:
Fracture failure: This type of failure results when cutting force becomes excessive, leading to brittle fracture.
Gradual wear Gradual Failure: In this type of failure, failure is slow but progressive. As an machines becomes old, its performance and efficiency wear out gradually.
Temperature failure: This type of failure results when cutting temperature is too high for the tool material leading to the wear and tear of the machine.
Fracture and temperature failures are both immediate failure, but Gradual failure is most preferred because it leads to the longest possible use of the tool because it fails gradually.
At age 79, Mrs. X is diagnosed with a disorder that severely impairs her logical judgment. Medical imaging techniques show that this has been most likely caused by brain damage in a ______.
a. parietal lobe
b. frontal lobe
c. temporal lobe
d. premotor cortex
Answer B.frontal lobe.
Explanation:
This lobe controls all cognative activities.since logical judgment is a cognitive activity this is the correct answer.
It is part of the brain largest portion called the cerebral cortex. Divided as left and right frontal lobes.
It is located at the front of the head enclosed in the front skull bones,where it divideds into Right and Left frontal lobes.
The right lobes controls the left sides of the body and the left controls the right sides of the body for voluntary movement and activities. Therefore ,it receives sensory imputs from all parts of the body to make judgments about the immediate environment.
NOTE: Parietal lobe coordinates information about temperature, taste.
Occipital lobe-coordinates vision with movement.
Temporal lobe-coordinates memory with taste, sight, sound.
Premotor cortex: coordinates muscle activities for exact movement
Which of the following is NOT considered part of the body's nonspecific lines of defense against disease?A) antibodiesB) mucous membranesC) intact skinD) bloodborne chemicalsE) phagocytic cells
Answer:
The answer is A. Antibodies!
Explanation:
The following is not considered part of the body's nonspecific lines of defense against disease antibodies. The correct option is A.
What are antibodies?In response to infection, the immune system creates antibodies, which are proteins. They play a crucial role in the body's defense mechanism by eliminating pathogens (such as viruses or bacteria) and preventing them from invading human cells.
The second layer of protection then deals with pathogens that get past the physical barriers. Immune cells and proteins are mostly used in this innate immune response to broadly recognize and get rid of any pathogen that enters the body.
Thus, the correct option is A. antibodies.
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When one DNA molecule is copied to maketwo DNA molecules, the new DNA containsA) 75% of the parent DNA.B) 25% of the parent DNA.C) 100% of the parent DNA.D) none of the parent DNA.E) 50% of the parent DNA..
B) 100% of the parent because when DNA copies itself, everything is replicated exactly.
A simple nervous system has information flow in only one direction:
a) toward an integrating center.
b) has information flow in only one direction: away from an integrating center.
c) includes sensory information, an integrating center, and effectors.
d) must include chemical senses and vision.
e) includes sensory information but no effectors.
Answer:
The correct option is a) toward an integrating center.
Explanation:
A simple nervous system has information flow in only one direction: toward an integrating center. The integrating center is a part of our central nervous system (formed by the brain and spinal cord) that is responsible for receiving stimulations from the afferent pathway, that is, it's where the afferent or sensory information is centralized and the adequate response is elaborated, so through one or multiple synapses communicate it with the efferent pathway, through this pathway composed of nerve fibers, the information travels to the effect organ, which is responsible for manifesting the final response.
The absence of a terminator in transcription will result in ________. the creation of a virus a strand of mRNA that lacks its cap and tail the production of a longer RNA molecule the production of a shorter RNA molecule
Answer:
The absence of a terminator in transcription will result in the production of a longer RNA molecule.
Explanation:
The terminator is entitled to stop the synthesis of a particular type of RNA. If the terminator is not present at a particular site, then this will eventually lead to the elongation of RNA until another termination site is detected. Hence, option C is correct.
Other options like option D are not correct because lack of a terminator will not have any reason to produce a shorter RNA molecule. Option A is false because n RNA cannot be formed by the absence of a terminator.
The absence of a terminator in transcription leads to a longer RNA molecule because transcription continues without the normal termination signal. This could cause issues with mRNA processing in eukaryotes, as proper termination is necessary for accurate mRNA maturation.
Explanation:The absence of a terminator in transcription will result in the production of a longer RNA molecule. This is because transcription will continue past the usual stopping point, creating an extended RNA transcript. In prokaryotic cells, this could mean the RNA is used to begin protein synthesis before transcription has even terminated. However, in eukaryotic cells, transcription and translation are separated spatially and temporally, so the extended transcript would need to be processed post-transcriptionally, which might not occur correctly if the proper termination signals are not present.
Additionally, if the 5' methyl guanosine cap is not added to an mRNA, it may affect the stability and translational efficiency of the mRNA, and it will lack protection from degradation. It is important to note that the cap and tail are added to mRNA during the processing which occurs after transcription has been terminated properly.
What popular food product is obtained from a highly poisonous root that locals call manioc
Answer & explanation:
Manioc is a vegetable originating in the American continent, belonging to the Euphorbia family.
it has been cultivated by various indigenous nations in Latin America, where in many places it is the fundamental basis of the diet.
Manioc is considered a poisonous root due to the presence of cyanhydric acid in its structure. The amount of this acid varies according to the manioc species and also the roots, leaves and stems.
In Brazil, for example, manioc roots are used to produce flour, such as tapioca, and recipes with tucupi, a type of sauce obtained from the "juice" of the cassava press.
Which of the following statements best exemplifies the difference between a population and an individual?
a. Genetic changes do not occur within the individual.
b. Birth rates, death rates, immigration rates, and so on are features possessed by populations, not individuals.
c. Population ecology examines features that cannot be studied on an individual organism.
d. All of the above exemplify the difference between a population and an individual.
e. None of the above.
Answer:
d. All of the above exemplify the difference between a population and an individual.
Explanation:
A population is a group of individuals of the same species that live in a particular geographical area and are able to interbreed. A population is described with respect to several features such as death and birth rates, age structure, density, dispersion, change in the population size due to density-dependent and density-independent factors and the survivorship curve.
These features are not exhibited by a particular individual. Natural selection also works at populations. The evolutionary forces act upon populations to change their allele and genotype frequencies. Therefore, populations are the unit of evolution and change genetically over time, not the individuals. Population ecology studies the size of a populations and the trends and causes of changes in the populations over time.
A researcher has identified a mutant strain of yeast whose histones are unable to be acetylated. Which of
the following is the MOST reasonable prediction for how the phenotype of this mutant yeast will differ from
the phenotype of yeast cells with acetylated histones?
o
A. The mutant will grow more rapidly
B. The mutant will grow much more slowly.
The mutant will show decrease d levels of gene express
D. The mutant will show increased levels of gene expression
Answer:
The correct answer is c the mutant will show decreased levels of gene expression.
Explanation:
Histone acetyl transferase is an enzyme that helps in the transfer of acetyl group to the epsilon -NH2 group of lysine reside of histone proteins that surrounds the DNA molecule of chromosome.
This results to make the target DNA more assecible for transcription mediated by RNA polymerase resulting the gene expression.
On the other hand the mutant in which histones are not acetylated,transcription rate decreases as the non acetylated DNA is less assecible to RNA polymerase.
Answer:
C. The mutant will show decreased levels of gene expression.
Explanation:
Just wanted to confirm. The explanation above me is correct.
Susan, a mother with type B blood, has a child with type O blood. She claims that Craig, who has type A blood, is the father. He claims that he cannot possibly be the father. Further blood tests ordered by the judge reveal that Craig is AA. The judge rules that
Answer:
Craig is right and doesn't have to pay child support.
Explanation:
The complete question is
Susan, a mother with Type B blood, has a child with Type O blood. She claims that Craig, who has Type A blood, is the father. He claims that he cannot possibly be the father. Further blood tests ordered by the judge reveal that Craig is AA. The judge rules that:
a. Susan is right and Craig must pay child support
b. Craig is right and doesn't have to pay child support
c. Susan cannot be the real mother of the child; there must have been an error made at the hospital
d. it is impossible to reach a decision based on the limited data available
The blood type of a child is determined by the blood type of the parents, and the rules are as given in the attached diagram.Based on these rules, it can be observed that a person with type O blood group must have the genotype OO and from this, it can be concluded that both the parents must carry an O allele. Since the blood typing has revealed that Craig is AA, he can't be the father of the child and hence, he doesn't have to pay child support.A base at the first position of an anticodon on the trna would pair with a base at the ________ position of the mrna.
Answer:
Third
Explanation:
The charged tRNA anticodon consist of three nucleotides and the first nucleotide of anticodon pairs with the third nucleotide of codon of mRNA. This is explained by wobble termed as wobble hypothesis and the first position of an anticodon and third position of codon is called wobble position.
The pairing at third position is a non standard pairing as many different codons are specified by single amino acid. The primary determinants are the first two nucleotides. Thus, a base at the first position of an anticodon on the trna would pair with a base at the third position of the mrna.
Final answer:
The first position of an anticodon on tRNA pairs with the third position of the mRNA codon in reverse orientation, following standard base pairing rules. This interaction ensures the correct addition of amino acids to the growing polypeptide chain during protein synthesis.
Explanation:
The base at the first position of an anticodon on the tRNA would pair with the base at the third position of the mRNA. This is because the anticodons of tRNA molecules bind to the complementary codons of mRNA in an antiparallel manner. When reading the genetic code, codons in mRNA are read in the 5' to 3' direction; therefore, the first base of the anticodon (3' end) pairs with the third base (5' end) of the codon. Since the start codon AUG is paired with the anticodon UAC, the positioning of the charged tRNAs allows them to form base pairs correctly and contribute to the synthesis of a polypeptide chain during translation.
A normal chromosome and its homolog carrying an inversion are given. The dot (•) represents the centromere. Normal: M N • O P Q R S T Inversion: M Q P O • N R S T What type of inversion is present and what is the name of the structure that will form during synapsis?
Answer:
Pericentric, inversion loop.
Explanation:
Chromosomal inversion may be defined as the rearrangement of chromosome that may get reversed and attached. Two main types of inversion are pericentric inversion and paracentric inversion.
The pericentric inversion involves the inversion of chromsome and centromere is involved in this inversion. M Q P O • N R S T , in this case centromere is present and shows the pericentric inversion. The structure that forms during the synapsis is known as inversion loop.
Thus, the answer is pericentric, inversion loop.
Rats that received unpredictable electric shocks in a laboratory experiment subsequently became apprehensive when returned to that same laboratory setting. This best illustrates that anxiety disorders may result from A. classical conditioning. B. stimulus generalization. C. observational learning. D. reinforcement.
Answer:
The correct answer is option A. "classical conditioning".
Explanation:
Classical conditioning is a form of learning that involves the development of an association of an stimulus with a response, producing a behavior in an organism. The classic example performed by researcher Ivan Pavlov, is that a dog started to salivate after putting the tone he used previously in numerous occasions right before feeding him. Classical conditioning can also be the reason behind anxiety disorders. One example is illustrated in the question, when rats were exposed to unpredictable electric shocks in a certain laboratory. Something similar happens in dogs who are afraid of veterinarians because they associate them with receiving an injection.
The appearance of domesticated plants is taken to be the end of one great cultural period and the beginning of another. The period that ENDS with the beginning of domestication is called the
a. neolithic
b. natufian
c. paleolithic
d. premodern
Trichinella worms sometimes cause the disease known as trichinosis in humans when undercooked pork is eaten. These organisms have long cylindrical bodies but no segmentation. This species is MOST similar to which of the following animals?A. Nematodes.B. FlatwormsC. EarthwormsD. Jellyfish.E. None of the above are related to trichinella worms
Answer:
A: Nematodes
Explanation:
Nematodes are a subdivision of the animal kingdom known as Nematoda. The group consists of round/cylindrical worms without body segments. They are mostly microscopic, bilaterally symmetrical with a wide range of habitat. Many of the species in this group are endo-parasites of man and other higher animals.
The flatworms belongs to the Platyhelminthes phylum. They are unsegmented and parasites of other animals just like nematodes. However, they are flat in shape as opposed to cylindrical shape of nematodes.
Earthworms belong to the phylum Annelida. They are segmented with nervous system.
In this case, the Trichinella worms seem to be most similar to Nematodes in that:
They have cylindrical bodiesThey are unsegmentedThey are parasitic in natureThe correct option is A.
Breathing rate is most likely to increase if the blood level of
Answer:
Breathing rate is most likely to increase if the blood level of carbon dioxide increase.
Explanation:
Breathing rate is the number of breaths of a person during a specific time, is usually the number of respiratory cycles that occur per minute. External respiration is the process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide from the outside of the human body to pulmonary capillary blood. Once in the lungs, oxygen (and carbon dioxide to a very small extent) through the alveoli, pass into the red blood cells of the pulmonary vein blood. Carbon dioxide reacts in the blood with water, thanks to an enzyme, giving rise to bicarbonate. Blood reaches the heart, and is pumped into the cells by systemic arteries. The oxygen in the blood crosses the cell membrane and in turn, an exchange occurs, since the cell expels carbon dioxide and oxygen that it has not used. Once the exchange is done, the blood is conducted through the systematic veins with oxygen whose partial pressure is lower, and with an increase in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide. It reaches the heart again, leads through the right atrium and ventricle and finally travels through the pulmonary artery to the lungs where the air is expelled (expiration). Breathing rate tends to increase when the level of carbon dioxide in the blood increase.
When a research project includes the collection of biological samples, all planned future uses of the samples, identifiers, and the data obtained from the samples, must be fully explained to the research subject.a.Trueb.False
Answer:
a.True
Explanation:
Prior to obtaining the biological samples for research purposes, the donor must be informed of the consequences and risks of such obtaining for their health so that they can consent to the use of said sample.
The regime for obtaining biological samples for research purposes is stricter when it comes to minors or disabled, since the concurrence of conditions such as risk minimization, the provision of relevant knowledge of vital importance for the purpose is required of the investigation that cannot be obtained otherwise and the authorization of the legal representatives or, where appropriate, that there are guarantees on the correct consent of the source subject.
The answer is false. Informed consent involves fully explaining all planned future uses of biological samples to the research subject.
Explanation:False. When a research project includes the collection of biological samples, all planned future uses of the samples, identifiers, and the data obtained from the samples must be fully explained to the research subject. This is part of the informed consent process. Informed consent involves informing the research participant about what to expect during the experiment, any risks involved, and the implications of the research, and then obtaining their consent to participate.
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Suppose you were planning to use liposomes in an attempt to deliver drugs to a particular type of cell in the body, for example, a fat or muscle cell. Is there any way you might be able to construct the liposome to increase its target specificity?
Answer:
You can modify the by adding specific ligands
Explanation:
Liposomes are vesicules that result from the self-assembly of phospholipids in an aqueous medium, they resemble cellular membranes and can have single or multiple concentric bilayers. They are really useful for drug delivery because it is a biocompatible system, it can transport hydrophilic and hydrophobic molecules and they can be modified with specific ligands in order to reach their target, these ligands can be antibodies, peptides/proteins, and carbohydrates depending on the target.
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An organism that lacks neurons that perform integration
A) can be expected to lack myelinated neurons.
B) will not have a nervous system.
C) will not be able to interpret stimuli.
D) cannot receive stimuli.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-C
Explanation:
The nervous system performs the function of integrating the sensory information and then responding to the sensory information.
This function is especially performed by the central nervous system where the thalamus part of the brain is normally associated with the sensory neurons as they have nuclei which sense and analyse the information.
If the organism will not have the neurons which could perform the function of integration mainly the centers associated with sensing and analysing therefore, the organism will lose its capability to interpret or analyse the stimuli.
Thus, Option-C is the correct answer.
An organism that lacks neurons capable of integration can be expected to lack myelinated neurons because integration and myelination are characteristics of more complex nervous systems which involve faster signal transmission and greater integrative capabilities. However, this does not mean the organism cannot receive or interpret stimuli as simpler nervous systems are still capable of basic sensory functions.
The question posed pertains to the function of neurons and their ability to perform integration. The correct answer to the question is that an organism that lacks neurons that perform integration can be expected to lack myelinated neurons(A). Neurons are responsible for receiving and transmitting signals throughout the nervous system. Their ability to perform integration refers to the process of synthesizing incoming signals from various sources and determining if an action potential should be initiated. Myelination is a characteristic often associated with more complex nervous systems that require faster signal transmission and greater integrative capabilities. Therefore, lacking neurons that perform integration generally indicate a simpler nervous system, possibly without myelinated neurons.
It's important to note, however, that lacking neurons for integration does not mean the organism cannot receive stimuli (incorrect option D) or will not have a nervous system at all (incorrect option B). Many organisms have simpler nervous systems that can still detect environmental cues. Additionally, the inability to integrate does not directly equate to an inability to interpret stimuli (incorrect option C), as different organisms may use varying mechanisms for interpretation outside of neuronal integration.
Which of the following hypotheses is the best predictor of tree species diversity?
A. Species richness will related to temperature and potential evapotranspiration
B. Species richness will be related to precipitation
C. Species richness will be related to actual evapotranspiration.
D. Tree species richness is related to mammal species richness.
Tree species diversity is influenced by a combination of factors including temperature, evapotranspiration, and precipitation. Although each of the given hypotheses could predict tree species richness under certain conditions, it's important to consider the specific ecosystem. In science, hypotheses are tested and evaluated based on evidence, rather than ranked.
Explanation:Determining which of the following hypotheses is the best predictor of tree species diversity can be complex because it largely depends on the particular ecosystem being considered. Nonetheless, species richness is generally influenced by a combination of biotic and abiotic factors, including temperature, precipitation, and availability of resources.
Hypothesis A, which posits that species richness is related to temperature and potential evapotranspiration, is a viable predictor as these factors can influence where species can thrive. Similarly, Hypothesis B, which suggests species richness is related to precipitation, is also a considerable predictor because water availability is crucial for plant survival. Hypothesis C, which connects species richness to actual evapotranspiration, could also be strongly predictive because it ties into the available energy and water in the ecosystem. Lastly, Hypothesis D, which claims that tree species richness is related to mammal species richness, could have less predictive power as it is more dependent on complex interactions between different species and might not directly relate to tree species richness.
However, it's important to note that in science, hypotheses are not ranked as best or worst, but rather, they are tested to determine if they are supported or not by the evidence.
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Eukaryotic telomeres replicate differently than the rest of the chromosome. This is a consequence of
Answer: gaps left at the 5' end of the lagging strand.
Explanation:
Eukaryotic Chromosomes are known as the repetitive at the very ends of chromosomes, found in a wide range of Eukaryotic species. They protect the end chromosomes from deterioration or fusion with the neighboring chromosomes.
Telomeres provide a mechanism for their replication by semi conservative DNA replication (a replication in which two parental DNA strands would act as a template for new DNA strands to be synthesized) and length maintenance by Telomerase Enzymes. Telomerase Enzymes are used to extend shortened telomeres during its’ DNA replication.
DNA replication in Eukaryotic Telomeres doesn’t begins at the either end of the DNA strands but starts in the center, and considering that all known DNA Polymerase ( an enzyme that is essential for DNA replication) read the template strand in the 3’ to 5’ direction, one finds a leading strand and a lagging strand on the DNA molecule being replicated.
On the leading strand, DNA Polymerase make complementary DNA strand without any difficulty because it reads the template strand from 3’ to 5’.
On the other hand, there is a difficulty going in the other direction on the lagging strand.
WHY? This is “due to gaps left at the 5’ end of the lagging strand”. To overcome this difficulty, short sequences of RNA acting as Primers (a short single-stranded nucleic acid utilized by all living organisms in the initiation of DNA synthesis) attach to the lagging strand, a short distance ahead of where the initiation site was.
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