Answer:
The bottom of the cleft is in the palm domain. It is lined with beta sheet.
Explanation:
During DNA synthesis, a single DNA strand is being built in by polymerization of nucleotides. These polymerization process is catalyzed by enzymes called DNA polymerase. These DNA polymerase can be visualized as an open right hand which is composed of a thumb domain, a finger domain and a palm domain. The palm domain contains a prominent beta-sheet that forms a plate at the button of the DNA-binding cleft.
The subject in question is Remote Sensing, which involves the use of satellites to collect data from the Earth's surface. This data is obtained through sensors that capture information in both the visible and non-visible portions of the electromagnetic spectrum. An example of this type of data is the Landsat image.
Explanation:The subject in question is Remote Sensing, which involves the use of satellites to collect data from the Earth's surface. This data is obtained through sensors that capture information in both the visible and non-visible portions of the electromagnetic spectrum.
An example of this type of data is the Landsat image, which provides a visual representation of the Earth's surface. It can be used for various applications, such as monitoring vegetation, identifying land cover changes, and studying natural disasters.
The use of satellites and remote sensing technology is an important area in Physics that combines principles from various fields, including optics, electromagnetism, and signal processing.
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Bird guides once listed the myrtle warbler and Audubon's warbler as distinct species. Recently, these birds have been classified as eastern and western forms of a single species, the yellow-rumped warbler. Which of the following pieces of evidence, if true, would be cause for this reclassification?
Answer:
The two forms interbreed often in nature, and their offspring have good survival and reproduction.
Explanation:
Bird guides once listed the myrtle warbler and Audubon's warbler as distinct species. Recently, these birds have been classified as eastern and western forms of a single species, the yellow-rumped warbler. The two forms interbreed often in nature, and their offspring have good survival and reproduction would be cause for this reclassification of the myrtle warbler and Audubon's warbler
Bees are a colonial species and live in hives with thousands of other bees. Which description is an example of commensalism? a bee hive located in an attic space a bee hive in a hollow tree a bee hive built in the ground a bee hive in a wall a bee hive in a garage
Final answer:
The example of commensalism among the given options is a bee hive located in a hollow tree. In this scenario, the bees benefit from the shelter without causing harm to the tree, which represents the essence of a commensal relationship between two species.
Explanation:
The description of commensalism in the context of bee hives would be a hive that is located in a place where the bees can live and thrive without negatively affecting their host structure or environment. An example of this would be a bee hive in a hollow tree. The bees benefit by having a protected place to live and raise their young, while the hollow tree is not harmed by the presence of the bees. The tree simply provides a space for the bees that would otherwise be empty or used by other organisms. In contrast, bee hives located in attics, walls, or garages often cause damage or discomfort to humans, and thus, these scenarios do not represent commensal relationships.
Why would you expect Greenland to have higher albedo than Africa ??
Greenland does have higher albedo as compared to Africa because of ice everywhere in greenland, and albedo is the melting of snow and ice.
Reason of having albedo in Greenland?Since 2000, the Greenland albedo should be reduced at the accelerated rate and it should be increased in the surface temperature.
Also, in the case when the temperature is increased more snow so it should be melted and associated albedo reduced at the higher elevations in near future.
In this way, it should have a higher albedo.
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Scientists expect Greenland to have higher albedo than that of Africa because the snow in Greenland is fresh and thicker than that of Africa.
What are the weather conditions in Greenland?The climate in the Greenland has continental characteristics with very cold winter conditions which are down to minus 50°C in the northern Greenland. The temperature is very rarely above zero degree Celsius from the months of September to May.
Scientists notice that the albedo of the ice sheet is much higher in the winters when much of the Greenland area is covered by the fresh snow. During the spring season, the albedo declines rapidly as the snow begins to melt with the increase in temperature, reaching a minimum in the summer season and rising again as the fall transitions back to winter.
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Two scientists are debating how to classify a new animal species that they have discovered. They observe that the animal is capable of producing sperm.
What statement would they most likely make about the new species?
A.This animal produces offspring that are genetically different from itself.
B.This animal produces offspring that are genetically identical to itself.
C.This animal’s sperm will join with spores to produce offspring.
D.This animal’s sperm will undergo binary fission to produce offspring.
B. This animal produces offspring that are genetically identical to itself
Answer:
the answer is A
Explanation:
Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring
Answer:
For the sake of continuous life flow, advantageous traits are more likely to be passed onto offspring
Explanation:
Advantageous traits are the traits that have helped the parents to survive in adverse condition. These advantageous traits being helpful in survival are passed on to the next generation so that they can also survive and reproduce fertile and viable offspring.
As per Darwin’s theory an organism develop advantageous traits to be fit among its group member and hence survive and reproduce.
For the sake of continuous life flow, advantageous traits are more likely to be passed onto offspring
Two components of the presumed child sexual abuse accommodation syndrome (CSAAS) are the denial of abuse and recantation of abuse. Researchers who analyzed actual interviews with sexually abused children found that, in reality, the denial and recantation of abuse:
Answer:
are unusual
Explanation:
Two components of the presumed child sexual abuse accommodation syndrome (CSAAS) are the denial of abuse and recantation of abuse. Researchers who analyzed actual interviews with sexually abused children found that, in reality, the denial and recantation of abuse are unusual.
Describe the location of the four chambers of the heart.
Answer:
The heart has four chambers: The right atrium receives blood from the veins and pumps it to the right ventricle. The right ventricle receives blood from the right atrium and pumps it to the lungs, where it is loaded with oxygen. The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and pumps it to the left ventricle.
Explanation:
The four chambers of the heart are Right Atrium, Left Atrium, Right Ventricle, Left Ventricle.
The right atri.um is located in the upper right corner of the heart superior to the right ventric.le (superior to the right ventricle and anteromedial to the left atrium)
The left atriu.m is located in the posterior aspect of the right at.rium, next to the superior vena cava (superior to the left ventric.le, posterolateral to the right at.rium, posterior to the aortic root, and anterior to the esophagus)
The right ven.tricle is located in the lower right portion of the heart below the right at.rium and opposite the left ventri.cle (extends from the right atri.um to the ape.x of the heart)
The left ven.tricle is located in the bottom left portion of the heart below the left atr.ium, separated by the mit.ral valve (in a posterior and lateral location relative to the right ven.tricle)
Sorry for the periods in between the words, it kept saying it contained innappropriate words even though it didn't
Which of the following statements about plant cell walls is true?
(a) The microtubule cytoskeleton directs the orientation in which cellulose is deposited in the cell wall.
(b) The molecular components of the cell wall are the same in all plant tissues.
(c) Because plant cell walls are rigid, they are not deposited until the cell has stopped growing.
(d) The cellulose found in cell walls is produced as a precursor molecule in the cell and delivered to the extracellular space by exocytosis.
Answer:
AExplanation:
1. The cell is present in some type of cells. It is found in plants and bacteria and some others. It is present or found outside the plasma membrane.
2. The functions of cell wall are that it provides tensile strength and protection to the cell against many type of stress. It also plays very important role in many others protections for the cell. There are two layer, named as primary cell wall and secondary cell wall.
3. Composition of Plant cell walls is that they are primarily made of cellulose. Cellulose fibers are linear long polymers of around 100 molecules of glucose. These fibers cluster into bundles, known as or called microfibrils. In plants the microtubule cytoskeleton are present, and there function is that they directs the orientation of cell wall as in which orientation cellulose is deposited in the cell wall.
Cold fronts appear on weather maps in areas of
Answer:
- Large temperature and air pressure decrease
- Temperature and air pressure increase
Explanation:
What activities would be inhibited by a drug that specifically blocks the addition of phosphate groups to proteins?
Answer:
receptor tyrosine kinase activity.
Explanation:
Theses are the receptors present on the cell surfaces of cells with affinity fpr specific polypeptides- gwoth factors, hormones and cytokines. They are regulators of normal cellular processes. E.g e development and progression of cancer in most cells
Mutation in their protein sequence leads to faulty protein expression.
Answer:
RTK activity
Explanation:
RTKs are considered to be transmembrane protein receptors that help cells interact with their neighbors in a tissue. They are also regarded as the high-affinity cell surface receptors for many polypeptide growth factors, cytokines, and hormones.
It should be understood that, the activation of Tyrosine-kinase receptor is that , the Inactive proteins within the cell bind to the phosphorylated tyrosine residues, the phosphate is transferred to the proteins, and the proteins become active.
Therefore, when the drug that specifically blocks the addition of phosphate groups to protein is used, it will definitely inhibit the activities of the Tyrosine-kinase receptor.
An example of a mutualistic association between a plant and a fungus would be
Answer: mycorrhiza
Explanation: mycorrhiza is the symbiotic relationship that occurs between a fungi and the root of plants.here the fungi helps the plant absorbs nutrients and water from the soil.the fungi encloses the root and it's hyphae penetrates into the root cell.the fungi in return gets food from the plant.in this interaction,they both benefit.
The association may be ectomycorrhizal or endomycorrhizal. In ectomycorrhizal,the fungi grows on the surface of the root and it's hyphae coats the roots.in endomycorrhizal,the fungus does not necessarily coat the root,but few hyphae penetrates the epidermal cell and the cortex of the root.it is said to be living within the cells of the root.
A mutualistic association between a plant and a fungus is exemplified by mycorrhizal interactions. In this symbiotic relationship, both the plant and the fungus benefit by exchanging nutrients.
Explanation:An example of a mutualistic association between a plant and a fungus would be mycorrhizal relationships. Mycorrhizae are symbiotic relationships between fungi and plants, where the fungi colonize the root system of a host plant, providing it with essential nutrients like phosphorus while in return, the plant provides the fungi with carbohydrates, substances synthesized during photosynthesis. This interactive association supports the survival and growth of both the fungus and the plant, defining a mutualistic relationship.
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The beginning of ventricular systole is when blood flowing back toward the relaxed ventricles causes the semilunar valves to close.The beginning of ventricular systole is when blood flowing back toward the relaxed ventricles causes the semilunar valves to close.A) TrueB) False
Answer:
false.
Explanation:
These are the valves between the aorta and the left ventricles and between the pulmonary artery and the right ventricle.
Ventricular systole begins when the atrioventricular valves closes up due to rise in the pressure in the ventricles and the opening of seminular valves for blood to leave the ventricles into pulmonary and systemic circulation.
This signifies the beginning of ventricular contraction, as the closure of the atrioventricular Valves between the atria and the ventricles prevent the mixing up of oxygenated blood and deoxygenated blood in the ventricles . It ensures complete emptying of the ventricles before returning blood from the atria enters again for another cycle.
.
Collectively they (semilunar valves)prevent back flow of blood from the arteries(aorta and pulmonary arteries) back into the ventricles.
The beginning of ventricular systole is indeed when the semilunar valves close to prevent the backflow of blood as the ventricles begin to relax after systolic contraction. The statement is true.
Explanation:The statement, 'The beginning of ventricular systole is when blood flowing back toward the relaxed ventricles causes the semilunar valves to close', is True. Ventricular systole refers to the phase of the cardiac cycle when the ventricles contract to eject blood into the arteries. The start of this process is indeed marked by the closure of the semilunar valves. These valves close to prevent the backflow of blood into the ventricles from the arteries, as the pressure in the ventricles drops below the pressure in the arteries, which happens when the ventricles start to relax after the systolic contraction. Therefore, the closing of the semilunar valves marks the end of ventricular systole and the start of the diastolic phase, when the ventricles are relaxed and begin to refill with blood.
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The term used to describe the number of individuals moving into a population is ___ . *
5 points
growth pattering
immigration
logistic growth
emigration
Answer:
the correct answer D. Emigration
A client is being prepared for discharge from an ambulatory surgical clinic after a cataract extraction and an intraocular lens implant. Which statement indicates to the nurse that the discharge teaching was effective?1. "I should call the clinic if my eye begins to hurt."2. "I am so glad that I can take a shower tomorrow."3. "There will be bright flashes of light for a few days."4. "My vision should show some improvement by tomorrow."
Answer: The correct answer to the question is option 1
I SHOULD CALL THE CLINIC IF MY EYE BEGINS TO HURT.
Explanation: Cataract is the opasity or clouding of the lens of the eye making it to deviate from it's normal natural transparent/clear form.It is characterised by blurry vision.Treatment of cataract is by removal of the opaque cataract and replacing it with an clear artificial lens.
Cataract extraction and intraocular lens implant is a generally safe procedure,so when pain occurs after the procedure,it indicates that infection has set in or there is bleeding in the procedure site and it is advices that when a patient notices any of these,it should be reported immediately. Certain things should be avoided after cataract extraction and intraocular lens implant, things like soap,having a bath,washing the hair can all irritate the eye so all these should be avoided from few days to atleast 2weeks after the surgery.
When the patient that has undergone cataract extraction and intraocular lens implant experiences flashes of light,it indicates they there is retinal detachment,this is not expected, but if it is experienced by the patient,it should be reported immediately too.
As mentioned earlier, cataract extraction and intraocular lens implant is generally a safe procedure and rapid improvement in vision is always recorded in some people although some other patients stay several weeks before they achieve an improvement in visual acuity.
Answer:
1.
Explanation:
Normally after cataract extraction and lens implants pain should not be felt by the subject. Therefore urgent attention should be sought if pain is experienced by the individual, which is a sign that an infection has developed or developing or bleeding in the blood vessels supplying the eyes.
Although the patient may experience discomfort after using Irritants which may affects the eyes e,g use of perfumes, soaps and shampoos, this should be avoided.
However if the patient did not use any irritants, then the discomfort should be due to infection or internal bleeding as stated above, and urgent medical help should be sought for.
Please help *10* points
Answer:
You're answer is Codon.
If the two traits that Mendel looked at in his dihybrid cross of smooth yellow peas with wrinkled green peas had been controlled by genes that were located near each other on the same chromosome, then the F2 generation __________.a.Would have contained four phenotypes in a 9:3:3:1 ratiob.Would have contained only individuals that were heterozygous at bothlocic.Would have deviated from the 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratiod.Would have contained no individuals that were heterozygous at both loci
Answer:
c. Would have deviated from the 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio
Explanation:
If two genes are linked together on the same chromosome, the phenotype of the F2 generation would have deviated from 9:3:3:1.
Two genes whose loci are close on the same chromosome are said to be linked. Linked genes have higher frequency of recombination than genes that are not linked.
Hence, while genes that are not linked assort independently to produce 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio at F2, linked genes do not assort independently and the higher frequency of recombination ensures that they standard phenotypic ratio is deviated from.
The correct option is c.
An organism grown in a high nutrient liquid broth to high turbidity always appears to produce a blue pigment and even when a large inoculum is transferred to a nutrient rich agar plate it appears blue. When the researcher noticed it never appears blue when very small colonies were grown in low nutrient agar plates. What is the most plausible conclusion?
Answer:
The blue pigment production is linked to quorum sensing.
In peas, if the allele for yellow is Y, the allele for the contrasting trait green is _____________ (the answer is case sensitive)
Answer:
y
Explanation:
I looked it up in quizzlet
The allele for the green trait in peas, contrasting the dominant yellow represented by 'Y', is represented by 'y'.
Explanation:In peas, given that the allele for yellow is Y, the allele for the contrasting trait green is y. This is because in Mendelian genetics, dominant traits are represented by uppercase letters, while recessive traits are denoted by lowercase letters. In this case, the yellow color in peas is the dominant trait, which is why it is represented as Y. Hence, the corresponding allele for green peas, which is the recessive trait, would be a lowercase 'y'.
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Morbidity rate is an important parameter used by epidemiologists to measure disease. If there are 10 new cases of measles per 10,000 individuals in a population in a two-month period, the morbidity rate is _______.
Answer:
0.1%
Explanation:
Morbidity rate (Mr) = n sample / number of cases
Mr = 10 / 10,000 = 0.1%
Answer:
0.1%
Explanation:
If there are 10 new cases of measles per 10,000 individuals in a population in a two-month period, the morbidity rate is 0.1% for the two-month period.
The morbidity rate of a disease can be defined as the rate at which such disease appears in a population. On the other hand, it is the proportion or the percentage of a population with such disease in a particular period of time.
Hence, for a disease that infects 10 people out of 10,000 individuals in a population within a two-month period, the morbidity rate can be calculated as:
10/10,00 x 100 = 0.1% per two-month
which change to one of the kits would make it useful for modeling proteins?
Answer:
I just took it and got it wrong so it’s not set 2, add a box for sulfur (s) atoms
Explanation:
Answer: C. Set 3, replace the box of phosphorous (P) atoms with a box of sulfur (S) atoms
Explanation: I just took it and got it right
i’m not to sure what the answer is
Which physical characteristics are found on earth but not on the moon ?
Answer: Oceans, active volcanoes, an atmosphere, life, etc.
The physical characteristics are found on earth but not on the moon are trees, Oxygen, Water.
What are the characteristics of moon?The Moon is like a desert with plains, mountains, and valleys. It also has many craters, holes created when space rocks hit the surface at a high speed. There is no air to breathe on the Moon. The Moon travels around the Earth in an oval-shaped orbit.
The moon has mountains, plateaus, plains and depressions on its surface. In the reflected light on the Earth these features look like shadows. Hence, we see shadows on the surface of the Moon.
These eight phases are, in order, new Moon, waxing crescent, first quarter, waxing gibbous, full Moon, waning gibbous, third quarter and waning crescent. The cycle repeats once a month (every 29.5 days).
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The hormone glucagon ________. a.stimulates conversion of glucose to glycogen or fat for storage b.raises blood glucose, accelerates transport of glucose into body cells
Answer:
Raises blood glucose (Ans B)
Explanation:
In the pancreas, alpha cells are present and it produces the hormone known as glucagon. Glucagon helps to control blood glucose levels with the hormone insulin. For controlling the blood sugar level, it acts on the liver in different ways:
1) A process is known as glycogenolysis, in which it promotes the modification of stored glycogen in the liver to glucose, and released into the bloodstream.
2) A process is known as gluconeogenesis, in which it stimulates the generation of glucose from an amino acid.
3) To maintain the blood glucose levels it decreases glucose consumption by the liver so that as much as glucose can be discharged into the bloodstream.
DNA functions as a sort of recipe for the proteins that make an organism what it is and make it work. It doesn't make proteins directly but directs a series of steps that result in proteins. Which sequence below correctly follows how this works?
Final answer:
DNA directs the steps of transcription and translation to produce proteins.
Explanation:
The sequence that correctly follows how DNA functions as a recipe for proteins is as follows:
DNA serves as the genetic material and provides instructions for protein synthesis.DNA is transcribed into messenger RNA (mRNA) through a process called transcription.The mRNA leaves the nucleus and enters the cytoplasm, where it is translated to produce proteins.So, DNA directs the steps of transcription and translation, ultimately resulting in the production of proteins.
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What is the main cause of an earthquake?
o force of gravity
o the shaking of the ground
o stress caused by plate movement
waves that ripple from the epicenter
Answer:
c or stress caused by plate movement
Explanation:
did the assignment
The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the ________.
Answer:
parietal lobe
Explanation:
Which of the following statements is true? 1.Innate defenses are enough to keep a person healthly. 2.Adaptive defenses include humoral immunity only. 3.Adaptive defenses include both humoral and cellular immunity.
Answer:
Which of the following statements is true? 3. Adaptive defenses include both humoral and cellular immunity.
Explanation:
Definitely Innate defenses are not enough to keep a person healthly, there are a lot of other factors to take into account when we are considering people's health. Adaptive defenses not only include humoral immunity (mediated by macromolecules) , but also cellular immunity (does not involve antibodies).
The true statement among those provided is that adaptive defenses include both humoral and cellular immunity. Humoral immunity involves antibodies from B cells, while cellular immunity involves T cells that target infected cells or pathogens.
The subject of this question is the immune system, specifically the differences between innate and adaptive immune defenses. Addressing the true statement from the options provided:
Innate defenses alone are not always enough to keep a person healthy, as there are numerous pathogens that can overcome these basic defenses.Adaptive defenses include more than just humoral immunity; they also encompass cellular immunity.Adaptive defenses include both humoral and cellular immunity. Humoral immunity involves antibodies produced by B cells, that bind to foreign substances in the blood and mucosal surfaces, whereas cellular immunity involves T cells that target and destroy infected host cells or pathogens.Therefore, the true statement is that adaptive defenses include both humoral and cellular immunity.
Antibiotics are prescribed for a child with otitis media who underwent a myringotomy with insertion of tympanostomy tubes. The nurse provides discharge instructions to the parents regarding the administration of the antibiotics. Which statement, if made by the parents, indicates understanding of the instructions provided? 1."Administer the antibiotics until they are gone."2."Administer the antibiotics if the child has a fever."3."Administer the antibiotics until the child feels better."4."Begin to taper the antibiotics after 3 days of a full course."
Answer:
The preferable option will be - 1.
1. "Administer the antibiotics until they are gone."
Explanation:
A myringotomy is the insertion of tympanoplasty tubes into the middle ear to promote drainage of purulent middle ear fluid, equalize pressure, and keep the ear aerated. The nurse must instruct parents regarding the administration of antibiotics. Antibiotics need to be taken as prescribed, and the full course needs to be completed. The parents should complete the full course antibiotic therapy.
Which of the listed items are TRUE for sauropods?
Select ALL that apply.
A. unidirectional respiration likely lived in large groups
B. hypothesized lifespans of roughly 100 years
C. commonly lived in swamps
D. carried their tails off of the ground
E. forelimbs and hindlimbs both plantigrade
Answer:
A. Unidirectional respiration, likely lived in large groups
B. hypothesized lifespans of roughly 100 years
D. carried their tails off of the ground
Explanation:
Saurapods are long neck hebivores with following characteristics :
Obligate QadrupedalityUnidirectional respirationLikely lived in large groupsVery large Weak teethHypothesized lifespans of roughly 100 yearsCarried their tails off of the ground Extracervical vertebraeReduced skull sizeTooth to tooth occlusion for precise bitesFour or more sacralsReduced number of phalanges on manus.Hence options A, B and D are correct.
The products of restriction digestion can be visualized by gel electrophoresis, which separates fragments based on their size. View Available Hint(s) The products of restriction digestion can be visualized by gel electrophoresis, which separates fragments based on their size. True False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Gel electrophoresis is a technique that is commonly used in the laboratory to separate charged molecules, like DNA, according to their size. The results of restriction digestion can be observed using this process. Restriction Digestion involves the process of cutting DNA molecules into smaller fragments using special enzymes called Restriction Endonucleases. And this way any inhibition of the restriction enzymes which prevents digestion can be observed and controlled.