Answer:
The correct answer is option d.
Explanation:
FSH or follicle-stimulating hormone refers to a gonadotropin, which is produced and secreted by the anterior pituitary gland's gonadotropic cells. It monitors the growth, development, reproductive procedures, and pubertal maturation of the body.
In males, FSH instigates Sertoli cells to produce ABPs or androgen-binding proteins, regulated by negative feedback mechanism of inhibin on the anterior pituitary. Mainly, the stimulation of Sertoli cells by FSH maintains spermatogenesis and instigates secretion of inhibin B.
FSH receptors are located in the sertoli cells in males.
Explanation:The correct answer is D. FSH receptors are located in the sertoli cells.
In males, FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) is secreted by the pituitary gland and plays a crucial role in the production of sperm. FSH receptors are primarily located in the sertoli cells, which are found in the seminiferous tubules of the testes. These cells support and nourish developing sperm cells, and FSH binding to its receptors on the sertoli cells stimulates spermatogenesis.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
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Cooking food adequately to kill microbes will prevent all food-borne illness.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
A. True
Explanation:
Cooking, not just heating up, but adequately cooking will help to kill a lot of microorganisms present in food. The majority of the microbes present in our food are mesophilic organisms, this means they grow best in temperatures between 68 and 113 °F, not too hot and not too cold. The only way to ensure these microorganisms are killed and prevent food-borne illness is to apply the correct amount of heat, more than 120 °F.
Compare/Contrast the growth process and life cycleof plants and
animals.
Answer:
Comparison between the growth process and life cycle of plants and animals:
A single cell is enough to initiate life in plants and animals. The cells of both the plants and animals multiply to increase their number. The gametes in animals and the plants that produce flower, shows sexual reproduction and are haploid in nature. The egg and sperm of animal is similar in function with the megaspore and microspore of plants.
Differences between the growth process and life cycle of plants and animals:
The fertilization of plants depends on other animals ( like bees and bird) but the animal fertilization does not depends on other organisms. Well developed parental care is present in animals but absent in plants. The growth of most plants includes the alternation of generation whereas limited animals shows alternation of generation.
Which of the following is a e?
a. Aa
b. aa
d. AA
e. all of the above are examples of homozygotes
e. only b. and c. are examples of homozygotes
Answer: f. only b. and c. are examples of homozygotes
Explanation:
Diploid cells (all non-reproductive cells) have two copies of each gene, called alleles, one obtained from the father and one from the mother. In genetics, an organism is a homozygote for a gene if both alleles are the same. In contrast, heterozygotes have different alleles for the same gen.
Genes are represented with a letter, and you can differentiate between alleles if the letter is uppercase or lowercase.
For example, if you wanted to represent the gene that encodes a flower color, you could call A the 'red' version of it and a the 'blue' version of it. A plant would be homozygote for that gen if it had the same version for both alleles, AA or aa.
Proteins encoded by the ____ genes turn off or decrease the rate of cell division.
A. proto-oncogenes
B. DNA repair
C. tumor suppressor
D. DNA replication genes
E. oncogenes
Tumor suppressor genes produce proteins that control cell division. If these genes are mutated or lost, cell division may become uncontrolled, leading to the formation of tumors. Therefore, the correct answer is C, tumor suppressor genes.
Explanation:Proteins encoded by the tumor suppressor genes decrease the rate of cell division. These genes produce proteins that maintain the regulation of the cell cycle and prevent the cells from dividing too quickly or in an uncontrollable way. When these genes get mutated or eliminated, cell division may become unrestrained, leading to the formation of tumors. Therefore, the correct answer to your question is C, tumor suppressor genes.
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Final answer:
Proteins encoded by tumor suppressor genes decrease the rate of cell division by stopping the cell cycle if DNA is damaged or signaling cell death when appropriate. They are essential in preventing cancer by opposing the action of proto-oncogenes and oncogenes. The correct answer is 'C. tumor suppressor'.
Explanation:
Proteins encoded by the tumor suppressor genes play a crucial role in controlling the rate of cell division. They act as the brakes of the cell cycle, ensuring that cells do not divide uncontrollably, which could lead to cancer. These genes produce proteins that can turn off or decrease the rate of cell division by signaling potential problems with DNA to halt the cell cycle, instigating a process called apoptosis if a cell is damaged beyond repair, or through contact inhibition which prevents overgrowth due to cellular density.
On the contrary, proto-oncogenes and oncogenes are involved in promoting the cell cycle and division. However, when proto-oncogenes are mutated or expressed too much, they can become oncogenes that contribute to unregulated cell division and cancer. DNA repair genes and DNA replication genes play different roles in maintaining genomic integrity and the process of replication, respectively, but are not directly responsible for 'turning off' the cell division.
The correct answer to the question is C. tumor suppressor, as these genes are responsible for suppressing tumor growth by controlling the rate of cell division.
If the DNA content of a diploid cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle is x, then the DNA content of the same cell at metaphase of meiosis I would be
a. 0.25x.
b. 0.5x.
c. x.
d. 2x.
Answer:
d. 2x.
Explanation:
At metaphase the DNA chromatides are duplicated. This explains that if in G1 phase of the cell cycle the DNA content is x, then the content in metaphase of meiosis I is 2x.
Which of the following is not a consequence of partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils?
a. lower melting temperature
b. reduction of some cis double bonds to single bonds
c. increased risk of cardiovascular disease upon consumption by humans
d. conversions of some cis double bonds to trans double bonds.
e. longer shelf life
Answer:
The correct answer is option a. "lower melting temperature".
Explanation:
Food makers add hydrogen to vegetable oil in order to make them more solid. The melting point of vegetable oils that go trough a partial hydrogenation process do not lower, actually, the melting point increases. Vegetable oils that are partially hydrogenated are partially saturated, which in consequence increases its melting point to the point that they could be solid at room temperature.
Lowering of melting temperature isn't a consequence of partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils. Instead, it creates more saturated fats, increasing the melting temperature. Other consequences include conversion of cis double bonds into single or trans bonds, risk increase of cardiovascular diseases, and extended shelf life.
Explanation:The partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils leads to several outcomes, but a 'lower melting temperature' is not one of them. On the contrary, hydrogenation causes an increase in melting temperature because it converts unsaturated fats (present in vegetable oils) into saturated fats, which are solid at room temperature. During partial hydrogenation, cis double bonds are converted into single bonds or trans double bonds, which is associated with a greater risk of cardiovascular disease when consumed by humans. Furthermore, these alterations enhance the oil's shelf life due to the increased resistance to rancidity.
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Treatment levels that produce circulating levels in excess of natural or optimal levels are termed _____________
Answer:
Pharmacological doses
Explanation:
In our bodies the hormones and other regulators that are present usually operate in small quantities that range from pico to microgram/ml of blood and this level of hormone and other regulators is referred to as the physiological level.when treatments are given then it may lead to the production of these hormones or regulators that may exceed the physiological levels, and the levels may increase up to milligram range. Such treatments levels that lead to the excess production fo circulating levels that surpass the natural or optimal levels are termed as pharmacological doses.During meiosis some of the genes inherited from your mother get swapped onto the strand of
DNA you inherited from your father, and vice versa. This event is called crossing over.
Which outcome is the ultimate result of crossing over?
disintegration of the nuclear membrane
o decreased likelihood of twins
increase in the variability of phenotypes
o a smaller number of chromosomes
Answer:
The outcome resulting from crossing over is increase in the variability of phenotypes.
Explanation:
The non-sister chromatids tend to exchange some of the segments of chromosomes during the process of meiosis. This phenomenon is termed as crossing over or recombination.
Due to crossing over, a variety of different combinations are achieved in the genes. Hence, crossing over results in increased number of variability of phenotypes. The wide variety of genetic diversity produced is due to this phenomenon i.e crossing over or recombination.
Answer: increase in the variability of phenotypes
Insulin and growth hormones are both steroid hormones.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
On the basis of their chemical composition, hormones are classified into two broad categories: lipid-soluble and water-soluble hormones. The water-soluble hormones include amine hormones, proteins, and peptide hormones and eicosanoid hormones.
Steroids hormones are lipid-soluble hormones. Examples of steroid hormones include aldosterone, cortisol, etc.
The hormones that are made of more than 50 amino acids are categorized as protein hormones. These hormones generally have 50-200 amino acids in their chemical structure. Both growth hormone and insulin are the protein hormones.
For example, insulin hormone consists of peptide chains A and B with 21 and 30 amino acids respectively. The peptide chains are joined together by disulfide bonds. Likewise, the growth hormone is made of as many as 191 amino acids.
Draw the structure of an amino acid and a dipeptide.
Answer:
Amino acids are molecules with an amino group (-NH2), a carboxylic acid group (-COOH) and a variable group (X) that gives origin to around 20 different kinds of amino acids, you can see how the structure of an amino acid looks in the image I added.
A dipeptide is a molecule derived from two amino acids, as you can see in the image they form a bond between the amine group of one amino acid and the carboxylic acid group of the other one, forming a bond we call peptide bond, this reaction also produces a molecule of water.
Each year, pine forests suffer large losses due to pine beetle infestation. These beetles carry a fungus that infects and kills the tree. Which, if any, of the following terms is not an accurate term for the role of the beetle?
a. pathogen
b. reservoir
c. vector
d. host
e. all of the above accurately describe the role of the beetle
Answer:
a. Pathogen
Explanation:
A pathogen organism is the main cause of disease in another organism. In this example, beetles just carry the fungus, which is the real cause of the infection in the pines. So, beetles are vectors of the fungus. They also can be called "Reservoirs" or "hosts", and the fungus is the pathogen that produces the pine’s death.
Which (if any) of the following statement regarding smallpox is not correct? if all of the statements are correct, choose the final answer.
a. the vaccine is made from live vaccinia virus
b. the disease is spread through respiratory droplets
c. smallpox has been eradicated worldwide.
d. the vaccine may revert to pathogenicity causing smallpox
e. all of the above statement regarding smallpox are correct
Answer:
The correct answers are e. "all of the above statement regarding smallpox are correct".
Explanation:
Smallpox vaccination is one of the most clear examples of the benefits of performing a global vaccination program, because smallpox has been officially eradicated worldwide in 1980. However, some precautions regarding this disease should be taken, as is a very pathogenic diseases that is spread through respiratory droplets. The smallpox vaccine contains live vaccinia virus and it may revert to pathogenicity, therefore its application should be performed by an expert to assure that the virus does not affect the patient.
The structure(s) that may carry either urine or sperm in the male pig is(are):
a. ureter
b. bladder
c. urethra
d. penis
e. a and b
f. c and f
g. b, c and d
h. all of the above
Answer: d. penis
Explanation:
In pigs some of the parts of the excretory system are related to the reproductive system. The urethra is the tube where the urine get collected from the urinary bladder so as to release through the external orifice. The urethra remains connected to the penis. The vas deferens are the tubes which drains the sperms from the testes into the urethra. The urine as well as the sperms are both drained into the urethra which are finally carries away and excreted out from the body by another tube like structure that is penis.
Three of the following are evidence that charophytes are the closest algal relatives of plants. Select the exception.
a. similar sperm structure
b. the presence of chloroplasts
c. similarities in cell wall formation during cell division
d. genetic similarities in chloroplasts
Answer:
b. the presence of chloroplasts
Explanation:
The presence of chloroplast is a character being common to all the groups of green algae (to which charophytes belong) but also to plants, if one associates "plants" to the group formed by non vascular plants (mosses and relatives), non seeded vascular plants (ferns and lycophytes) and seeded plants (conifers or gymnosperms and flowering plants or angiosperms).
Thus, as the presence of chloroplasts is common throughout all these groups, it does not provide any taxonomic relevant information to particular link the charophytes to the land plants (or embryophytes, all the taxa above mentioned) as their closest relatives.
Option B- The presence of chloroplasts is not unique evidence of the close relationship between charophytes and plants. Similarities in sperm structure, cell wall formation during cell division, and genetic similarities in chloroplasts are more specific indicators of their close evolutionary relationship.
Explanation:Among the options you have provided, the correct one that doesn't serve as evidence that charophytes are the closest algal relatives of plants is b. the presence of chloroplasts. While it is true that both charophytes and plants have chloroplasts, the presence of chloroplasts is not a unique characteristic to these groups alone. Chloroplasts are found in a variety of photosynthetic organisms, including other types of algae. Therefore, the presence of chloroplasts does not specifically indicate a close relationship between charophytes and plants.
On the other hand, a. similar sperm structure, c. similarities in cell wall formation during cell division, and d. genetic similarities in chloroplasts all provide strong evidence for the close evolutionary relationship between charophytes and plants.
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Which of the following statements best distingueshes hypothesis from theories in science?
a. Theories are hypotheses that have been proved.
b. Hypothesees are guesses; theories are correct answers.
c. Hypotheses usually are relatively narrow in scope; theories have broad explanatory power.
d. Theories are proved true; hypotheses are often contradicted by experimental results.
Answer: c. Hypotheses usually are relatively narrow in scope; theories have broad explanatory power.
Explanation:
In scientific decipline, the hypothesis is a tentative statement which is produced by the method of prediction and assumption based on direct observation of the natural phenomena or event. It can be tested by using the experimental methodology.
Theory is a explaination for the cause of natural event or phenomena. This is based on the evidences obtained after experimental trials. A hypothesis can be used for generation of theory. A theory is more explanatory approach because of the details and evidences than hypothesis. Hence, c is the correct option.
If the rice already had the genes that could make vitamin A, why did scientists use genes from other organisms?
A. The rice genes didn't make the right type of vitamin A.
B. It's easier to introduce genes from one species into another than from just one species.
C. Scientists could have just "turned on" the rice genes, but they wouldn't have learned anything from that process.
D. It's easy to extract genes from bacteria.
E. The scientists didn't know how to "turn on" the genes in the rice.
Answer:
A. The rice genes didn't make the right type of vitamin A.
Explanation:
Regular white rice does not have the gene to produce beta carotene. The human body converts the beta carotene into vitamin A.
To increase the nutritional value of rice, the gene for beta carotene from daffodil flowers was inserted into the cells of endosperm of rice.
This allowed these cells of the genetically engineered rice varieties to produce beta carotene. Production of beta carotene imparted golden color to the rice grain and hence, the name.
Freediving is an activity in which a person dives, sometimes to great depth, without the use of scuba gear. The diver must hod his or her breath for the duration of the dive. (the record depth with no equipment such as diving fins, is 101m; the offical record time is over 11 minutes). historically freediving has been used by pearl divers and sponge divers.
some freedivers hyperventilate (breathe rapidly and deeply) before diving. hyperventilation can change the concentration of CO2 in the blood and may increase the length of time that a person feels like he/she can hold his/her breath.
how does hyperventilation affect blood pH?
a.) it increases CO2 and decreases H+ in the blood, increasing pH
b.) it decreases CO2 and increases H+ in the blood, increasing pH
c.) it increases CO2 and H+ in the blood, decreasig pH
d.) it decreases CO2 and H+ in the blood, increasing pH
Answer:
d.) It decreases CO2 and H+ in the blood, increasing pH
Explanation:
Carbon dioxide is eliminated from the body as a gas in exhaled air, during hyperventilation the volume of air breathed in and our increased above the normal, causing more [tex]CO_{2}[/tex] to exit the body affecting the equilibrium between bicarbonate ion and carbon dioxide:
[tex]CO_{2}+H_{2}O <- H_{2}CO_{3} <- H^{+}+HCO_{3}[/tex]
This change in the equilibrium (to the left) results in a pH rising because of the loss of H+.
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Explain the difference between epistasis end dominance How many loci are involved in each case?
Answer:
Dominance:
Dominance may be defined as the phenomena in which intra allelic genes are involved in the process. The dominant trait hides the expression of the recessive trait. The same alleles of the gene are involved in this expression. Two loci of the same gene are involved in the dominance.
Epistasis:
Epistasis may be defined as the phenomena in which inter allelic genes are involved in the process. The one gene modifies the expression of the other gene. Different gene are involved in this process. Four loci of two different genes are involved in the process of epistasis.
Final answer:
Epistasis involves genetic interaction between two or more loci, leading to one gene masking the effects of another gene, while dominance refers to one allele masking another within the same gene. Epistasis often results in non-Mendelian phenotypic ratios, in contrast to the typical Mendelian ratios seen with dominance.
Explanation:
Difference Between Epistasis and Dominance
Epistasis is a form of genetic interaction between two or more loci, where the expression of one gene or locus masks or modifies the expression of another gene at a different locus. In epistatic interactions, we often see a deviation from the typical Mendelian ratios, such as 9:3:3:1, due to the suppression of one gene by another. For instance, in Labrador Retrievers, the E locus can mask the coloration effect of the B locus, leading to different coat colors.
Dominance, on the other hand, refers to the relationship between alleles at the same genetic locus, where the dominant allele masks the expression of a recessive allele at that locus. Unlike epistasis, dominance involves just one gene with two alleles, not multiple genes.
Epistasis can result in various phenotypic ratios depending on the type of epistasis (e.g., 9:3:4 in recessive epistasis or 15:1 in dominant epistasis), whereas dominance within a single gene locus follows the standard Mendelian 3:1 phenotypic ratio in a monohybrid cross.
What are the economic impacts of any of the parasitic crustaceans on any of the commercial or sport fisheries?
Answer:
Explanation:
The Crustaceans used for commercial sale are crabs, shrimps and lobsters. All these animals are subjected to the invasion of the marine parasites such as copepods, branchiura, anchor worms, fish lice, and gnathia. These parasites affects the body of the crustaceans and cause diseases and ultimate death. This will lead to decrease in number of commercial quantity of crustaceans and fisheries. Hence, will be responsible for high economic loss.
The alternate forms of a gene are known as:
a. collinear transcripts
b. alleles
c. pseudogenes
d. polypeptides
e. unit factors
Answer:
Alleles
Explanation:
The genetic traits exhibit variations. The forms of a particular gene that govern the variations of a specific genetic trait are called alleles.
Alleles occupy corresponding loci on the homologous chromosomes. A gene may have two or more than two alleles. For a diploid organism, two alleles for a gene may be present in the genome irrespective of the multiple alleles for the trait present in the gene pool of the population.
For example, "T" and "t" are the alleles for the plant height gene wherein the allele "T" imparts the "tall" phenotype and the allele "t" imparts the "dwarf" phenotype to the plants.
Which of the following is a trait that links modern primates into a single taxonomic group?
a. Retention of five functional digits on the tore and hindimbs
b. Claws modified into flattened and compressed nails
c. Sensitive tactile pads on the distal ends of the digits
d. A complex visual apparatus with high acuity
e. All of the above
Answer:a. Retention of five functional digits on the tore and hindimbs
Explanation:
The presence of five digits or pentadactyly on the fingers as well as on the toes makes the primates distinct from other mammals. Also the keratin nails are present on each digit makes these organisms distinct from other mammals.
The five digits on the hindlimbs helps in grip of objects and on toes helps in climbing.
How many chromosomes will be in a normal human nucleus at the end of meiosis? a. 23 b. 46 c. 69 d. 92 e. none of the above is correct
Answer:
In human haploid cells there are 23 chromosomes.
what is the main problem with comparing the tree of life with the fossil record?
Answer:
Darwin gave the concept in evolution of species.
Explanation:
As we know the tree of life is quite massive and comparing it needs to be understood well in terms of fossils that were once hidden inside the layers of earth rock masses. The tree is phylogenetic representing the unique ancestral history of every creature. Analyzing their morphological, behavioral and habitats are mostly evaluated in the tree of life One major challenge is to find the roots of life for the evolutionists. Finding out the nature of the last common ancestor. Some theories suggest that the same ancestor has the same common history of origin may lead to confusion of evolutionist as acing them becomes difficult.Why is it necessary to have a primer on each side of the DNA segment to be amplified?
Final answer:
Primers are essential in PCR as they provide a starting point for DNA polymerase to begin synthesis. A primer on each side of the desired segment ensures that only the specific DNA region is exponentially amplified through subsequent PCR cycles.
Explanation:
Importance of Primers in PCR Amplification
To understand why a primer is necessary on each side of the DNA segment to be amplified, it is important to grasp the fundamentals of the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) process. Primers are short synthetic single-stranded DNA molecules that are reverse complementary to each of the two strands of the target DNA at their 3' ends. This means that the top primer anneals against the bottom DNA strand and the bottom primer anneals against the top DNA strand, essentially flanking the area to be replicated.
In the first cycle of PCR, the primers serve as an anchor for DNA polymerase, which can only add nucleotides to a pre-existing 3'-OH group provided by primers. Without primers, there would be no DNA synthesis as DNA polymerase requires a primer from which to extend the DNA strand. As a result, during the initial PCR cycle, two DNA fragments are produced: one that starts at the beginning of the desired sequence, and another that ends with the desired sequence, both extending beyond the DNA of interest.
The necessity of having a primer on each side is to ensure that in subsequent cycles of PCR, the area between the primers is selectively amplified. Each additional cycle further replicates the desired segment, ultimately leading to exponential amplification of the specific DNA region of interest.
Indicate the role of each of the following in DNA replication: (a) topoisomerase, (b) helicase, (c) primase, and (d)ligase.
Answer:
(a) topoisomerase: is a type of enzyme that helps DNA to wind or unwind to help other enzymes while replicating because DNA becomes overwound ahead of a replication fork.
(b) helicase: helps the DNA to open up. It separates each strand and creates a replication bubble.
(c) primase: this enzyme will synthesize a short DNA fragment known as primer for the polymerase to start copying, the primer is like a signal for the polymerase to know which part it should start to copy.
(d)ligase: after replication happens this enzyme closes back the replication bubble and puts back together DNA like it was.
Final answer:
Topoisomerase relieves supercoiling tension in DNA during replication. Helicase separates DNA strands to allow replication. Primase synthesizes RNA primers needed for DNA polymerase, and DNA Ligase joins Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand.
Explanation:
Roles of Enzymes in DNA Replication
Topoisomerase plays a pivotal role by alleviating the tension in the DNA molecule that results from unwinding during replication. This is accomplished by causing transient breaks in the DNA strands and allowing the DNA helix to untwist, thereby preventing the over-winding or supercoiling ahead of the replication fork.
Helicase is crucial for separating the two DNA strands at the origin of replication, creating the replication fork that allows the replication machinery to access the single-stranded DNA.
Primase synthesizes a short RNA primer which is necessary for DNA polymerase to initiate the synthesis of the new DNA strand. Since DNA polymerases require a 3'-OH group to attach new nucleotides, a primer is essential for starting the replication process.
DNA Ligase is the enzyme responsible for joining Okazaki fragments by sealing the nicks in the sugar-phosphate backbone of the lagging strand, thus creating a continuous DNA strand.
Arteriosclerosis is an example of a degenerative disease.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Arteriosclerosis is a degenerative disease affecting the heart by hardening of the arteries with deposits of fats in the arterial walls. It is categorized as a degenerative disease because it is a continuous process which causes cell and tissue changes from reducing blood circulation to tissues of the heart from low blood irrigation and extenuation from over pumping due to the reduction of the arterial diameter.
What is the role of the gizzard in bird digestion?
a. to store food for easy means of regurgitation to offspring
b. to chemically digest food
c. to store gastroliths that physically grind up food
d. to produce saliva to start the digestive process
The correct answer is C. To store gastroliths that physically grind up food.
Explanation
The gizzards, are a special part of the digestive system of some animals such as birds, fish, and reptiles whose main function is to crush the food that the animal ingests, for this task, the gizzards contain in their interior gastroliths, a kind of polished stones, that grinds the food that the animal eats. The gizzards represent an important part for these animals because many of them do not have teeth to crush their food and feed on it. So, the correct answer is C. To store gastroliths that physically grind up food.
All hormones are made wither from cholesterol or amino acids
a. True
b. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
There are two type of hormones:
- Steroids, which are synthesized by chemichally modifying cholesterol
- Peptidic hormones, which are proteins, and as such, are made with aminoacids.
Symptoms associated with which of the following diseases are due to production of an EXOtoxin that affects the nervous system (brain, spinal cord, nerves, etc.)?
a. polio
b. botulism
c. rabies
d. variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD)
e. the symptoms of all of these diseases are due to neurotoxin production
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Botulism is a classical example of a exotoxin-mediated disease.
When C. Botulism grows in food, for example, and you eat it, it is the toxins that were produced that gives you the disease, not the bacteria per se.
A very characteristic presentation of this is infants that contract botulism from the soil (were the toxins are, but not the bacteria). Infants are much more susceptible to botulism because adults GI tract is mature enough to protect from the toxins, but infants usually cannot.
In general, the Earth's climate became cooler throughout the course of the Cenozoic which greatly influenced the evolution of mammal's during this time period. Which of these is not a correct statement about this cooling event?
a. the Antarctic and Arctic ice sheet both formed during the end of the Miocene
b. falling carbon dioxide levels lead to a reverse greenhosue effect
c. water locked in ice contributes to decreased sea levels
d. ocean circulation patterns are affected by global cooing
e. the closing of the isthmus of Panama is a result of the drop in global temperature
Answer:
d. ocean circulation patterns are affected by global cooling
Explanation:
According to current studies, during glacial periods the change of ocean circulation and the increase of its productivity contributed to the reduction of atmospheric CO2 levels. As a result, this reduction influenced the cooling of the poles and the expansion of the Antarctic ice sheets in the Cenozoic period. Therefore the change in ocean circulation influences the cooling of the earth.