Answer:
anecdotes
Explanation:
When evidence of a particular incidence is collected from some personal incidence narrated/provided by a person, usually casually or informally with no other evidence except personal testimony, such testimony is known as an anecdote. In the given example, Maria is learning about the effects of coconut oil only based on an online article which describes the personal experience of a movie star of using the oil to lower the bad cholesterol. The article provides no further evidence regarding the fact the oil is good except that of the experience of the movie star and hence, the given testimony is an anecdote.Testimonials like the one Maria read about the movie star who claimed that coconut oil helped lower his bad cholesterol are called anecdotal evidence.
Explanation:Testimonials like the one Maria read about the movie star who claimed that coconut oil helped lower his bad cholesterol are called anecdotal evidence.
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A lab assistant needs to mix up the following reaction to prepare DNA for an experiment:
25ul of a DNA sample
25ul of enzyme
50ul of reaction buffer
400ul of water
The smallest size tube that will hold the entire reaction is ??? [0.05, 0.5, or 5] ml:
Which of the following pipetting devices most likely would not be used by the lab assistant to measure the needed volumes?? [P20, P200, P1000]?
The enzyme comes as a concentrated solution of 20 Units of activity per ul. Therefore, the reaction mix will have ??? total Units of the enzyme at a working dilution of ??? Units/ul.
Answer:
The smallest size tube that will hold the entire reaction is 0.5ml
Explanation:
25ul (DNA sample) + 25ul (enzyme) + 50ul (buffer) + 400ul (water) = 500ul total
since 1000ul=1ml, then 500ul = 0.5ml
Answer:
The device that mostlikely would not be used P20
Explanation:
P20 is a pipette used to measure and sample volumes of 20ul maximum.
Answer:
The reaction mix will have 400 units of the enzyme.
The working dilution will be 0.8 Units/ul.
Explanation:
The mix has 20ul of the enzyme which is 20Units/ul. Then we have 20ulx20Units/ul= 400 Units of enzyme in the mix.
Since the final volume is 500ul, the final concentration 400Units/500ul=0.8 Units/ul.
could someone pls help me this is due tomorrow
Answer:
Your answer is below
Explanation:
The first picture shows a cell membrane inside the protein there is a protein that needs energy to carries a molecule. Then, picture a is active transport, it needs energy.
The second picture shows a cell membrane that is that is eating a molecule then this picture shows a endocytosis process. It needs energy.
The third picture shows a cell membrane and a protein inside it, but it doesn't needs energy to carries a molecule, then this picture is an example of facilitated diffusion.
The fourth picture shows a membrane that is excreting wastes or molecules, then this picture is exocytosis. It needs energy.
Suppose the genes for eye color and wing shape are both on the X chromosome (they are linked) and are known to be 68 map units apart. In a mating between a Xw+m+Xwm female and a XwmY male that produces 1000 progeny, how many recombinant progeny would you expect to observe?
Answer:
500
Explanation:
The greater the distance between two linked genes, the higher the chances of crossing over happening between them. If genes are in the same linkage group but separated by 50 or more map units, they will assort independently from each other during meiosis.
The female will produce the following gametes, each with a 1/4 proportion:
• Xʷ⁺ᵐ⁺ (parental)
• Xʷᵐ (parental)
• Xʷ⁺ᵐ (recombinant)
• Xʷᵐ⁺ (recombinant)
In an offspring of 1000 individuals, half of them are expected to be recombinant.
The maximum recombination frequency possible between 2 genes is 50%, because when a crossing over happens half the generated gametes will be parental and half will be recombinant.
Final answer:
Out of the 1000 progeny, we would expect around 500 to be recombinant.
Explanation:
To solve this problem, we need to understand the concept of genetic recombination and map units.
Genetic recombination occurs when two linked genes on a chromosome exchange segments during meiosis, resulting in offspring with new combinations of alleles. The frequency of recombination between two genes is measured in map units, also known as centimorgans.
Given that the genes for eye color (Xw) and wing shape (Xm) are 68 map units apart on the X chromosome, we can expect recombination to occur in approximately 68% of the gametes produced during meiosis.
In the mating between the Xw+m+Xwm female and the XwmY male, there are two possible combinations of gametes produced by the female:
Xw+m+: containing the Xw and m+ alleles
Xwm: containing the Xw and Xm alleles
Since the XwmY male only produces one type of gamete (Xwm), all progeny resulting from this mating will have the Xwm genotype.
Now, let's calculate the expected number of recombinant progeny:
Recombinant progeny would result from the combination of the Xw+m+ female gamete (Xw+m+) and the Xwm male gamete (Xwm).
Recombinant progeny would also result from the combination of the Xwm female gamete (Xwm) and the Xw+m+ male gamete (Xw+m+).
Since both combinations involve recombination, we can consider them together.
If we assume equal probability of each type of gamete being produced, we can expect approximately 50% of the progeny to be recombinant.
So, out of the 1000 progeny, we would expect around 500 to be recombinant.
Arrange the following in the proper sequence in which they occur during a single PCR cycle.
1. Addition of DNA nucleotides by Taq DNA polymerase.
2. Complementary base pairing between primers and target DNA.
3. Heat separation of strands of target DNA.
Answer:
The correct order is 3 - 2 - 1
Explanation:
In order for DNA replication to occur, both strands need to be separated so the polymerase can start adding nucleotides. In a PCR, this is achieved by an increase in temperature. After both strands are separated, a DNA primer binds the sequence from which the replication will start. This is because DNA polymerases need a short complementary sequence to attach to before they start replicating. Once both strands are separated and primers are paired to DNA, Taq Polymerase can start adding nucleotides to complete the cycle.
A scientist working in the freil wants to determine the approximate pH of swamp water using a simple and inexpensive technique. Which tool should the scientist use to measure an approximate pH
Answer:
Ph paper
Explanation:
What examples of human behavior have you seen that seem to have been inherited from our ancestors because they helped individuals survive and adapt more effectively? Why do you think they are inherited?
Answer:
Domesticating plants and animals
Fear of snakes and spiders
Social roles and cooperation
Explanation:
The reason that we inherited these traits from our ancestors is that they confer an advantage in the environment in which we live. This process occurred through natural selection pressures that power evolution. Individuals that bore these traits had higher chances of reaching reproductive age and passing down their genes. Individuals without these traits died sooner hence their genes reduced with every generation.
"A dominant gene b+ is responsible for the wild-type body color of Drosophila; its recessive allele b produces black body color. A testcross of a heterozygous b+/b female by a black b/b male gave 52 black and 58 wild-type progeny. If a black female from these progeny were crossed with a wild-type brother, what phenotypic ratios would be expected in their offspring?"
Answer:
50% wild type and 50% black i.e. 1:1 phenotypic ratio
Explanation:
Given, b+ = wild type allele
b = recessive allele
b+b+ = dominant wild type
b+b = heterozygous wild type
bb = recessive black
First cross: female b+b (wild type) X male bb (black) = bb, bb, b+b, b+b
Since bb and b+b are in 1:1 phenotypic ratio, 52 black and 58 wild type progeny are produced.
From this progeny second cross occurs between:
female bb (black) X male (wild type) b+b = bb, bb, b+b, b+b
Again the same 1:1 phenotypic ratio is obtained. Half of the progeny will be be black (bb), other half will be wild type (b+b).
In a classic experiment that demonstrated the semiconservative nature of DNA replication, cells were grown first in 14N-containing media and later in 15N-containing media, and DNA was separated by
Answer:
Cesium chloride density gradient centrifugation
Explanation:
Centrifugation is a technique that separates the one type of molecules from the others based on some physical properties such as density, shape, molecular weight, etc.
Meselson and Franklin Stahl grew the E coli cells in the N-14 and N-15 medium. They isolated the DNA from E coli cells and separated the double helices by centrifugation in a cesium chloride density gradient.
The technique of density gradient centrifugation separates the heavy-heavy, light-light, and heavy-light DNA double helices into distinct bands as they differ from each other with respect to density.
A fungal spore germinates, giving rise to a mycelium that grows outward into the soil surrounding the site where the spore originally landed. Which of the following accounts for the fungal movement, as described here?
Answer:
Is a reproductive mycelium
Explanation:
There are two kind of myceliums in a fungi. The structural one, is the responsible to search nutrients and form the structures to continue obtaining nutrients from the soil.
The other kind of mycellium, the reproductive, is the one that surrounds the spores, and when the nutrients gone in a place, the spores can travel far away to search a new place to grow and reproduce.
An organism grew well on TSA plates, a bit slower on MM1 and not at all on MM1 without glucose. The results indicate that organism is not fastidious since it __________.
Answer:
Can grow on MM1.
Explanation:
Organisms that can only grow in a media having specific nutrients included in it are called a fastidious organism, this implies that these organisms have specific nutrient requirements for their growth. MM 1 represents the minimal media which has basic nutrients present in it, however as the fastidious organisms require some particular or complex nutrients for their growth they can not grow on the minimal media. Therefore, since the organisms that are given in the question is able to grow on the minimal media MM1, this implies that it is not a fastidious organism.The passage addresses that NPY in conjunction with GnRH (but not by itself) can cause increased secretion of LH vs GnRH alone. Scientists are hopeful that NPY can be used in combination with GnRH to treat certain cases of female infertility. Individuals with a deficiency in what receptor system would be most likely to benefit from such a treatment?
A. GnRH
B. LH
C. NPY
D. LH and NPY
Answer:
The correct answer is option A, that is, GnRH.
Explanation:
The individuals with a deficiency in GnRH would be the most likely to get benefit from the treatment as NPY elevates the usual activity of GnRH in instigating the LH levels in the blood. Option B is incorrect, as NPY stimulates LH that then combines with the receptors, which are deficient. To some degree, the excess LH would have helped, however, not as much as if GnRH receptors are lacking.
Only if there is a deficiency of GnRH receptors, then the NPY would have helped the most as NPY would utilize a distinct receptor, and thus, normal levels of LH would get generated.
People with a deficiency in the GnRH receptor system would likely benefit from a treatment that uses NPY and GnRH to increase LH secretion. The GnRH receptor is vital for this treatment's efficacy.
Explanation:Individuals with a deficiency in the GnRH receptor system would most likely benefit from a treatment that uses NPY in combination with GnRH to increase the secretion of LH.
The GnRH receptor takes part in a cascade which eventually stimulates the release of LH. When NPY is used alongside GnRH, the two compounds can cause a greater secretion of LH than when GnRH is used alone.
This receptor system is therefore crucial for the efficacy of the proposed treatment.
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A science class is studying solubility, so they perform a lab to answer the question, "How does temperature affect the solubility of sugar in water?" The results of their experiment appear below.
Amount of Sugar Dissolved at Different Temperatures
Temperature (°C) Grams of sugar that dissolved
in 100 g water
0 180
20 205
40 240
60 280
80 360
100 490
Which of the following conclusions best answers the experimental question?
A.
All of these statements are valid answers to the experimental question.
B.
Sugar is composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms covalently bonded together.
C.
The solubility of sugar in water is 490 g sugar/100 g water at 100°C.
D.
The solubility of sugar in water increases with an increase in temperature.
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Answer: It is D. The solubility of sugar in water increases with an increase in temperature.
Explanation:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The sugar dissolves in water to make a homogeneous solution. Amount of sugar that is dissolved in 100 gram of water varies at different temperature.
The dissolution of sugar in water at different temperatures is called solubility.
It is seen that the solubility of sugar in water increases with increase in the temperature.
Hence, the correct answer is option D
A fish die when taken out of water while a rat kept under water dies . What availibility allows the rat and fish to sirvive in their respecrive habitat
Which of the following is not a property of water?
Group of answer choices
A.ability to adhere to other substances
B.ability to moderate temperatures
C.ability to contract upon freezing
D.ability to dissolve a wide variety of substances
Answer: Ability to contract upon freezing
Explanation:
Water is a universal solvent. It has the ability to dissolve different types of solute in the water.
It has the property of adhesion and cohesion. Cohesion can be defined as the combining of two or more water molecules.
Adhesion can be defined as the ability of the water molecules to adhere different substances.
It can be used as an cooling agent in order to moderate the temperature when the temperature is very high.
The correct answer as to which is not a property of water would be the ability to contract upon freezing. The correct option would, therefore, be C.
Water has the ability to adhere to other substances, also known as adhesive property.Water has the ability to moderate temperatures due to its high heat capacity.Water has the ability to dissolve a wide variety of substances due to its polarity and the presence of hydrogen bonds in its structure.However, water expands, rather than contracts upon freezing and this is particularly due to the expansion of the hydrogen bonds.
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Select all molecules that are considered to be macromolecules. Check all that apply. An mRNA that will be translated to make a catabolic enzyme An mRNA that will be translated to make a catabolic enzyme An individual lipid found in a cell membrane An individual lipid found in a cell membrane A protein that is involved in DNA replication
Answer:
All given options are correct.
Explanation:
Biomolecules may be defined as the organic molecules that are present in the living organism. Four important biomolecules are proteins, carbohydrates, fats and nucleic acids.
The biomolecules are known as macromolecules because they are made of large units of molecule. The mRNA that translates to form a enzymes is macromolecule because RNA is made of large units of nucleotides. Lipid that found in cell membrane are macromolecules because they are made of more than 1000 atoms. Protein that are involved in DNA replication are macromolecules as they have large units of amino acids.
Thus, all the given option are correct.
Macromolecules are large, complex molecules essential to life, such as proteins and nucleic acids. Proteins produced by translation of mRNA and those involved in DNA replication are considered macromolecules, whereas individual lipids are generally not, due to their smaller size and simplicity.
Explanation:Biological macromolecules are essential large molecules in living organisms, composed of smaller building blocks. There are four major classes of biological macromolecules: carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids. Among these, proteins and nucleic acids like mRNA are typically considered to be macromolecules because of their large and complex structures.
Proteins, including enzymes involved in catabolism and those that play a role in DNA replication, are synthesized through a process known as translation or protein synthesis. This involves decoding an mRNA by the ribosome to produce a polypeptide chain that folds into a functional protein. Proteins are not only functional as enzymes but also provide structural support, making them macromolecules by definition.
On the other hand, individual lipids found in cell membranes are not typically categorized as macromolecules because they are smaller and not as complex compared to proteins and nucleic acids. However, when lipids form complex structures like the phospholipid bilayer of cell membranes, the entire structure could be considered a macromolecule.
An mRNA that will be translated to make a catabolic enzyme and a protein that is involved in DNA replication are considered macromolecules.
Repeating the pertinent parts of the secondary assessment while reassessing the patient primarily means: A. obtaining a complete history of the present illness with OPQRST. B. going through the full SAMPLE history again. C. focusing on questions relatinged to changes in symptoms and repeating the physical exam related to the patient's specific complaint or injuries. D. performing a rapid trauma assessment.
Answer:
The correct answer is option C.
Explanation:
The secondary assessment is done after the completion of the primary assessment. During this assessment, the clinician goes through head-to-toe and through step by step to determine what has happened.
This can comprise, and however, is not restricted to inspection, special tests, bony and soft tissue palpation, neurological, and circulation. Repeating the essential components of the secondary assessment while reevaluating the patient mainly signifies focusing on the queries associated with the modifications in the symptoms and repeating the physical exam associated with the particular injuries or complaints of the patient.
Experimental studies reveal that double-stranded DNA can exist in three different helical forms known as A, B, and Z DNA. Why do molecular biologists primarily focus on B DNA?
Answer:
The correct answer is - B-DNA is the most common form of the DNA present in the cell and a good approximation of the structure of DNA in the cell.
Explanation:
The B- DNA is a form of the DNA that is explained by Watson and crick by the double-helical structure model. B-DNA is the predominant form of the DNA out of the three forms of the DNA which are B-DNA, Z-DNA, and A-DNA.
B-DNA is is provide a good approximation of the structure of DNA in a cell and its most common form of DNA in a cell that makes it the most studied and focused form of DNA.
Thus, the correct answer is - B-DNA is the most common form of the DNA present in the cell and a good approximation of the structure of DNA in the cell.
Answer:
B-DNA is the helical form most commonly found in nature.
Explanation:
Even though there are three different helical forms of DNA, molecular biologist primarily focus on B-DNA because is the most commonly found in nature. A very small proportion of Z-DNA is found in negatively supercoiled DNA, and A-DNA is formed when the DNA is facing dehydrating conditions. However, B-DNA is the prominent and active form found in nature, therefore is the most studied.
Ecosystem services ________. contribute to keeping ecosystems productive are actions humans must take in order to protect and serve the environment are economically valuable services provided by natural systems are valuable to natural systems but not to human-created systems are required to rebalance natural systems that we have disturbed
Answer: are economically valuable services provided by natural systems
Explanation: In simple words, ecosystem services refers to the services that the humans receives from the ecosystem they live in. These are the resources provided by the nature that have economic values.
Examples of such resources could be food and fiber, fresh water etc.
In other words, ecosystem means the direct or indirect contribution made by the nature for the survival of humans.
Ecosystem services are economically valuable services provided by natural systems. Option 3 is correct.
Ecosystem services refer to the benefits that humans receive from ecosystems, such as food, fiber, clean water, pest and disease control, medicines, recreational activities, and natural hazards like floods.
The ecosystem services provided by forests and grasslands go beyond food, fuel, and fiber. Forests clean air, filter water, reduce floods and erosion, support biodiversity, and conserve genetic resources. They also provide recreational, educational, and cultural opportunities.
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If people from Georgia have just experienced an extremely cold winter the last couple of months, what would the climate most likely be classified as?
a. Polar
b. Temperate
c. Maritime
d. Tropical
Answer:
Continental Polar
Explanation:
Air masses are given a two-part name that describes the humidity and temperature characteristics of the region where they form. The first part of an air mass’ name describes its humidity. Air masses that form over the ocean, called maritime air masses, are more humid than those that form over land, called continental air masses. The second part of the name describes the temperature of the air mass, which depends on the latitude where it formed. Air masses that form near the equator or in the tropics (equatorial or tropical air masses) are warmer than air masses that form in polar areas or uin the Arctic (polar or arctic air masses).
The word that describes humidity (maritime or continental) is paired with the word that describes temperature (equatorial, tropical, polar or arctic). For example, if an air mass forms over a tropical ocean, it is called maritime tropical. If an air mass forms over land in the far north it is called continental polar.
Cardiac muscle cells (fibers) that do not contract but instead create and conduct the action potential throughout the heart are atrial fibers. autorhythmic fibers. ventricular fibers. contractile fibers.
Answer:
Autorhythmic FibersFibers
Explanation:
ThiThis was not a T/F question
Deforestation ________.
a. diminishes the trees' ability to purify water
b. increases greenhouse gases
c. fosters replication of endangered species
d. increases the availability of resources to humans
e. minimizes the flow of water, but increases the quality of the water we drink
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Deforestation can be defined as the cutting down of trees in huge number. This act increases the amount of green house gases in the environment.
This is so because the carbon dioxide which is an important green house gas is absorbed by the trees which reduces the concentration of green house gas and thus decreases green house effect.
But lesser number of plants will increase the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere thus increasing the green house effect.
Steroids are classes of lipids that include cholesterol, sex hormones, and cortisone. Steroids are not hydrocarbon chains like triglycerides, but instead contain four fused carbon rings. Although steroids can bond to fatty acids, steroid molecules do not contain a fatty acid chain, and the monomer of a steroid biomolecule is difficult to define. Which of these does NOT correctly pair a steroid and its function?
A) Cholesterol is an energy source.
B) Cholesterol decreases cell membrane fluidity.
C) Estrogen contributes to the development and maintenance of female secondary sex characteristics.
D) Cortisol can help control blood sugar levels, regulate metabolism, help reduce inflammation, and assist with memory formulation.
Please answer quickly and thank you
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Cholesterol is not an energy source in the body. It is used to make Vitamin D, and hormones such as cortisol, estrogen, and progesterone, and digestive fluids like bile.
Cholesterol increases membrane fluidity, especially at lower temperatures when the cell membrane would freeze. This is because the molecule intercalates between the fatty acid chains of the lipid layer of the cell membrane. This prevents the lipids from packing tightly together which would cause the membrane to be rigid. However, it does decrease membrane fluidity at high temperatures preventing the cell membrane from melting at temperature that is higher than its melting point.
Answer:
the answer is A.
Explanation:
this is the correct answer
When a colloid such as gelatin forms, which molecule does the process of protein coagulation entrap?
Answer:
Water
Explanation:
When a colloid such as a gelatin forms, water is entrapped by the process of protein coagulation.
Colloids can be describes as particles of solid having spherical diameter between 1 and 100 nm which are dispersed in the liquid medium. Coagulation can be described as a process in which particles aggregate and lead to the formation of flocs. Flocs can either settle in water or can easily be seperated from water.
Final answer:
In the formation of a colloid like gelatin, the process of protein coagulation entraps water molecules, leading to the formation of a gelatinous substance when it cools.
Explanation:
When a colloid such as gelatin forms, the process of protein coagulation entraps water molecules. Proteins like those in gelatin are hydrophilic, with surfaces covered in polar or charged groups that interact with water, creating a shell that protects against aggregation. Upon heating, these protective shells are disrupted, allowing the proteins to unfold and expose hydrophobic groups that cause the particles to aggregate and form a gel. In the case of gelatin, when it cools, it coagulates, trapping water within a complex three-dimensional network, thus transitioning into a gel, which is a highly viscous substance.
If you are really stressed out about an upcoming math test on Tuesday what type of stress is this? A: avoidance B:acute C:chronic D:conflict
Final answer:
The stress experienced about an upcoming math test on Tuesday is classified as acute stress (option B), which is short-term and related to specific events.
Explanation:
If you are really stressed out about an upcoming math test on Tuesday, the type of stress this represents is acute stress. Acute stress is characterized by brief focal events that can still feel overwhelming, even after the event has ended. This type of stress pertains to situations that are short-term in nature, contrary to chronic stress, which involves events persisting over an extended period. An upcoming test, therefore, fits the description of an acute stressor because it is a specific, short-lived challenge that triggers stress reactions.
Understanding acute stress is crucial for developing effective coping mechanisms. These strategies might include preparation and study, relaxation techniques, and maintaining a positive outlook to manage the stress of taking the test. Unlike chronic stress, which may require more complex interventions, acute stress situations like a math test typically can be managed with direct action and stress reduction techniques tailored to the situation.
Which statement is NOT true about catabolic pathways? Which statement is NOT true about catabolic pathways?
a. They have a net consumption of ATP.
b. They liberate smaller molecules from larger ones.
c. They have a net release of energy.
d. They include the citric acid cycle.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Option A is your answer, because in catabolic pathways ATP is released, not consumed. Besides, other options describes catabolic pathways as such.
The ATP energy is consumed in anabolic pathways, the opposite to catabolic. Maybe you thought that option D is the NOT TRUE, but actually the citric acid cycle is involved in catabolic pathways.
what are fluid dynamics
Answer:In physics and engineering, fluid dynamics is a subdiscipline of fluid mechanics that describes the flow of fluids—liquids and gases. It has several subdisciplines, including aerodynamics (the study of air and other gases in motion) and hydrodynamics (the study of liquids in motion).
Explanation:
Final answer:
Fluid dynamics is a pivotal branch of physics that studies the behavior of liquids and gases in motion, providing critical insights for various fields such as engineering and medicine, with principles like viscosity and incompressibility playing significant roles.
Explanation:
What are Fluid Dynamics?
Fluid dynamics is the branch of physics that studies liquids and gases in motion. It encompasses various mathematical equations and principles, such as Bernoulli's equation, to predict and understand the behavior of fluids. This field is essential because it has vast applications in engineering, medicine, and environmental studies. In engineering, fluid dynamics is critical for designing aircraft, internal combustion engines, and even for pumping oil from great depths, as seen in the Gulf of Mexico. In the biological and medical fields, it helps us understand blood flow in the human body and how fluids move within different processes. The concept of viscosity, which relates to the internal friction of a fluid, and the assumption of incompressibility in some cases, where a fluid's density remains constant, are important aspects considered in fluid dynamics.
Key Applications of Fluid Dynamics
Design of aircraft and internal combustion enginesMedical applications, such as modeling blood flowUnderstanding flow mechanisms in chemical processing plantsDecide whether each of the following statements regarding photosynthesis and respiration is true or false. Energy is required for respiration. Sugar and oxygen O2 are consumed in photosynthesis. Carbon dioxide CO2 and water H2O are consumed in respiration.
1. Energy is required for respiration.
Answer: True.
Explanation: Cell respiration is a three-step process in aerobic organisms (Those that need oxygen): Glycolisis, Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorilation. In glycolisis, glucose and other sugars are oxidize to pyruvic acid and energy (ATP) is needed in two of the reactions (to activate glucose and to activate fructose 6-phosphate).
2. Sugar and oxygen O2 are consumed in photosynthesis.
Answer: False.
Explanation: Photosynthesis is a process carry out by cianobacteria, algae and plants to produce sugar and oxygen from sunlight. This process has two phases:
a) Luminic phase. In this phase the energy from the sunlight is transported throught photosystems as electrons, oxygen and energy sustrates like NADPH are produced.
b) Calvin cycle. In this phase, sugars are synthetize from CO2 fixation and enzimatic activity in several steps, using NADPH produced in previous phase, as energy.
3. Carbon dioxide CO2 and water H2O are consumed in respiration.
Answer: False.
Explanation: In cell respiration, glucose and other sugars are completely oxidize to produce energy as ATP and as a residue, CO2. In this process, oxygen is consumed producing oxygen-reactive species that are neutralized by enzimes to form water (H2O).
Energy is required for respiration, making the first statement true. The second statement is false; photosynthesis consumes carbon dioxide and water, not sugar and oxygen. The third statement is also false; respiration consumes oxygen and glucose, producing carbon dioxide and water.
Explanation:Deciding whether statements regarding photosynthesis and respiration are true or false requires an understanding of the basic principles of both processes. Energy is indeed required for cellular respiration; this is a true statement as cells use this process to produce ATP, the energy currency of the cell, from sugar and oxygen. Moving on to the second statement, it is false that sugar and oxygen O2 are consumed in photosynthesis; it is actually carbon dioxide and water that are consumed. The final statement that carbon dioxide CO2 and water H2O are consumed in respiration is also false; in aerobic respiration, oxygen and glucose are consumed, while CO2 and H2O are produced as waste products.
If the ATP-binding site of an enzyme is buried in the interior of the enzyme, in a hydrophobic environment, is the ionic interaction between enzyme and substrate stronger or weaker than that same interaction would be on the surface of the enzyme, exposed to water? Why?
Answer:
Stronger; a hydrophobic has lower dielectric constant. The lower the dielectric constant of the interior, the stronger the ionic interactions.
Explanation:
Ionic interactions are the electrostatic interactions between the oppositely charged ions. The strength of ionic interaction depends on the magnitude of the charges on the ions, the distance between the charged groups and the dielectric constant.
Here, the dielectric constant is the property of the medium in which the ionic interactions are taking place. Dielectric constant represents the number of dipoles present in the medium or solvent. A medium with higher dielectric constant would attract the oppositely charged ions towards its own dipole and would thereby, make the ionic interaction between the ions weaker.
Given that the ionic bonding between substrate and enzyme is taking place in the hydrophobic interior, ionic interactions would be stronger since the hydrophobic medium has a lower dielectric constant.
The lower number of the electric dipoles or their absence in the hydrophobic interior would not attract the oppositely charged groups of substrate and enzyme towards its own dipoles as the water with higher dielectric constant would have done. This would allow stronger ionic interaction between the substrate and the enzyme.
Amino acids, the building blocks of proteins, have the ability to act as buffers in the body. This means that proteins can maintain normal blood pH. By maintaining normal blood pH, the body's proteins are protected from being what?A) NeutralizedB) NaturalizedC) DeneutralizedD) Denatured
Answer:
The answer to your question is d) Denatured
Explanation:
A) Neutralized this is a chemical process to obtain a salt and water, it doesn't used for proteins. This option is incorrect.
B) Naturalized. Proteins must must naturalized to keep working, when a protein is naturalized it has all its functions. This is not the right option, this question ask us the oposite.
C) Deneutralized This definition is not used for proteins, this option is incorrect.
D) Denatured. Maintaining normal blood pH proteins are protected from being denatured, that means that the lost their function. This is the right answer.
Answer:
Proteins can not be neutralized...naturalized (amino acids are the naturation) and deneutralized. Correct answer is D. Denature can be ocurred if you have extremely changes at specific parameters, ionic force, temperature, solvent polarity and of course, pH.
Relative to prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells are usually ______. Relative to prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells are usually ______. larger and more complex smaller and more complex smaller and simpler larger and equally complex
Answer:
Relative to prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells are usually larger and more complex.