Answer:
Herniated disk
Explanation:
Herniated disk occurs as a result of the rupturing or bulging of the disk annulus. The disc nucleus bulges out of the annulus through a crack or rupture in the annulus into the spine.
Herniated disk occurs along the spine most especially in the lower back and it is known to be the most prominent cause of back pain and also leg pain.
It can be treated through physical therapy, ice therapy, pain relief drugs etc.
From the symptoms displayed by Ms Mary, the most likely diagnosis is Herniated disk.
The most likely diagnosis for Ms. Mary is Sciatica. Her symptoms of acute, radiating low back pain and positive straight leg raise are consistent with this condition characterized by pain following the path of the sciatic nerve.
Explanation:From the symptoms described, the most likely diagnosis for Ms. Mary, a 40-year-old African-American female experiencing acute low back pain that radiates down the left buttock to the lower leg with a positive straight left leg raise, is Sciatica. Sciatica is a condition where pain radiates along the path of the sciatic nerve, which branches from your lower back through your hips and buttocks and down each leg. This condition typically affects only one side of the body and may result from a herniated disk, bone spur on the spine, or narrowing of the spine (spinal stenosis) compressing part of the nerve, leading to inflammation, pain, and often some numbness. The pain can be severe and is often worsened by sitting. The description of her pain and the positive straight leg raise points towards this diagnosis.
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Kevin burns 5.5 cal/min by walking at a speed of 4.5 miles per hour. He is also able to have a conversation while performing this moderately intense physical activity. What effect does this activity have on his breathing and heart rate:
A. a slight change in his breathing but no change in his heart rate
B. no change in his breathing but a significant change in his heart rate
C. a significant change in both his breathing and heart rate
D. a slight increase in both his breathing and heart rate e. little to no change in his breathing and heart rate
It is thought that a combination of sympathetic activation and parasympathetic withdrawal causes the increase in heart rate during exercise. Thus, option E is correct.
What effect of physical activity on breathing and heart rate?Exercise also increases the muscles' ability to remove oxygen from the blood, which lessens the demand for the heart to pump blood to the muscles.
The parasympathetic nervous system's reactivation is thought to be responsible for the drop in heart rate that occurs right after exercise
While exercising, the heart rate rises. Increases in breathing rate and depth ensure that more oxygen is taken up by the blood and more carbon dioxide is expelled from it.
The number of breaths taken in a minute can be used to calculate the rate of breathing.
Therefore, little to no change in his breathing and heart rate.
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Dana is pregnant and she is dining at a restaurant with her husband. She has been reading about foodborne illness risk during pregnancy and knows which foods to avoid. Which meal choice is the best for her as it is the least likely to cause foodborne illness?
A: Medium-well steak with mashed potatoes and sautéed squash
B: A medium-rare hamburger with a side of coleslaw containing raw cabbage
C: Nigiri sushi: raw fish sampler served on top of short grain white rice
D: A Greek salad with feta cheese; the server is unable to determine whether the feta cheese is pasteurized or not
Answer:
the answer is A
Explanation:
when you are pregnant you want to stay away from everything raw and any pasteurized cheese
A simple random sample of 1,000 persons is taken to estimate the proportion (p) of people with high blood pressure (HBP) in a large population. It turns out that 343 of those people have HBP. The box model that represents this chance process is 1,000 draws from a:
Answer:
0-1 box (1=HBP, 0=NHB) with 34.3% fraction of 1s.
Explanation:
The nursing instructor is teaching students about assessment and the importance of having baseline data when caring for clients. The instructor should inform the students that the best place to get baseline data is:_______.
Answer:
The initial comprehensive nursing assessment.
Explanation:
Getting information they say is equal to getting power. Every business or company/organizations need data or information to perform perfectly and efficiently and this does not exclude the health industry that is the hospital.
The information medical personnels collect are one of the things that do assist them in treating patients efficiently.
A baseline data simply means the information or data from a source that has previously existed Before.
So, in medicine the best place to get baseline data is during your first assessment.
A person having a blood-alcohol content of _________ is considered legally impaired or intoxicated under Texas law. *
0 points
0.75
0.08
1.25
0.2
Answer: .08
Explanation:
Sometimes when a person in a movie is stabbed or cut, blood forcefully sprays out of the wound. This is realistic only if the severed vessel is under a high degree of pressure. Which of the following vessels, if severed, would result in the most forceful spray of blood?
A) pulmonary artery
B) inferior vena cava
C) capillaries in the body
D) aorta
Answer: D) aorta
If the aorta is damaged, the pressure could lead to immediate death. the pressure is what causes the aorta to spray out of the wound.
help please!!!!!!!!!
Answer:
All?
Explanation:
In my opinion all of these can be checked to describe someone who is mentally healthy.
Hope this helps!
You have administered one dose of epinephrine to a 40-year-old female to treat an allergic reaction that she developed after being stung by a scorpion. Your reassessment reveals that she is still having difficulty breathing, has a decreasing mental status, and has a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg. You should:
Answer: Request permission from medical control to give another dose of epinephrine.
Explanation:
The dose of epinephrine helps in controlling the allergic reaction which has been caused due to the bite of scorpion. One dose of epinephrine is not enough as the patient is still feeling difficulty in breathing.
The mental status of the female is also not fine and the blood pressure is also low 80/50 mm Hg. This injection is used as a emergency medical treatment given to treat life threatening allergic reactions caused by the insect bite.
It is a class of alpha-beta adrenergic agonists which works by relaxing the muscles and tightening the blood vessels which increases the blood pressure.
An alert and oriented young male fell 5 feet from a stage, impacting a metal railing with the right side of his chest, just under his armpit. The primary assessment is negative for life threats, although he does complain of very painful breathing and has remarkable tenderness and crepitus over the 5th rib laterally in this area. Throughout care, what action is essential to perform?
Answer: Monitor breath sounds
Explanation:
The person fell from 5 feet of height which impacted his chest and armpit area. The person got blunt trauma due to falling from height which might have cause pulmonary contusion, also known as lung contusion, is a lung bruise, caused by damage to the lungs (do not tear or cut lung tissues).
Due to this trauma person is having difficulty in breathing and feeling tenderness. The essential action to take for the person is to monitor breath sounds. Lung ascultation or monitoring is an important part of the respiratory test and helps in the diagnosis of various respiratory disorders. Auscultation tests airflow through the bronchial-trachea branch. To make a correct diagnosis, it is important to differentiate between normal respiratory sounds and abnormal ones, such as wheezes, crackles and pleural rub.
Hence, the correct answer is monitor breath sounds.
The student should continually monitor the young male's vital signs, particularly the respiratory rate and oxygen saturation, and look for signs of respiratory distress, which could indicate a serious condition like a pneumothorax. Pain management is essential to ease the patient's breathing. If the patient's condition worsens, supportive measures and further examinations may be required.
Explanation:In this scenario, the young male who fell from the stage and impacted his rib area is at risk of having a chest injury that could potentially lead to pneumothorax (air in the chest outside the lung). Therefore, it's essential to monitor his vital signs, especially his respiratory rate and oxygen saturation. A decrease in either could indicate the development of a pneumothorax. Also, he should be examined for any signs of respiratory distress, as that could also indicate worsening of his condition.
Pain control is also essential. Pain can increase the work of breathing, and so controlling pain can help the patient breathe easier. Furthermore, the presence of crepitus (a crackling sound in the lung) could suggest that air is leaking into places it doesn't usually occupy within the chest, which could be a sign of pneumothorax.
If his respiratory condition worsens, supportive measures such as supplemental oxygen or chest decompression might be necessary. He might also need further investigations such as a chest radiograph and evaluation by medical professionals.
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The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled for a computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain because of new onset of headaches. Which statement by the nurse is most accurate when preparing the patient for the scan?a.""You must shampoo your hair thoroughly tonight to remove oil and dirt.""b.""You will need to hold your head completely still during the examination.""c.""You may take fluids until about 8 a.m. Then we will give you a special radiopaque drink.""d.""We will partially shave your head tonight so that electrodes can be attached securely to your scalp.""
Answer:B---You will need to hold your head completely still during the examination
Explanation:
A CT scan of the brain is a diagnostic imaging procedure that uses special X-rays measurements to produce cross sectional images of the brain so as to provide an extra detailed information or data about brain tissue and structure concerning issues related to injuries or diseases of the brain.
During a brain CT, the X-ray beam moves in a circle around the body,and the scanner of the Ct SCAN xray starts to rotate around the body detecting the marked brain's tissues and then transmits the data to the computer. The computer will transmit the data fed into it into an image containing information that can interpreted by the radiologist.
One important procedure amongst others is to remain very still during the procedure so as to allow the right view to be captured by the scanner.
The most accurate statement is: b. "You will need to hold your head completely still during the examination."
The most accurate statement for a nurse preparing a patient for a brain CT scan is to instruct them to hold their head completely still during the examination. This ensures clear and precise imaging.
A Computed Tomography (CT) scan involves taking a series of x-rays from different angles to generate detailed images of the brain. It's crucial for the patient to remain completely still during the scan to ensure clear and precise images. This allows accurate diagnosis of conditions such as tumors, brain atrophy, and other abnormalities.
Select the best answer for the question.
12. Which of the following is a good strategy when it comes to desserts?
OO
O A. Serve a dessert that's nutritious and healthful.
O B. Children should finish all the food on their plates, first.
O C. Enjoy dessert while watching funny videos.
O D. Serve dessert if homework is finished quickly.
Mark for review (Will be highlighted on the review page)
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Answer: O B.
Explanation: it sounds good
Explain what endocrine disruptors (EDCs) are, and provide 2 examples of EDCs that are found in the environment. Explain why endocrine disruptors are a problem for humans, and discuss why they have not been completely banned by the United States government.
Answer:
Explanation:
Endocrine disruptors (EDCs): These are chemicals that can interfere with endocrine or hormonal systems by altering hormone levels, affecting the synthesis or metabolism of hormones or by changing the way hormones elicit their functions. These disruptions may lead to cancerous tumors, birth defects and other developmental disorders in humans. EDCs are also naturally occurring or man made chemicals that are released into the environment. Humans are exposed to EDCs through ingestion, inhalation or direct contact through skin. Wildlife are exposed to EDCs through food and water consumption. Examples of EDCs are pesticides (e.g., atrazine and vinclozolin) and surfactants (e.g., octyphenol).
Why these chemicals have not been banned by the United State government is because some of them are of economical importance. Example is BPA, which is one of the most high production volume chemicals in the world and these chemicals are widely used in so many products and its very difficult to banned.
Answer:
Group of drugs and substances e,g birth pills which affects/ disrupts normal functioning of hormones in the body are are called Endocrine distruptors. They may be natural or synthetic ,They exhibit their effects by causing over stimulation or inadequate response of the body cells and organs to their effects. They may also interfere with the receptors peculiar to a particular hormone sensitivity,or they may cause over or under secretion of hormones.
Examples are Synthetic Oestrogen as birth pills
and polychlorinated biphenyls.
Collectively theses substances can cause malformation during development as hormones regulates and coordinate most growth and development stages.
they may alter the sequence of events of reproductions which may disrupts fertility.
Some may produce carcinogenic effects from mutations of cells.
some may affects the normal functioning of the nervous systems leading to neurological disorders.
They may affect immune response by interfering with certain proteins.
why they have not been completely banned by the United States government.
This is largely due to deficiencies in the legislation in the USA., to select which distruptors to cancel based on non-voluntary cancellation, rather than threshold safety as observed in EU.
Explanation:
The actions of the muscles that cross the hip do not include __________.
Does not include bones
After the researchers see the number of subjects they will have to interview, they reexamine their criteria. The researchers could decrease the number of subjects while having the least impact on the reliability of the study by ___________.A. increasing p and decreasing B.
B. increasing p or decreasing B.
C. decreasing p and increasing B.
D. decreasing p or increasing B.
Answer:
D. decreasing p or increasing B.
Explanation:
From the formula presented for the sake of answering this question as shown below:
n = Np (1-p)/ (N-1)B squared/4 + (p) (1-p)
Hence, the number of subjects can be reduced while having the least impact of the study reliability if we decrease the proportion of subjects needed (p) or increase the acceptable amount of error (B). This way, the study still remains reliable.
The nursing instructor is reviewing the plan of care for a postpartum client with a student. The instructor asks the nursing student about the taking-in phase according to Rubin's phases of regeneration and the client behaviors that are most likely to occur during this phase. Which responses made by the student indicate an understanding of this phase?
A. "The client would be independent."
B. "The client initiates activities on her own."
C. "The client participates in mothering tasks."
D. "The client is self-focused and talks to others about labor."
Answer:
D.The client is self-focused and talks to others about labor."
Explanation:
Rubin has identified three phases of regeneration during the postpartum period. They include:
1. The taking-in phase
2.Taking-hold phase
3.Letting-go phase.
The taking-in phase occurs in the first 3 days postpartum, During the taking-in phase, the new mother(client)is trying to integrate her labor and birth experience. She tends to need sleep and feels tired, talks about labor, and is self-focused and dependent.
Taking-hold phase:
The taking-hold phase occurs between days 3 to 10 days postpartum.In the taking-hold phase, the client is more active, independent, initiates activities, and partakes in mothering tasks.
Letting-go phase:
In the letting-go phase, the mother may grieve over the separation of the baby from part of her body.
The absorption of water into the blood occurs in the _____. a. esophagus c. small intestine b. stomach d. large intestine
Answer:
C. Small Intestine
Explanation:
Answer:
large intestine
Explanation:
i just took the assignment
why is it important to eat a variety of foods?
Answer:
Because when you eat a variety of foods you expand your pallet and it makes you healthier
Explanation:
Just trust me
-hope this helped!
Which statement about dietary protein sources is FALSE? Animal products are the most highly concentrated sources of protein. Plant sources of protein are typically rich in fiber and phytochemicals. Legumes provide about as much protein per ½ cup serving as a cup of milk. Most people in the U.S. need protein supplements to meet dietary requirements.
Answer:Option D
Explanation:
Proteins is building block of the body. It is the most important component of the body which is required by all the cells.
The diets like soy milk, soy bean, animal products and legumes have high amount of protein in it. Besides this there is no need of supplements for the body if a person is taking food rich in these materials there is no need of supplements for the body.
The U.S diet consists of protein rich diet so there is no need of dietary supplements in order to meet the dietary requirements.
The FALSE statement about dietary protein sources is that most people in the U.S. need protein supplements to meet dietary requirements.
Explanation:The FALSE statement about dietary protein sources is: Most people in the U.S. need protein supplements to meet dietary requirements. While animal products are highly concentrated sources of protein, plant sources of protein are typically rich in fiber and phytochemicals. Legumes provide about as much protein per ½ cup serving as a cup of milk.
Animal products tend to be highly concentrated sources of protein, while plant sources often provide fiber and phytochemicals. Legumes, such as lentils or chickpeas, do offer significant protein content - around the same amount per ½ cup serving as found in a cup of milk.
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annabelle is in the grocery store when she notices, and she becomes very dizzy. She is shaking so that she is barely able to stand up, and she cannot seem to get enough air and begins to hyperventilate. Annebelle thinks that maybe she is having a heart attack or going insane. She was fine a few minutes ago. Annebelle is exhibiting symptoms of a(n)_______.
A cholera outbreak has occurred, and the culprit is contaminated drinking water. Which controllable risk factors might have caused this outbreak? Check all that apply
Answer:
The options are given below:
A. The unsanitary handling of human waste by nearby waterways.
B. The genetic makeup of individuals reporting cholera-related symptoms.
C. The significant difference in reported cases between males and females.
D. The reduction in accessibility to regions that use filtered bottled water.
E. The lack of access individuals with symptoms have to health clinics.
The correct option is A.
Explanation:
Cholera is caused by the a bacterium called Vibrio cholerae. People become infected after they eat food or drink water that has been contaminated by the faeces of infected persons.
Also, raw or undercooked seafood may be a source of infection in areas where cholera is prevalent and sanitation is poor.
Therefore, in an area where there is cholera outbreak, which has been caused by contaminated drinking water, the likely cause of this outbreak will be as a result of the improper and unsanitary handling of human waste by nearby waterways.
Answer:
1. The unsanitary handling of human waste by nearby waterways
4. The reduction in accessibility to regions that use filtered bottle water
5. The lack of access individuals with symptoms have to health clinics.
Explanation:
just did it on edge
when both chest compressions and rescue breaths are used in CPR, how many rescue breaths are included in one cycle?
Thanks :)
Answer: 2 rescue breaths are in one cycle
The registered nurse is teaching the nursing student about the interventions to be followed while caring for a client undergoing treatment with anxiolytic drugs. Which statement made by the nursing student indicates the need for further teaching?
A. "I should monitor vital signs of the client."
B. "I should check the client's oral cavities for cheeking of drugs."
C. "I should encourage the client to use compression stockings."
D. "I should encourage the client to change positions quickly."
Answer: D) "I should encourage the client to change positions quickly"
Explanation: Anxiolytic drugs are usually used to treat anxiety, so if the nursing student says this, it would probably indicate that they need further instruction and teaching.
A 24-year old client who has diabetes mellitus accidentally cut herself while preparing dinner and has sustained a large laceration on her left wrist. After the laceration is sutured, the client asks the nurse, "How long will it take for my scars to disappear?" Which statement is the nurse's best response?
A) "The contraction phase of wound healing can take 2 to 3 years."
B) "With your history and the type and location of your injury, it's hard to say."
C) "Wound healing is very individual but the scar should fade within 4 months."
D) "If you don't develop an infection, the wound should heal in 1 to 3 years."
With your history and the type and location of your injury, it's hard to say.
Diabetes mellitus damages nerves, which can slow down healing. The time for the healing of the laceration would depend on how deep the cut was.
The solution is alternative C) "Wound restoration may be very individual but the scar should fade within 4 months."
Diabetes mellitus damages nerves, that can sluggish down recuperation. The time for the healing of the laceration would depend on how deep the reduce was.
What do you mean via diabetic mellitus?Diabetes mellitus refers to a set of sicknesses that have an effect on how your body uses blood sugar (glucose). Glucose is crucial for your health because it's an critical source of electricity for the cells that make up your muscular tissues and tissues. it's also your brain's foremost source of gas.
What are the main reasons of diabetes mellitus?Although not absolutely everyone with kind 2 diabetes is obese, obesity and an inactive life-style are of the most common causes of kind 2 diabetes. this stuff are accountable for about 90% to 95% of diabetes instances within the united states.
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How can astronauts combat the effects of space travel on the muscular and circulatory systems? Eat foods with more minerals. Sleep more. Exercise more. Practice deep breathing exercises. I will make you brainiest please help me
Answer:
Exercise
Explanation: To build muscular strength in your arms and limbs you need to exercises if you are building your lunges practice deep breathing. Also I to the test for Cava-Sonoma.
Explanation:
Exercise
An infection and inflammation of the aggregated lymphatic nodules in the pharynx is called
Answer:
laryngitis
Explanation:
Rahil drinks 1.5 ounces of 80-proof liquor before dinner most evenings. Lisette drinks two glasses of wine during dinner each night. Yvette does not drink during the week but usually consumes five bottles of beer on most Friday and Saturday nights. Who is at greater risk for alcohol-related problems, and why?
In addition to increasing the risk of injury, binge drinking impairs the body’s ability to heal from those injuries.
“If a person is drunk and gets injured, the person will have more complications when alcohol is present in the body, as opposed to a person who may not have been exposed to alcohol,” said Mashkoor Choudhry, PhD, director of the Alcohol Research Program at Loyola University Chicago Stritch School of Medicine.
Binge drinking can also affect your:
1.Heart causing high blood pressure, irregular heartbeat, or sudden death from heart failure. Answer:
Yvette is at greater risk for alcohol related problems because she is binge drinking.
Explanation:
Binge drinking is defined as consuming five or more drinks within about two hours.About 90 percent of the alcohol in your blood is broken down by the liver. For an average person, the liver can only break down about one standard drink per hour. If you drink more alcohol than what your liver can process, your blood alcohol content (BAC) will increase. this will have negative effects on the body.Binge drinking can lead to death from alcohol poisoning. Or by depressing the gag reflex, which puts a person who has passed out at risk of choking on their own vomit.
Binge drinking can also affect your:
1.Heart as it can cause high blood pressure, irregular heartbeat, or sudden death from heart failure.
2.Kidneys beacuse alcohol is a diuretic, which causes the kidneys to produce more urine. This, alone or with vomiting, can lead to dehydration and dangerously low levels of sodium, potassium, and other minerals and salts.
3.Lungs beacause alcohol inhibits the gag reflex, which can lead to vomit, saliva, or other substances entering the lungs. This can cause inflammation or infection in the lungs.
4.Pancreas because it can lead to dangerously low blood sugar (hypoglycemia).
What is the relationship between an antibody and an antigen?
Where does food move right after passing through the stomach?
a. Esophagus c. Large intestine
b. Pancreas d. Small intestine
Answer:
D) small intestine
Explanation:
Increased risk of liver disease, stroke, and cancer can be caused by (3 points)
1. consuming low doses of alcohol.
2. consuming medium doses of alcohol.
3. binge drinking alcohol.
4. chronic use of alcohol.
Answer:
I THINK ITS 4
Explanation:
Answer:
Chronic use of alchhol
Explanation:
Dana, age 15, has to deal with constant comments from the boys in her science class about her breast size, skin blemishes, and large hips. Her teacher does nothing to stop these offensive remarks. As a result, Dana's grade in science is compromised. Dana is a victim of _________.
A) quid pro quo sexual harassment.B) hostile environment sexual harassment.C) third-party sexual harassment.D) rude boys,but no type of sexual harassment.
Answer:
B
Explanation: