Answer:
exercises
Explanation:
Answer:
Lifestyle Factors
Explanation:
As discussed in lecture, the blink response of individuals diagnosed as psychopaths has been measured on IAPS images rated as pleasant, neutral or unpleasant. The researchers found that, compared to normal subjects, psychopaths….
Answer:
Psychopaths have a blink response to unpleasant IAPS images that resemble their blink response to pleasant images.
Explanation:
Psychopaths, particularly those with antisocial personality disorder, show unique neurophysiological responses to emotional stimuli, rewards, and punishments, including impaired perception towards high-magnitude rewards, lower fear responses to environmental cues, and reduced activity of the autonomic nervous system as measured by skin conductance during fear or anxiety-provoking situations.
Explanation:Based on the provided research information, individuals diagnosed as psychopaths exhibited a differential response pattern compared to normal individuals when exposed to IAPS images rated as pleasant, neutral, or unpleasant. This corresponds to findings where psychopaths, particularly those with antisocial personality disorder, showed impaired perception towards high-magnitude rewards and a lack of typical fear response to environmental cues signaling punishment or pain.
Moreover, they demonstrated lower skin conductance, a measure of autonomic nervous system activity, during situations intended to elicit fear or anxiety. Interestingly, these individuals also seem to lack a moral compass, acting as though they neither comprehend nor care about right versus wrong.
Therefore, it can be concluded that psychopaths respond differently at a neurophysiological level to emotional stimuli, rewards, and punishments, and their disorder is evident not just in their actions, but also in their physiological responses and cognition.
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Shelly, a breastfeeding mom, is obtaining the equivalent of 8 cups of water per day from foods and beverages and feels that she is drinking enough water. How many more cups of fluid should Shelly really be consuming per day?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Answer:
d. 5
Explanation:
Being hydrated can help produce breast milk and also improve Shelly's health.
Final answer:
Breastfeeding mom Shelly should consume 3 more cups of fluid per day in addition to the 8 cups she is already obtaining from food and beverages, to meet the Institute of Medicine's Adequate Intake recommendation.
Explanation:
According to the Food and Nutrition Board of the Institute of Medicine (IOM), the Adequate Intake (AI) for water for adult females is 2.7 liters (11 cups), inclusive of all dietary sources of water. Breastfeeding mothers typically need to consume more water than the recommended amount for adult females due to the additional demand of milk production. Considering Shelly is already obtaining the equivalent of 8 cups of water from foods and beverages, she should increase her fluid intake to meet the AI. If we subtract the 8 cups she is already consuming from the 11 cups recommended, we find that Shelly should be consuming 3 more cups of fluid per day to reach the AI recommendation for water intake. Option b is correct .
Robin, a 30-year-old woman, has a strong sexual preference for men. Rodney has always had strong erotic inclinations for men since he attained puberty. Which of the following can be definitely said of the brain structures of Robin and Rodney?
Answer:
The brain structure of Robin and Rodney is symmetrical.
Explanation:
Robin and Rodney have symmetrical brain hemispheres. They have strong different sexual orientations since puberty, Robin for men and Rodney for men, but sexual orientation or erotic inclinations are not related to the shape or asymmetry of the brain.
The nurse has completed medication education with the patient who is receiving risperidone (Risperdal). The nurse evaluates that the education has been effective when the patient makes which statement?
Answer and Explanation:
Risperidone is a potent atypical antipsychotic drug. It is a selective monoaminergic antagonist with unique properties. It has high affinity for 5-HT2 serotoninergic and D2 dopaminergic receptors. Risperidone also binds to alpha-1 receptors adrenergic and, with lower affinity, histamine H1 and alpha2 adrenergic receptors. Risperidone does not have affinity for cholinergic receptors. Although risperidone is a potent D2 antagonist, this is considered responsible for improving the positive symptoms of schizophrenia, its depressant effect on motor and catalepsy inducer is less potent than classical neuroleptics.
It is most often used in the treatment of delusional psychoses, including schizophrenia. However, risperidone, like other atypical antipsychotics, is also used to treat some forms of bipolar disorder, depressive psychosis, obsessive compulsive disorder, and Tourette's syndrome. In the United States, it has also been approved for the treatment of irritability in children and adolescents (although is not recommended for the treatment of autism spectrum disorders and milder forms of autism due to its effects).
The mother of a 10-year-old boy with diabetes type 1 calls, very concerned about her son. He has been sick for 2 days with a fever and loss of appetite, and he now is very lethargic and is vomiting, and his breath smells fruity. What health emergency may be developing?
Answer:
Diabetic coma.
Explanation:
Diabetic coma is a very dangerous medical emergency that occurs to people diagnosed with diabetes as a consequence of either high blood sugar (hyperglycemia) or low blood sugar (hypoglycemia). It leads to unconsciousness and without adequate treatment can end in one's death.
In this scenario, the little boy is experiencing all the symptoms of hypoglycemia.
Although Maria can encode and consciously recall new information, she is unable to consciously recall events that happened prior to the brain damage that she suffered as an adolescent. Maria's memory difficulty most clearly illustrates _____.
Answer:
The correct answer is - retrograde amnesia.
Explanation:
Amnesia is a medical condition in which an individual loses the memory of a period of time that can be affected by the different causes. Amnesia can be of four types Retrograde amnesia, Anterograde amnesia, Transient global amnesia, and Infantile amnesia.
Retrograde amnesia is memoryless to the events or the knowledge or information that was learned that occurred before the injury or the due to some onset of disease. Maria is experiencing retrograde amnesia as she is not able to remember events before adolescents before the injury or damage.
Thus, the correct answer is - retrograde amnesia.
47. Although Francesca has been obese for as long as she can remember, she is determined to lose excess body weight with a low-calorie diet. When dieting, Francesca is most likely to have difficulty becoming and staying thin because :
Final answer:
Francesca is likely to have difficulty becoming and staying thin due to factors such as inactivity, genetics, metabolism, and the body's set point. Obese people can struggle to lose weight due to their bodies becoming more efficient when caloric intake is reduced.
Explanation:
When dieting, Francesca is most likely to have difficulty becoming and staying thin because of a combination of factors including inactivity, genetics, metabolism, and the body's set point (ideal weight). When a person cuts caloric intake, the body reacts as if it is starving and becomes more efficient, making it harder to lose weight. Obese people may also have difficulty in losing weight because of the adaptation of their bodies to certain weights and the fact that they often consume more calories than they burn.
Francesca is most likely to have difficulty becoming and staying thin because of adaptive thermogenesis.
Adaptive thermogenesis refers to the process by which the body's metabolism slows down in response to a reduction in calorie intake. When Francesca starts a low-calorie diet, her body may respond by decreasing its resting metabolic rate to conserve energy, making it harder to lose weight. This is a natural physiological response that can persist even after weight loss, contributing to the difficulty in maintaining a lower body weight.
Other factors that can make it challenging for individuals like Francesca to lose weight and keep it off include:
1. Hormonal changes: Dieting can lead to changes in hormones that regulate hunger and satiety, such as ghrelin and leptin, which can increase appetite and decrease feelings of fullness.
2. Reduced energy expenditure: As Francesca loses weight, her body requires fewer calories to maintain its new, lower weight, which can make it easy to regain weight if she returns to her previous eating habits.
3. Psychological factors: The psychological stress of dieting, along with the social and emotional challenges associated with changing eating habits, can lead to overeating or abandoning the diet altogether.
4. Genetic predisposition: Genetics play a role in obesity, influencing metabolism, fat storage, and the body's response to food.
5. Lifestyle and environmental factors: Physical inactivity, lack of sleep, and other environmental factors can contribute to obesity and hinder weight loss efforts.
Match The Following
1. used by the body to synthesize Vitamin D
2. fats that can increase the amount of "bad" cholesterol in the blood
3. nutrient that Vitamins A, D, E, and K are dependent upon for their absorption by cells
4. one factor that can be changed in order to lower your body fat
5. body type that is tall and thin
6. body type that is normal height and well-built
7. good source of carbohydrates and Vitamin B complex
8. the body type that is short and overweight
9. the conversion of nutrients into energy
cholesterol
endomorph
mesomorph
exercise
saturated
grain
ectomorph
fat
catabolism
Answer:
(1)used by the body to synthesize Vitamin D= Cholesterol
(2)fats that can increase the amount of "bad" cholesterol in the blood= Saturated
(3)nutrient that Vitamins A, D, E, and K are dependent upon for their absorption by cells= fat
(4) one factor that can be changed in order to lower your body fat= exercise
(5) body type that is tall and thin= ectomorph
(6) body type that is normal height and well-built= mesomorph
(7) good source of carbohydrates and Vitamin B complex= grain
(8) the body type that is short and overweight= endomorph
(9)the conversion of nutrients into energy=catabolism.
This response matches various health terms to their definitions, covering topics like nutrition, body types, and biochemical processes.
Explanation:1. The nutrient used by the body to synthesize Vitamin D is cholesterol.
2. The type of fats that can increase the amount of 'bad' cholesterol in the blood are saturated fats.
3. Vitamins A, D, E, and K are dependent upon fat for their absorption by cells.
4. One factor that can be changed in order to lower your body fat is exercise.
5. The body type that is tall and thin is known as the ectomorph body type.
6. The body type that is of normal height and well-built is known as the mesomorph body type.
7. A good source of carbohydrates and Vitamin B complex is grain.
8. The body type that is short and overweight is known as the endomorph body type.
9. The conversion of nutrients into energy is termed as catabolism.
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Which of the following roles would require the knowledge of psychological, social, economic, and cultural determinants of behavior and methods to promote healthy lifestyles?
a. public information specialists
b. health educators
c. public health administrators
d. epidemiologists
Which statement is true about illness and disability in middle adulthood? A Unintentional injuries more than double from early to middle adulthood.B Men are more vulnerable than women to most health problems in midlife.C Falls resulting in bone fractures and death occur at a lower rate than in early adulthood.D Economic disadvantage is a weak predictor of poor health and premature death in midlife.
Answer:
B. Men are more vulnerable than women to most health problems in midlife.
Explanation:
Under the biological approach, one can cite the greater predisposition to the occurrence of serious diseases during middle adulthood. From a social point of view, males tend to behave more risky, favoring aggressive behavior and dangerous driving of vehicles and still consuming alcohol and cigarettes more often than women, for example. As men engage in harmful behavior more often and women have a greater habit of having regular medical appointments, we can agree that men are more vulnerable to more health problems in midlife.
When discussing gender, the focus of attention is always on women, but health indicators have shown that men also require attention and investment, based on specific public health policies and disease prevention.
Economic disadvantage is a strong predictor of poor health and premature death in midlife. There is also an increase in disability and chronic diseases such as arthritis, hypertension, heart disease, and cancer after 65 years. However, unintentional injuries do not necessarily double from early to middle adulthood.
Explanation:The question asks which statement is true about illness and disability in middle adulthood. According to various studies and statistical data, the most accurate statement is the one that identifies economic disadvantage as a strong predictor of poor health and premature death in midlife. This is linked to a number of factors, including access to quality medical care and healthy food, and the stress associated with poverty.
Disability and chronic diseases such as arthritis, hypertension, heart disease, and cancer are seen to increase with age, especially after 65 years. However, unintentional injuries do not necessarily double from early to middle adulthood, many men exhibit strong health profiles into middle age, and falls leading to severe injuries may not necessarily occur at a lower rate in comparison to early adulthood.
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Improved coping ability ,contributing to community, being hopeful about yourself signs of positive mental well being, signs of high self esteem, sign of positive emotional well being
Answer:
being hopeful about yourself signs of positive mental wel being
Explanation:
Which exposure technique do the American Academy of Oral and Maxillofacial Radiology and the American Dental Education Association recommend?
Answer:
parallel
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that all of these associations recommend the parallel exposure technique. This is a technique for dental radiography, in which you place a film parallel to the clients teeth and then place the central ray perpendicular to the teeth. This creates a radiograph with very little geometric distortion. Which is why it is the most recommended.
The recommended exposure techniques to minimize radiation include using fast films (time), maintaining a safe distance, and utilizing lead shielding. These precautions protect both patients and dental technicians during X-ray procedures.
The American Academy of Oral and Maxillofacial Radiology and the American Dental Education Association recommend using techniques that minimize patient and technician exposure to radiation. This involves three primary methods:
Time: Utilizing fast films and digital sensors to reduce the duration of exposure.
Distance: The technician stands behind a lead-lined door with a lead glass window to minimize exposure.
Shielding: The use of lead aprons on patients and shielding around the X-ray tube to protect against unnecessary exposure.
Figure 32.10 illustrates how these techniques are applied: a lead apron on the patient, shielding around the X-ray tube, and the technician enhancing safety measures by distancing herself from the source.
Where could you go for help specific to alcoholism in the ankeny/des moines area?
Answer:
The are several facilities that can help a person with alcohol addiction such as Family support Powell Chemical Dependency Center, Des Moines , IA Drug & Alcohol Rehab/ Detox & Treatment Centers among others.
Explanation:
The are several facilities that can help a person with alcohol addiction such as Family support Powell Chemical Dependency Center, Des Moines , IA Drug & Alcohol Rehab/ Detox & Treatment Centers among others. These reabilitations centers will provide all the care the addicted person needs, and his family too. They can count on specific programs, psychologists and counseling to help them to deal with this sad disease. Alcohol abuse must be taken serious, it is letal, there is no cure, it destroys families and lives.
After a motor vehicle crash, a client who sustained multiple injuries is oriented to person and place but is confused as to time. The client complains of a headache and drowsiness, but assessment reveals that the pupils are equal and reactive. Which nursing action takes priority?
Answer:
The given question is not complete as it lack the proper option Which are as follow-
a. Moving the client as little as possible
b. Preparing the client for mannitol administration
c. Stimulating the client to maintain responsiveness
d. Monitoring the client for increasing intracranial pressure - is correct answer.
Explanation:
According the symptoms that is shown by the client mentioned in the question which are, - losing sense of time, nausea, drowsiness and headache. These symptoms are suggested that an individual client is having increased intracranial pressure.
The intracranial pressure is the pressure that is present inside the brain. As it is the pressure that is present in cerebrospinal fluid and brain tissue.
Thus, the correct answer is - option d.
At 38 weeks' gestation a client is admitted to the birthing unit in active labor, and an external fetal monitor is applied. Late fetal heart rate decelerations begin to appear when her cervix is dilated 6 cm and her contractions are occurring every 4 minutes and lasting 45 seconds. What does the nurse conclude is the cause of these late decelerations?a. 1Imminent vaginal birthb. 2Uteroplacental insufficiencyc. 3Pattern of nonprogressive labord. 4Reassuring response to contractions
Answer:
Uteroplacental insufficiency
Explanation:
Ulteroplacental deficiency also known as a placental deficiency is damaging or misfunction of the placenta that causes an insufficient delivery of blood, with nutrients and oxygen, from the mother to the fetus. Ulteroplacental deficiency can be fatal for the fetus.
Vanessa is a new mom who is experiencing many of the pressures of having a new baby. She has always been thin and was alarmed by the weight she gained during pregnancy. In order to take the weight off, she went on a crash diet and now weighs less than she did before pregnancy. She was inspired by this weight loss and has continued to restrict her calories. She is now at 80% of her expected body weight and has expressed to her husband that she is still too fat. She avoids eating with other people and tries to eat less than 500 kilocalories per day. What eating disorder does Vanessa have?
Answer:
Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:
Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder that affects people from all social situations, age or gender.
In this case we can easily identify Vanessa is facing it because she does not have the ideal weight according to her height, the self image of her body is distorted and she considers she is still fat and she is restricting the amount of kilocalories she needs to one that is not healthy.
A client had been withdrawn in the client's room for 3 days, not eating or sleeping, prior to his admission to the inpatient unit. Upon interview, the client demonstrates difficulty answering questions, appears to have no facial expressions, and cannot follow simple instructions. This cluster of symptoms can be described as what?
Answer:
negative symptoms.
Explanation:
Bell's palsy is ________. Bell's palsy is ________. characterized by paralysis of facial muscles often caused by inflammation of the trigeminal nerve characterized by partial paralysis of diaphragm muscles characterized by loss of vision.
Bell's palsy is a sudden facial paralysis usually affecting one side due to inflammation of the facial nerve. It most commonly impairs blinking and smiling, but does not induce partial paralysis of diaphragm muscles or loss of vision.
Explanation:Bell's palsy is a condition characterized by the sudden onset of facial paralysis or weakening on one side of the face. This results from the inflammation of the facial nerve, also known as the trigeminal nerve, often due to viral infections. This paralysis usually affects one's ability to blink and smile. Bell's palsy is not characterized by partial paralysis of diaphragm muscles or loss of vision.
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Bell's palsy is characterized by sudden, temporary weakness or facial muscle paralysis often caused by trigeminal nerve inflammation. It should not be confused with Guillain-Barré syndrome, an autoimmune disease causing flaccid paralysis, or botulism, both of which affect the peripheral nervous system.
Explanation:Bell's palsy is characterized by the paralysis of facial muscles, often caused by trigeminal nerve inflammation. Bell's palsy is when a person experiences a sudden, temporary weakness or paralysis of the muscles on one side of the face. This condition occurs when the facial nerve, which controls facial muscles, becomes inflamed. The symptoms are similar to those of a stroke and typically appear suddenly and reach their peak within 48 hours. They may include sudden weakness or paralysis on one side of the face, drooping of the mouth or the eyelids on one side, and increased sensitivity to sound in one ear.
It's important to differentiate Bell's palsy from Guillain-Barré syndrome, an autoimmune disease characterized by the destruction of myelin sheaths around neurons, causing flaccid paralysis. Guillain-Barré syndrome affects the peripheral nervous system and often leads to sensory symptoms or motor deficits. Another related condition is botulism, which also causes progressive flaccid paralysis.
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Select all that apply.
Regular exercise will enable you to perform daily tasks with an increased amount of:
energy
enthusiasm
knowledge
time
Answer: energy and enthusiasm
A nurse in the antepartum clinic is assessing a client's adaptation to pregnancy. The client states that she is, "happy one minute and crying the next." The nurse should interpret the client's statement as an indication of which of the following?a. The nurse should recognize and interpret the client's statement as an indication of emotional lability.b. Many women experience rapid and unpredictable changes in mood during pregnancy.c. Intense hormonal changes may be responsible for mood changes that occur during pregnancy.d. Tears and anger alternate with feelings of joy or cheerfulness for little or no reason.
In pregnancy, emotional lability is common and reflects the intense hormonal changes occurring in the body. These mood swings, which can alternate from tears and anger to joy and cheerfulness, are often unpredictable.
Explanation:The nurse should interpret the client's statement as an indication of emotional lability, which is a common phenomenon in pregnancy. This is characterized by rapid, often unpredictable mood swings. These sudden shifts in mood, from happiness to tears, can be attributed to the intense hormonal changes that occur during pregnancy. Thus, such emotional experiences, where tears and anger alternate with feelings of joy or cheerfulness for little or no reason, are quite normal and to be expected.
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The nurse should interpret the client's rapid changes in emotions as an indication of emotional lability, a typical manifestation during pregnancy due to profound hormonal shifts.
Explanation:Based on the client's statement that she experiences rapid changes in emotions, the nurse should interpret this as an indication of emotional lability. Emotional lability is common during pregnancy due to the intense hormonal changes that occur. These hormonal changes can trigger unpredictable mood swings, causing a woman to alternate rapidly amongst different emotions such as tears, anger, happiness, or cheerfulness, often for little to no apparent reason. Therefore, the client's changing emotional states are a typical adaptive process to pregnancy.
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The term "cancer" describes a suite of diseases that differ by type, location, cause, treatment, and prognosis. Despite these differences, there are several diet and lifestyle choices that have the potential to influence the development of cancer cells in various parts of the body, either positively or negatively. True or False?
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Having a healthy and balanced lifestyle in addition to a diet where there are no toxins that can impact negatively on our body are crucial elements to prevent cancer. There are other factors such as genetics, pollution or the environment where we live that also influence the development of cancer.
The Davises were excited about their newborn twin boys and couldn’t wait to take them to see Mr. Davis’s father. Grandfather Davis was excited to see his first grandsons as well and thought their visit might help take his mind off the pain of his shingles, which had suddenly appeared only days before. Which virus is responsible for Grandfather Davis’s shingles?
Answer:
Varicella-zoster virus
Explanation:
This type of virus is the one that is responsible for getting chickenpox, which are also called varicella and shingles. There is a big possibility that grandpa Davis had chicken pox when he was a little boy, maybe a teen, but the virus never left the body. On the contrary, it's hidden in the nerve tissue. The virus remains passive through one's life, but sometimes, it wakes up and reaches the nerve fibers and as a result an individual gets shingles.
Low alveolar po2 can be caused by one of two mechanisms. One of them is that the inspired air has low oxygen content. What is the other reason?
Answer:
Hypoventilation
Explanation:
The prefix hypo means below, or less than normal. Hypoventilation is the other reason that can cause low alveolar po2. When this situation happens it means that the amount of ventilation is not the adequate to perform the correct gas exchange.This condition is considered a medical emergency and it is necessary to act immediately.You are assessing 30-year-old man who has fallen about 20 feet. He is alert and oriented but states that he cannot move or feel his legs. Additionally, because his blood pressure is 82/48 mmHg, you suspect neurogenic shock. Which of the following additional assessment findings reinforces your suspicion of neurogenic shock?
A. Warm and dry skin
B. Heart rate of 144
C. Heart rate of 44
D. Shallow rapid respirations
Answer:
A.
D.
Explanation:
Neurogenic shock is a type of shock that's manifested through low blood pressure, slower heart rate than usual. It is a result from damaging the central nervous system, like brain injury and spinal cord injury.
Some of the symptoms: Enormous pain in the chest, low heart rate (bradycardia, the opposite from tachycardia), very warm and dry skin, discolored lips and fingertips, shallow but fast breathing, feeling of weakness, etc.
Approximately _____ percent of all women and _____ percent of all men will have at least one depressive episode in their lifetimes.
Answer:
25% women and 10% men
Explanation:
Lewis’s tone is complex. He moves between straightforward analysis and raw emotion, yet he is rarely ambivalent about his topic or position. How would you describe his tone? Characterize the tone as a phrase rather than a single word
Answer:
Lewis’ complex tone in which he is about his topic or position, moving between straightforward analysis and raw emotion, is called the objective or formal tone.
Explanation:
This tone is characterized by the means that the text will be referred to us in an impersonal style of writing, in a precise language which will give us rarely ambivalent information, but won´t include information about how the writer feels and won´t share writer´s opinion.
It requires a writer to do a vast amount of research to help support his ideas, to write in an official-sounding manner stating opposite viewpoints using facts and data only. It also requires adherence to some rules of language like refraining from using personal pronouns as it might indicate personal feeling and emotive words that might indicate an opinion on the part of the writer, avoid contractions and use passive voice.
The word choice in this tone needs to be considered carefully using words that are precise, objective, appropriate and impersonal, avoiding judgemental words and slangs, as it is used when a writer wants to deliver information in a neutral, factual and unbiased way so void asking questions too.
A client diagnosed with Polycythemia vera has come into the clinic because they have developed a night-time cough, fatigue, and shortness of breath. What complication would you suspect in this client?
A. Stroke
B. Tissue infarction
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Pulmonary embolus
Answer:
C) Congestive heart failure
Explanation:
Polycythema is a stem cell disorder in bone marrow or slow growing blood cancer in which marrow produces too much Red blood Cell. This blood thickening leads to Heart Failure or congestive heart failure, it's sign and symptoms are cough, fatigue and shortness of breath.
To begin the administration of total parenteral nutrition (TPN), a client has a right subclavian central venous access device inserted. Immediately after insertion of the catheter, what is the priority nursing action?
1. Obtain a chest x-ray to determine placement.
2. Auscultate the lungs to evaluate breath sounds.
3. Draw a blood sample to assess blood glucose level.
4. Assess the right upper extremity for neurologic deficits."
The priority nursing action after inserting a right subclavian central venous access device is to obtain a chest x-ray to determine placement.
Explanation:The priority nursing action immediately after insertion of a right subclavian central venous access device is to obtain a chest x-ray to determine placement. This is important because it ensures that the catheter is properly positioned in the subclavian vein and not causing any complications. Auscultating the lungs, drawing a blood sample to assess blood glucose level, and assessing the right upper extremity for neurologic deficits are important nursing actions but not the immediate priority after the insertion of the catheter.
All of June's grandchildren have good appetites and enjoy eating a balanced diet. She needs to make sure they all get enough calories to grow properly. Based on her grandchildren's ages (2, 7, and 13) and genders, what are their most likely average daily calorie needs when sedentary (studying, reading, and playing on the computer), respectively?
The average sedentary daily calorie needs are approximately 1000 calories for a 2-year-old, 1200-1600 for a 7-year-old, and 1600-2000 for a 13-year-old girl and 2000-2600 for a 13-year-old boy.
Explanation:When determining the daily caloric needs for children of different ages and genders, it is important to understand that these numbers are averages and that individual needs can vary. For a sedentary lifestyle, which includes activities such as studying, reading, and playing on the computer, the estimated average daily calorie needs by age and gender are:
For a 2-year-old child: Around 1000 calories per day.A 7-year-old child: Approximately 1200 to 1600 calories per day for girls and boys, respectively.For a 13-year-old: Around 1600 to 2000 calories per day for girls and 2000 to 2600 calories for boys.Keep in mind these are guidelines and individual requirements can differ based on factors like metabolism, growth rate, and activity level, even when predominantly sedentary. Factors such as a teenager who is an athlete will require significantly more calories than their sedentary counterpart.
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A 4-year-old child has been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumococcal pneumonia. The parents are extremely distraught over the child's condition and the fact that the child has not wanted to eat anything for the past 2 days. Which nursing approach would be most important to take to help alleviate the high anxiety level of the parents?
Allow the parents to remain with the child as much as possible.
Nurses can manage parents' anxiety about their child's pneumococcal pneumonia by employing therapeutic communication. This includes providing accurate information about the child's condition, facilitating communication with medical team, and providing resources for additional support.
Explanation:The most crucial nursing approach to address the parents' anxiety related to their child's pneumococcal pneumonia and lack of appetite would be therapeutic communication. This refers to an interaction that provides emotional assistance by clarifying and explaining information. Nurses should reassure the parents and provide accurate information about the disease process, possible complications, and management. Acknowledging their concerns and fears is also vital. Additionally, they must explain that loss of appetite is a common symptom in pediatric pneumonia and it will improve as the child begins to recover.
The healthcare professionals can also facilitate communication with the pediatrician or the medical team looking after the child. This can allow the parents to get a clearer understanding of their child's situation and the prognosis. Lastly, providing resources for additional support such as social workers or psychologist counselors may also be beneficial for the parents.
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