Many species can reproduce either asexually or sexually. What might be the evolutionary significance of the switch from asexual to sexual reproduction that occurs in some organisms when the environment becomes unfavorable?

Answer:

C) 6

Explanation:

The balanced equation for aerobic cellular respiration is:

C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6 O₂ ----> 6 CO₂ + 6 H₂O + Energy (ATP)

For each glucose molecule that's oxidized, 6 oxygen molecules are used in order to produce ATP. Carbon dioxide and water are byproducts of aerobic respiration..

Each complete oxidation of a glucose molecule through aerobic respiration requires 6 molecules of oxygen (O2). The process, represented by the equation C6H12O6 + 6O2 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + ATP, shows this clearly.

In the process of aerobic respiration, glucose (C6H12O6) is oxidized, while oxygen is reduced. The overall equation for this process can be represented as C6H12O6 + 6O2 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + ATP. From this equation, we can see that each molecule of glucose requires 6 molecules of oxygen (O2) to be completely oxidized. Therefore, the correct answer to the question 'Each time a molecule of glucose is completely oxidized via aerobic respiration, how many oxygen (O2) molecules are required?' is C) 6.

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Answer:

b. Immnofluorescence

Explanation:

Immunofluorescence involves the reaction of a fluorescently labelled antibody to an expressed gene or protein making it specific. A microscope is used to locate the expressed gene via the fluorescent dye activated by light of a certain wavelength. It is usually done to analyze intact cells or tissue therefore it is easier to localize the gene expression.

Final answer:

Proximate causes are immediate, mechanical explanations of behaviors, while ultimate causes relate to their evolutionary significance. For instance, a bird's hormone-triggered singing is a proximate cause, whereas the evolutionary advantage of attracting mates by singing is an ultimate cause.

Explanation:

In biology, the difference between proximate causes and ultimate causes relates to the levels of explanation for a particular behavior or trait. Proximate causes refer to the immediate, mechanical explanations of a phenomenon. They are akin to the 'how' questions about biological processes. For example, the singing of a bird can be a proximate cause if we are considering the hormonal changes that trigger the bird's vocalization during the mating season. On the other hand, ultimate causes address the 'why' questions related to the evolutionary significance of a behavior or trait. They are the long-term evolutionary pressures that lead to the development of particular adaptations. An example of an ultimate cause would be the same bird's singing behavior, which has evolved because it provides an advantage in attracting mates and hence increases reproductive success.

Cause-and-effect relationships are core to understanding these concepts. The immediate cause (the spark) and the broader context (broader context) play different roles in explaining why certain events occur. Consider the spark as the proximate cause and the broader context as the ultimate cause.

Answer:

False.

Explanation:

DNA is present as genetic material in all the organism except some viruses. RNA is present as genetic material in some viruses only. The DNA strands are complimentary with each other.

DNA is made of the polymers of nucleotides. The nucleotides consists of the nitrogenous bases (adenine, guanine, thymine and cytosine), deoxyribose pentose sugar and phosphate group. The DNA molecule doesnot contain sugar..lipid in its structure.

Thus, the answer is false.

Answer: Deoxyribose

Explanation:

The Deoxyribonucleic acid is the  genetic material found in all the living organism.

The genetic information is transferred in the form of codes from one generation to another in the from of DNA.

The DNA consists of sugar, nitrogenous bases and phosphate group. The sugar part is ribose sugar which is a type of pentose sugar.

Hence, the correct answer is option C

Answer:

Explanation:

The two categories of the behavior includes the operant behavior and respondent behavior.

Operant behavior: The operant behavior can be define as the behavior that is under the control of the consequences. These consequences are likely to control the future frequency of behavior. For example, A child who is allowed to hit other children and take their toy, is likely to be aggressive to other people in the future.  

Respondent Behavior: The behavior which is under the influence of a specific stimuli is a respondent behavior. For example, Snapping of hand away from a hot pan, and Salivation of the mouth due to food.

Answer:

C

Explanation:

The DNA in all the cells of an organism are the same. The reason there are different types of cells in the organism even through their DNA is the same is because genes are deferentially expressed in the cell types. The genes that are expressed in the brain cells are different from those expressed in the liver.  The rest of the genes that are not being expressed are silenced through folding by histones – so they are not exposed to DNA polymerase.

Final answer:

The correct statement is c. It is the same as the DNA in one of your liver cells, since all cells contain the same DNA but only express a subset of genes necessary for their specific function.

Explanation:

The statement about the DNA in one of your brain cells that is true is: c. It is the same as the DNA in one of your liver cells. All the cells in your body pretty much have the same DNA, but not all of it is used or 'expressed' in every cell. Instead, each type of cell expresses only a subset of genes, which are necessary for the specific functions that cell performs. Gene expression is the process by which information from a gene is used to construct a functional product, commonly a protein.

The majority of DNA does not code for proteins, and the genes required for a cell's function are selectively transcribed into mRNA and then translated into proteins as needed. Therefore, options a, b, and d are incorrect. Each gene does not lie immediately adjacent to an enhancer, and not all genes are transcribed in a given cell at any specific time.

Answer: True

Explanation:

Dysmenorrhea can be define as a condition in which pain occurs during menstrual cramps, that is due to uterine contractions.

Primary dysmenorrhea can be define as commonly occurring menstrual cramps. The secondary dysmenorrhea results from a disorder and pain in the reproductive organs.

Answer:

Chromosome:

Chromosome may be defined as the thread like structure present in the nucleus. They are made of protein and DNA. Two types of chromosome are heterochromatin and euchromatin.

Gene:

Gene may be defined as the functional unit of DNA. The gene codes for the particular protein. They are inherited from one generation to the next generation.  

A Base pair:

Base pairs may be defined as the different nitrogenous bases present in the nucleic acid. Adenine, guanine, thymine and cytosine are present in DNA whereas uracil instead of thymine is present in RNA.

Protein:

Protein may be defined as the polymer of amino acids that are linked together through peptide bond. Proteins are the main building block of the body and one of the most important biomolecule.

The correct answer is B. Ribosome

Explanation:

In biology, cells are mainly classified as eukaryotic or prokaryotic. Each of these types of cells has different features, to begin with, eukaryotic cells are those that contain a defined nucleus and are part of both unicellular and multicellular organisms. On the opposite, prokaryotic cells do not have a defined nucleus or a nuclear envelope and are mainly present in unicellular organisms, besides this, they lack mitochondrion, Golgi apparatus or chloroplasts that are present in eukaryotic cells. However, prokaryotic cells still contain DNA, ribosomes, vesicles, and vacuoles. According to this, the one that is present in a prokaryotic cell is ribosome.

The only option from the list present in a prokaryotic cell is a ribosome. Prokaryotic cells do not contain mitochondria, nuclear envelopes or chloroplasts which are associated only with eukaryotic cells.

The correct answer to the question 'Which of the following is present in a prokaryotic cell?' is (b) ribosome. Prokaryotic cells, such as bacteria, do not contain mitochondria, nuclear envelopes, or chloroplasts as these are structures associated only with eukaryotic cells. However, they do contain ribosomes which play a crucial role in protein synthesis.

It's important to note that eukaryotic cells also contain ribosomes, the primary difference being that the ribosomes in eukaryotic cells are larger and more complex than those found in prokaryotic cells.

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Answer:

(B) The organism lives and replicates despite protease and DNase treatment, but the organism dies when treated with RNase.

Explanation:

DNA is the genetic material in present day organisms while some of the proteins serve as enzymes and catalyze the metabolic reactions.

An organism having RNA with the ability to serve as genetic material would not require DNA to survive. Likewise, if RNA molecules in these organisms also serve as the enzyme, proteins would not be required for survival.

Therefore, when treated with DNase and protease that digest the DNA and proteins respectively, these organisms would be able to survive. However, treatment with RNase enzymes that digest the RNA would kill them as RNA was their biocatalyst and genetic material.

Answer:

B

Explanation:

For metals, the further away the valence electrons are from the nucleus, the higher the reactivity of the elements. Unlike halogens that are more reactive if the valence orbital shells are closer to the nucleus. This is due to ionization energies – which is the minimum energy required to discharge an electron from its orbit.

For metals this should be lower because they need to lose electrons to attain a stable electron configuration. For halogens it should be high because they don't need to lose electrons, but rather gain, in order to attain stable electron configuration.

Electrons in their orbital shells need to occur in pairs (with opposite quantum states) to be in stable configuration and as long as an atom has orbitals with single electrons, the atoms will be reactive as opposed to when its orbitals are ‘full’.

The correct answer is b. the existence of unpaired electrons in the valence shell.

The reactivity of an atom, or its tendency to form chemical bonds with other atoms, primarily arises from the configuration of electrons in its outermost shell, known as the valence shell.

When an atom has unpaired electrons in its valence shell, it is more likely to interact with other atoms through sharing or transferring electrons, leading to the formation of chemical bonds.

This is because unpaired electrons are more energetically favorable when they are either shared with or transferred to other atoms, allowing the atom to achieve a more stable electron configuration. Therefore, the presence of unpaired electrons in the valence shell determines the reactivity of an atom.

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Answer:

a. True

Explanation:

Answer:

d. carbohydrate

Explanation:

All the others in the list are sugars or polymers of sugars (carbohydrates).

In the list are all sugars or sugar-based polymers (carbohydrates). Thus, D option is correct.

Sugar molecules make up carbohydrates, or carbs. Carbohydrates are one of the three primary nutrients included in foods and beverages, along with proteins and fats.

Glucose is created by your body's breakdown of carbs. The primary source of energy for the cells, tissues, and organs in your body is glucose, sometimes known as blood sugar.

The following are three examples of simple carbohydrates: monosaccharides. Disaccharides. Polysaccharides.

One of the main sources of dietary energy for people is starch, a type of carbohydrate that is frequently found in nature.

In the form of wheat, rice, potatoes, Starch is one of the three major types of carbohydrates, along with fiber and sugar.

Therefore, all sugars or sugar-based polymers (carbohydrates).

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Answer:

C) Epstein-Barr

Explanation:

Usually virus can kill cells directly when virus copies emerge as buds that burst through the cell membrane, killing the cell in the process.

Another way is killing the host cell directly just by exhausting its resources.

And another way is when the host cell machinery becomes grossly distorted triggering a process known as programmed cell death or apoptosis.

The Epstein-Barr virus can block apoptosis, therefore making the cells more likely to become cancerous.

Answer:

Inosine

Explanation:

Answer:

False

Explanation:

Green plants are autotrophs which make food through photosynthesis. Most of the energy is used by the organism itself for the metabolic function, lost as heat and approximately 10% of the energy is stored in the plants is used up by the herbivores (primary consumers) and 10% of energy of the herbivores is available as a food for the carnivores (tertiary consumer ). Therefore, the top consumers get the least energy. In an ecological pyramid, the pyramid of energy is always upright because the energy and biomass are always reducing from producer to tertiary consumer.

Answer:

The fish odor syndrome is a recessive disorder, and thus, requires two alleles in order to manifest the condition. In the given case, both the parents do not exhibit the syndrome, however, their daughter does. It signifies that both the parents are carriers, and thus, are heterozygous.  

In such situations, the heterozygous parents exhibit a 25 percent chance of having a child with the condition, while 75 percent chance of having a non-affected child. Thus, they have zero percent chance of exhibiting a child with fish odor syndrome.  

Answer:

Myelin sheaths refer to the covering of fatty tissue, which safeguards the nerve cells. These cells are the components of CNS that conduct messages back and forth between the brain and the remaining parts of the body.  

The majority of the nerve fibers are enveloped by an insulating, fatty sheath known as myelin that functions to accelerate the impulses. The myelin sheath comprises periodic breaks known as nodes of Ranvier. Hopping from nodes to nodes, the impulse can pass much more briskly than if it had to move along the whole length of the nerve fiber.  

Answer:

1. Ser and Gln are polar amino acids.

2. The Leu side chain does not form hydrogen bonds with other amino acids.

3. Phe can undergo oxidation to form Tyr.

4. Lysine has one stereocenter (chiral center).

Explanation:

Serine and glutamine are the polar amino acids with uncharged side group. Serine has a "CH2OH" group as its side chain and the presence of hydroxyl group makes it a polar amino acid. Glutamine is one of the amides derived from other amino acids present in proteins.  

Leucine is a nonpolar amino acid with an aliphatic side chain and tends to cluster within the proteins to stay away from the surrounding watery medium. Its aliphatic R group does not form any hydrogen bonds to other amino acids.  

Phenylalanine is a nonpolar amino acid with an aromatic R group. Oxidation of aromatic R group of phenylalanine converts it into tyrosine which has an additional hydroxyl group in its side chain.

The chiral center is the carbon to which four different functional groups are bonded. The central alpha carbon atom of lysine is bonded to an amino group, carboxyl group, a hydrogen atom, and one positively charged R group which in turn makes it a chiral center.  

Four true statements about amino acids are: Ser and Gln are polar amino acids, Methionine is a thiol, Lysine has one stereocenter, and The Leu side chain does not form hydrogen bonds with other amino acids.

Four true statements about amino acids are:

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Answer:

Explanation:

i) Allosteric control

-Allosteric modulation is a mechanism whereby the activity of  an enzyme is either stimulated or inhibited by a compound  that binds to a site, called the allosteric site, that is dimensionaly different from the enzyme’s active site

ii) Covalent modification

-Covalent modification of enzymes, as illustrated by the addition (or removal) of phosphates, is a general mechanism for changing the activity  of enzymes.

-Enzymes that transfer phosphate groups to other  proteins are called protein kinases and regulate such diverse  activities as hormone action, cell division, and gene expression.

Cellular enzyme activity is regulated through allosteric control and covalent modification. Allosteric control involves effector molecules binding to a site other than the enzyme's active site to modulate its activity, while covalent modification changes an enzyme's activity through the reversible addition or removal of chemical groups.

Cells regulate enzymes through various mechanisms, significant among which are allosteric control and covalent modification. Understanding these methods is crucial for comprehending how cells control biochemical pathways and respond to changes in the environment.

Allosteric control involves the regulation of an enzyme's activity through the binding of an effector molecule at a site other than the enzyme's active site, known as the allosteric site. This interaction can either enhance (activator) or reduce (inhibitor) the enzyme's activity. Allosteric enzymes exhibit a change in their conformation upon effector binding, which alters the enzyme's affinity for its substrate. Feedback inhibition, a form of negative regulation where the end product of a biochemical pathway inhibits an enzyme involved earlier in the pathway, often works through allosteric control.

Covalent modification involves the reversible addition or removal of chemical groups (such as phosphate, methyl, or acetyl groups) to an enzyme, altering its activity. This modification can either activate or deactivate the enzyme and is often mediated by other enzymes. For example, the addition of a phosphate group (phosphorylation) by a kinase can activate an enzyme, while removal of this group by a phosphatase can inactivate it. Covalent modification allows for rapid changes in enzyme activity in response to cellular signals.

Answer:

Codons that code for particular amino acids are nearly universal across all life. This means that the same codon (3 nucleotide sequence) that codes for aspartic acid or glutamate are the same in a bacteria as in a human being. This has been used to suggest that all life on earth evolved from one ancestral organism. The only exception in some organisms is very slightly such as of a difference of one or two amino acids coded by a particular codon.  An example is yeast. In the universal genetic code CUG codes for leucine, however in budding yeast, it codes for serine amino acid.

Answer: Dominant allele codes for a functional protein. Recessive allele codes for a less functional or nonfunctional protein, or it does not code for any protein.

Explanation:

Alleles are different forms of a gene. There are two types, dominant and recessive allele. Heterozygous organisms have one of each, and the dominant allele is expressed. Homozygous organisms have either two dominant alleles or two recessive alleles.

A dominant allele produces a functional protein, even in the presence of a recessive allele, because only one copy of the allele is enough and it masks the effects of the recessive allele. This dominant trait is shown in individuals who are homozygous dominant or heterozygous,

A recessive allele produces a less functional or nonfunctional protein, or it does not code for any protein at all. A recessive allele does not become a trait unless both copies of the gene are present.

Answer:

   protein concentration  [tex]= 2.5\times 10^{-5} mg/ml[/tex]

Explanation:

from the given information

total amount of protein is 0.025 mg

amount of dilute solution is [tex]25\mu L[/tex]

Therefore original concentration is given as

original concentration [tex]=\frac{0.025 mg}{25 \mu L} = 0.001 mg/\mu L[/tex]

                                      [tex]= 0.001 mg/\mu L \times 25[/tex]

HERE 25 is dilution factor

                                      [tex]= 0.025 mg/\mu L[/tex]

convert [tex]mg/\mu L\  to\ mg/ml = 0.025 mg/\mu\ L \times \frac{1}{10^3 \mu\  L}[/tex]

                                              [tex]= 2.5\times 10^{-5} mg/ml[/tex]

To calculate the original protein concentration, take the detected amount of protein in the diluted sample, find its concentration, and then account for the dilution factor by multiplying it. This gives a final value of the original protein concentration as 0.3125 mg/mL.

The protein concentration of the original sample can be calculated by considering the dilution factor and the amount of protein detected by the Bradford reaction assay. Given the absorbance of 0.75 corresponds to 0.025 mg of protein, we can calculate the concentration in the diluted sample and then account for dilution to find the concentration in the original sample.

First, we find out the concentration in the diluted sample which is 0.025 mg in 2 mL, resulting in a concentration of 0.0125 mg/mL. Next, we account for the dilution factor which is 1:25. To compensate for this dilution, we multiply this concentration by the dilution factor:

0.0125 mg/mL x 25 = 0.3125 mg/mL

This gives us the protein concentration in the original protein solution.

Bioinformatics involves using computer programs to align DNA sequences, developing computer-based tools for genome analysis, and using math tools to interpret biological systems. It does not directly involve using DNA technology to combine DNA from different sources.

The question at hand is asking which of the given options is not included in the field of bioinformatics. Bioinformatics is a multidisciplinary field involving biology, computer science, and statistics. It utilizes computer programming for aligning DNA sequences, developing computer-based tools for genome analysis, and mathematical tools to interpret biological systems. So, options a, c, and d are within its scope. However, option b describes a process known as recombinant DNA technology, not directly related to bioinformatics. Thus, the answer must be option b: Using DNA technology to combine DNA from two different sources in a test tube.

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Option b, which refers to the use of DNA technology to combine DNA from different sources, is not a part of bioinformatics. This task is more closely associated with the field of molecular biology.

Bioinformatics is a rapidly developing branch of biology that is mainly involved in the development and application of computational tools to analyze, integrate, and interpret large sets of biological data. Among the four options presented, the only task that doesn't fall under bioinformatics is b. using DNA technology to combine DNA from two different sources in a test tube. This is more closely related to the field of molecular biology, specifically recombinant DNA technology or genetic engineering. The tasks described in a, c, and d are all common in bioinformatics. They involve the use of computer programs, development of computational tools for genome analysis, and the application of mathematical tools to interpret complex biological systems.

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Answer:

Acts on cells in close proximity to the secreting cell.

Explanation:

In paracrine signaling, the molecules secreted by a cell show their impact on the cells which are nearby or in very close proximity.

For example:

Nerve impulse transmission from presynaptic neuron to postsynaptic neuron. When ever a stimulus is detected by our body, transmission of nerve impulse occurs so that our body could respond  to that stimulus accordingly. During transmission, the presynaptic neuron releases signaling molecules known as neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft which is present in between presynaptic neuron and postsynaptic neurons. From synaptic cleft, these neurotransmitters reach the receptors present on the neighboring postsynaptic neurons which finally transmit the message to the muscles to generate a response to the stimuli.

Answer:

E) ATP and NADPH

Explanation:

Glucose is the main product of the photosynthesis, which is synthesised in two stages. First is the light-dependent stage which is called light reactions and the second stage is the light-independent stage, called dark reactions or Calvin cycle.

The light reactions occur in the thylakoid of chloroplast in presence of light. The chlorophyll molecules absorb sunlight and convert light energy into ATP and NADPH (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate).

NADH and ATP are used in the Calvin cycle for the reduction of carbon dioxide into glucose.

The products of the light reactions of photosynthesis that are utilized in the Calvin cycle are ATP (adenosine triphosphate) and NADPH (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate). These energy-rich compounds are used in the Calvin cycle to convert carbon dioxide into a sugar molecule.

In the process of photosynthesis, which occurs in plants, there are two main stages - the light reactions and the Calvin cycle. The light reactions take place in the thylakoid membrane and involve the production of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) and NADPH (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate) using the energy from sunlight. Hence, the correct answer to your question is: E) ATP and NADPH.

These products (ATP and NADPH) are then used in the Calvin cycle, which takes place in the stroma of the chloroplasts. The cycle uses these energy-rich compounds to fix carbon dioxide (CO2) into a sugar molecule (G3P - glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate), which can be converted into glucose or other sugars.

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Answer:

c. Conservative replication

Explanation:

Hence, the answer is conservative replication.

Answer: The correct answer is option b.

Explanation:

RNA viruses have RNA as genetic material whereas the host cells usually have DNA as genetic material.

So, in order to integrate its genome with host DNA, the virus must form DNA from RNA, that is, reverse transcription.

It is the process by which DNA is formed using RNA as a template strand.

However, reverse transcriptase (enzyme which catalyzes reverse transcription) is usually not present in host cells.

Thus, RNA viruses carry their own set of enzymes which help in the replication of viral genome and its recombination with host DNA as host cells lack these enzymes.

RNA viruses require their own supply of certain enzymes because

RNA viruses require their own supply of certain enzymes because host cells do not possess the specific enzymes necessary for replicating the viral genome. Unlike DNA viruses, RNA viruses typically rely on viral enzymes, such as RNA-dependent RNA polymerase, to replicate their RNA genome within the host cell.

These viral enzymes are not present in the host cell and must be brought in by the virus itself. Without these enzymes, the host cell's replication machinery would not be able to synthesize new copies of the viral RNA genome, hindering viral replication and propagation.

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Answer:

The correct answer will be option-B.

Explanation:

Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cells or leukocytes which can be easily distinguished as they have a single round nucleus.

Lymphocytes act as immune cells in the body as they help in providing immunity. These lymphocytes upon maturation get differentiated into two types: B cell and T cell.

The B cell produces specific antibodies in response to the foreign bodies called antigen. They attach with the antigen and mark the antigen for destruction. This takes place in the blood thus provides the humoral immunity.

T cell recognize and respond to the antigen directly by killing the cell with antigen or indirectly by producing lymphokines to kill the cell. This provides immunity tat with the cellular level.

Thus, Option-B is the correct answer.

Lymphocytes are the primary leukocytes responsible for specific immune responses such as cellular and humoral immunity.

The leukocytes (white blood cells) primarily responsible for specific immune responses such as cellular and humoral immunity are lymphocytes. Lymphocytes are a type of leukocyte that play a crucial role in the adaptive immune response. They are responsible for recognizing and targeting specific antigens or pathogens. There are two main types of lymphocytes: B cells and T cells.

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