Answer: a) Obtain abdominal ultrasound.
Explanation:
In this patient pulsatile mass is required to be followed up with the abdominal ultrasound immediately. The risk of rupture of the aorta is around 15 times greater if the diameter of the aorta measures to be 4 centimeters.
Abdominal ultrasound is a kind of imaging test. It is used to observe the organs of the abdomenal system, including the liver, spleen, pancreas, gallbladder and kidneys. The blood vessels that lead associated with these organs, such as the aorta and the vena cava, can also be observed through the ultrasound.
Thus the abdominal ultrasound can be an appropriate approach for this.
Aaron has started working for a new firm. There are thirty people on his floor. He is having problems remembering their names. Which should Aaron do to improve his ability to recall names?
Answer:
The best answer to the question: Which should Aaron do to improve his ability to recall names, would be: to repeat the names of the people he meets at least twice, as he speaks to them, as repetition, and drilling, enhances short-term memory and motivates long-term memorization.
Explanation:
Short term memory is passive, meaning, the brain will only retain what it immediately needs, and discard, or store, those things that are not immediately necessary, to meet the demands at the moment. Because of this, people tend to forget certain things like names, especially if there are many, and, like Aaron, are having problems with memory on this ocassion. In order for his short-term memory to engage, and his long-term memory to come into the picture, one strategy is drilling and repetition. By saying the names of the people while talking to them, at least twice, Aaron is not just repeating, but also associating, which will help with long-term memory and also motivate short-term memorization.
Which technique most clearly minimizes the likelihood that any outcome differences between the experimental and control groups can be attributed to age or personality differences in research participants?
a. the double-blind procedure
b. statistical measurement
c. replication
d. operational definitions
e. random assignment
Answer:
The correct option is: e. random assignment
Explanation:
Random assignment, also known as the random placement, is a technique which is used to allocate the research participants of an experiment or research into two groups: the treatment group or the experimental group and the control group, by the method of randomization.
This process of randomization makes sure that the every research participant has an equal possibility of getting placed in any of the groups.
Final answer:
e) Random assignment is the technique that minimizes the probability that outcome differences between experimental and control groups are due to participant variables like age or personality by ensuring each participant has an equal chance of being in any group.
Explanation:
The technique that most clearly minimizes the likelihood that any outcome differences between the experimental and control groups can be attributed to age or personality differences in research participants is random assignment. This process ensures that every participant has an equal chance of being placed in any given group, thereby controlling for a variety of potential confounding variables, such as age and personality. Furthermore, random assignment is a critical component of experiments that creates equivalence among the experimental conditions before the research begins. For example, Anderson and Dill's use of random assignment in their study could ensure that, on average, participating individuals in both conditions were equivalent in terms of variables related to their hypothesis.
A nurse working in the intensive care unit (ICU) refers to the Institute for Healthcare Improvement (IHI) Ventilator Bundle prior to planning patient care. The nurse realizes nursing interventions outlined in the bundle will improve patients’ outcomes. Which of the following statement best describes how IHI-established nursing interventions should be included in each bundle?
a) Nursing interventions found within the IHI bundles were selected based on the ability to provide optimal time management for the nurse
b) Best practice derived from valid and reliable research studies guided nursing interventions being added to the IHI bundles
c) Nurse case managers serving as patient advocates recommended nursing interventions to be included in the IHI bundles based on patient preference
d) Hospitals, physicians, and nurses worked collaboratively to design patient care activities included in IHI bundles
Answer: b) Best practice derived from valid and reliable research studies guided nursing interventions being added to the IHI bundles.
Explanation:
A bundle is a orderly way used for improving the process of care and obtaining the patient response. It is a small, straightforward based on evidence are the practices generally 3 to 5 that, if performed reliable and collectively, can improve patient health outcomes. Hospitals, nurses and physicians work collaboratively by bundles.
IHI-established nursing interventions in the bundles are based on best practices from research, aimed at improving patient outcomes by reducing infections and enhancing patient care.
Explanation:The best description of how IHI-established nursing interventions should be included in each bundle is that best practice derived from valid and reliable research studies guide the inclusion of nursing interventions in the IHI bundles. The Institute for Healthcare Improvement's (IHI) Ventilator Bundle is a set of evidence-based practices that, when implemented together, significantly improve patient outcomes. Interventions included in the bundles are chosen based on research evidence showing that they reduce infections, improve patient care, and ultimately, patients' health outcomes.
While collaborative work between hospitals, physicians, and nurses is essential in designing patient care activities, and while nurse case managers do serve as patient advocates, the core criteria for the inclusion of interventions in IHI bundles revolve around evidence-based practice rather than time management or stakeholder preference alone.
Choose the best answer: A pregnant mother eats high fat foods, which then influences her child's behavior for life time is an example of ________________. biopsychosis behavioral modification environmental effect epigenetics
Answer:
Epigenetics
Explanation:
According to my research on studies conducted by various geneticists, I can say that based on the information provided within the question this is an example of Epigenetics. This term refers to the study of changes that occur to an unborn human that does not involve alterations in the DNA sequence. High fat foods affect the baby's health development but since it does not alter the DNA sequence we can say that this is the term being described.
I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.
Answer:
Epigenetics
Explanation:
A pregnant mother eats high fat foods, which then influences her child's behavior for life time is an example of epigenetics.
Rather than simply memorizing key terms and concepts, Jeremy focused on the meaning of the information in the chapter and tried to generate examples of concepts from his own experiences. Jeremy was using _____ to help encode information into his long-term memory.
a) contextual cues
b) elaborative rehearsal
c) the serial position effect
d) maintenance rehearsal
Answer:
Elaborative rehearsal.
Explanation:
Memory may be defined as the ability of the brain to memorize the incident or any other information. Two types of memory are short term memory and long term memory.
The long term memory can be converted to the short term memory by multiple rehearsal and memorizing the things again and again. Jeremy must be using elaborative rehearsal to memorize the chapter and generate examples to create his own experience.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
Jeremy was using elaborative rehearsal to help encode information into his long-term memory.
Explanation:Jeremy was using elaborative rehearsal to help encode information into his long-term memory. Elaborative rehearsal involves thinking about the meaning of new information and making connections to existing knowledge. By focusing on the meaning of the information in the chapter and generating examples from his own experiences, Jeremy was engaging in elaborative rehearsal and increasing the likelihood of encoding the information into his long-term memory.
A client has a diagnosis of HIV and has been admitted to the hospital with an opportunistic infection that originated with the client's normal flora. Why did this client most likely become ill from his resident microorganisms?A) the client's normal flora began producing sporesB) the client's normal flora proliferated because of nutritional deficitC) the resident microorganisms mutated and have became virulentD) the client's immune system became further weakened
Answer:
D) the client's immune system became further weakened
Explanation:
Instead of causing disease, the body's normal flora usually protects the body from other disease-causing organisms. However, under certain circumstances, microorganisms that are part of a person's normal flora can cause disease. This can happen in HIV-infected individuals. Some medicines used to treat HIV, especially lopinavir and ritonavir, may be associated with changes in bowel habits, such as a weakened immune system, normal flora may weaken it and lead to opportunistic infection.
After teaching a class about agents commonly associated with the development of malignant hyperthermia, the instructor determines that additional teaching is needed when the students identify which drug as a possible cause?
Answer:
Morphine
Explanation:
Malignant hyperthermia is a syndrome that manifests during general anesthesia, however morphine is not associated with malignant hyperthermia. Among the main characteristics are the rise in body temperature, hence the name, accompanied by the exhalation of carbon dioxide, muscle stiffness and increased heart rate.
Symptoms may also occur post-anesthetically, which is rarer. Usually, the suspicion of malignant hyperthermia occurs when the person under anesthesia is under adequate mechanical ventilation and yet has increased carbon dioxide and tachycardia. The clinical picture is considered serious, since there is the possibility of evolution to an irreversible shock, which may even lead to death (hence the malignant term) if not diagnosed and, if necessary, taken the appropriate measures.
Answer:
the drugs can be any of the following-potent volatile anesthetic gases such as halothane, sevoflurane, desflurane and the depolarizing muscle relaxant succinylcholine
Explanation:
The incidence of MH episodes during anesthesia is between 1:5,000 and 1:50,000–100,000 anesthesias. Even though a MH crisis may develop at first exposure to anesthesia with those agents known to trigger an MH episode, on average, patients require three anesthesias before triggering. Reactions develop more frequently in males than females (2:1). All ethnic groups are affected, in all parts of the world. The highest incidence is in young people, with a mean age of all reactions of 18.3 years. It has been found that children under 15 years age comprised 52.1% of all reactions. Although described in the newborn, the earliest reaction confirmed by testing is six months of age [2]. The oldest is 78 years.
Genetically, MH is an autosomal dominant condition; the estimated prevalence of the genetic abnormalities may be as great as one in 3,000 individuals (range 1:3,000 to 1:8,500).
Numerous factors could be involved in triggering MH – age, type of anesthetic, environmental temperature, mitigating drugs administered simultaneously, and degree of stress [3]. Mauritz et al. [4] found an incidence of 1:37,500 in patients who had been diagnostically tested, which was similar to the incidence estimated by Robinson et al. (1:30,000) [5], although wide variability has been reported. A recent report suggested that the MH susceptible (MHS) trait may be present in 1:2,000–3,000 of the French population [6]. Bachand and colleagues examined the incidence of MH in Quebec, Canada, where many families had been biopsied [7]. They traced the pedigrees of the patients to the original immigrants from France and found an incidence of MH susceptibility of 0.2% in this province. However, that represented only five extended families.
An infant born at 36 weeks’ gestation weighs 4 lbs 3 oz (1,899 g) and has Apgar scores of 7 and 9. Which nursing actions will be performed upon the infant’s admission to the nursery?
Answer:
Recording of vital signs. Evaluation of the neonate's health status. Supportive measures to keep the neonate's body temperature stable.Explanation:
The normal weight of a newborn (or at 36 weeks gestation) should be between 2,500g and 3,800-4,000g. Accordingly, we can see that the baby exposed in the question is slightly underweight.
In addition, the baby has the 7th and 9th Apgar test, which is a test that assesses the newborn's immediate adjustment to extrauterine life, assessing their vitality conditions. An 8 to 10 grade present in about 90% of newborns means that the baby was born in excellent condition. A score of 7 means the baby had a slight difficulty.
According to the conditions presented by the baby, it is necessary for the nurse to do some things before admitting the baby to the hospital nursery. The most appropriate procedures to be performed by the nurse in this case are:
Recording of vital signs. Evaluation of the neonate's health status. Supportive measures to keep the neonate's body temperature stable.Grayson seems to be preoccupied with the possibility that he might miss an important message from someone in his family. He checks for new messages on his answering machine every 15 minutes.
Grayson's constant checking for messages could be considered an example of ______________.
a) a hallucination
b) a delusion
c) an obsession
d) a compulsion
Answer: compulsion
Explanation: Cambridge dictionary describes complusion as a very strong feeling of wanting to do something repeatedly that is difficult to control. Due to the fact that he repeatedly checks his messages every 15 minutes it shows that he is exhibiting compulsive behaviours.
Ally has evaluated her skills and determined that she has excellent balance. She wants to sign up for two sports that will play to her strength. Which two sports will be best for her? A. Archery and swimming B. Bicycling and gymnasticsC. Baseball and footballD. Volleyball and tennis
Answer:
The correct answer is option B. bicycling and gymnastic.
Explanation:
Bicycling and gymnastic sports are the two great exercises that provide strength to overall body and endurance to an individual that participated in these sports. Both of the sports need a tremendous balancing skill. Gymnasts have great balancing skills as well the bicycling provide strength to legs hips and other lower body parts and improve muscle memory.
Ally has evaluated her skill and found out that she is excellent at balancing. balance-related sports are bicycling and gymnastics.
Thus, the correct answer is option B. bicycling and gymnastics.
Recognizing individual differences is especially important to psychologists interested in variations in an individual's characteristic way of thinking, feeling, and behaving. This is referred to as ____.
Answer:
The correct answer is - personality.
Explanation:
Personality is set of various characteristic or trait of feelings, behavior, and cognitions that developed from genetic and environmental components of an individual.
There is no proper definition for the personality due to difference in personalities of individual to individual which interests the psychologists.
Thus, the correct answer is - personality.
The question is asking about 'personality', which is a term used in psychology to define an individual's characteristic way of thinking, feeling, and behaving. Personality psychology, a branch of psychology, specifically focuses on these individual differences and patterns which are essential in understanding the social relationships and interactions of individuals.
Explanation:Recognizing individual differences is significant for psychologists who are particularly interested in the variations in someone's characteristic way of thinking, feeling, and behaving. This is known as one's personality. Personality psychology is an area of psychology that focuses on these patterns of thoughts and behaviors that make each person unique.
This area of study includes examining different aspects such as inborn, genetically based differences, characteristic ways of behaviour, and personality traits like extroversion or introversion. The understanding of personality and its development has evolved from a variety of perspectives, such as Freud's psychosexual theory, to David Buss's studies considering the evolutionary viewpoint of these characteristics.
A component to be understood in personality psychology is the individual personality traits that are consistent and enduring, which makes each individual truly unique. Bearing this in mind, it is also important to remember that appreciating these individual differences and variations is crucial in understanding the social relationships and interactions of individuals.
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Mrs. Worden has an unusual fear of buttons. Every time she spots a loose button on the floor of her laundry room, she becomes extremely anxious and feels sick. In order to minimize her discomfort, Mrs. Worden only wears clothes that are button-free. If she sought help for her problem, what would Mrs. Worden's diagnosis probably be?
Answer:
Specific phobia
Explanation:
Formerly called simple phobia, specific phobia is persistent and recurrent fear of a particular object or circumstance that triggers a strong anxiety reaction whenever presented to the phobic patient, Similar to what Mrs Worden feels about buttons.
Phobias, in general, are characterized by the absence of reason to arouse the verified fear, or for being the exaggerated fear before the phobic object. People with specific phobia do not have a history of trauma, injury or threat from exposure to the most common objects of specific phobia. If this happened, it would be necessary to differentiate specific phobia from post-traumatic stress. Most of the time people with a specific phobia are not affected in their routine because the phobic object is not part of it. When it is part, treatment is indicated.
In Austria, 30% of the population has a blood type of O+, 33% has A+, 12% has B+, 6% has AB+, 7% has O-, 8% has A-, 3% has B-, and 1% has AB-. If 15 Austrian citizens are chosen at random, what is the probability that 3 have a blood type of O+, 2 have A+, 3 have B+, 2 have AB+, 1 has O-, 2 have A-, 1 has B-, and 1 has AB-?
Answer: The probability that 3 have a blood type of O+, 2 have A+, 3 have B+, 2 have AB+, 1 has O-, 2 have A-, 1 has B-, and 1 has AB- is 0.0011%
Explanation: For calculate the probability, we have to use multinomial distribution:
P=n![tex]\frac{n!}{n1!n2!n3!..nk!} (p1n^{1} p2n^{2}p3n^{3}..pkn^{k})[/tex]
n: number of trials, p: probability for each possible outcome, k: number of possible outcomes.
The probability of each blood type are:
P1(0+)=0.30P2(A+)=0.33P3(B+)=0.12P4(AB+)=0.06P5(0-)=0.07P6(A-)=0.08P7(B-)=0.03P8(AB-)=0.01If 15 Austrian citizens are chosen at random, there are 15 trials. n=15
for n1=3 because 3 P(0+)
for n2=2 because 2 P(A+)
for n3=3 because 3 P(B+)
for n4=2 because 2 P(AB+)
for n5=1 because 1 P(0-)
for n6=2 because 2 P(A-)
for n7=1 because 1 P(B-)
for n8=1 because 1 P(AB-)
k=8 (because there are 8 possibilities)
[tex]P=\frac{15!}{3!2!3!2!1!2!1!1} (0.30^{3}0.33^{2}0.12^{3}0.06^{2}0.07^{1}0.08^{2}0.03^{1}0.01^{1})[/tex]
P=0.000011
Px100=0.0011
Angela can't sleep at night before making several trips through the house to repeatedly check all the door and window locks. This behavior is causing her to lose sleep and feel stressed. This example best describes __________.
Answer:
The best answer to fill in the blank here would be an anxiety disorder, best known as obsessive compulsive disorder.
Explanation:
Anxiety disorders, especially as acute and serious as obsessive compulsive disorder, can cause a person to lose any hopes of sleeping well. In turn the lack of sleep will also increase anxiety and can cause the appearance of compulsive actions, like the ones Angela is displaying. Due to anxiety, Angela cannot rest until she has taken several trips to check on all the locks. This action is typical of the obsessive compulsive disorder, and they display that Angela has a severe case of anxiety that triggers her obsession with the locks, and motivates the compulsive action of going back and forth to check, to the detriment of her resting and sleeping hours. All of this is characteristic of OCD.
Jonathan is disappointed when he enters his doctor's office and sees how crowded it is. He has to stand and is dreading the wait until he is called in for the appointment but he needs to see the doctor so he cannot leave. Which perceptual characteristic of the environment is Jonathan experience?
a. formality
b. warmth
c. privacy
d. distance
e. constraint
The perceptual characteristic of the environment that Jonathan is experiencing is: E. constraint.
What is a perceptual characteristic?A perceptual characteristic is also referred to as perceptual feature and it can be defined as the properties of an object or environment as they are being represented by a visual system. Also, perceptual characteristic are typically a central construct of an individual's perception.
Some examples of the perceptual characteristic of an environment include the following:
WarmthPrivacyDistanceConstraintIn this scenario, the perceptual characteristic of the environment that is being experienced by Jonathan is constraint because he had to stand until he is called in for the appointment.
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While performing a primary assessment on an unresponsive adult who has been rescued from the water, you find that they have only occasional gasps, no pulse and no severe life- threatening bleeding. Which of the following should you do next?
An independent-measures research study uses a total of 18 participants to compare two treatment conditions. If the results are used to construct a 90% confidence interval for the population mean difference, then the t values will be ±1.746
Answer:
TRUE
Explanation:
All of these nursing activities are included in the care plan for a 78-year-old man with Parkinson disease who has been referred to your home health agency. Which activities will you delegate to the UAP? (Select all that apply.)
1. Checking for orthostatic changes in pulse and blood pressure
2. Assessing for improvement in tremor after levodopa (l-dopa [Larodopa]) is given
3. Reminding the client to allow adequate time for meals
4. Monitoring for signs of toxic reactions to anti-Parkinson medications
5. Assisting the client with prescribed strengthening exercises
6. Adapting the client's preferred activities to his level of function
Answer:
Option (1), (3) and (5).
Explanation:
Parkinson disease may be defined as the neurological disorder that can cause the stiffness and shaking of the hand. This disease gets worse with the increasing age.
A nurse must take care a Parkinson's patient that has been referred to the home. The orthostatic changes like blood loss, blood pressure and pulse of the patient must be measure and necessary steps must be taken to bring the normal physiological condition of the body. The patients should remembered and should provide the adequate meals. The strengthening exercise must be prescribed to the client.
Thus, the correct answer is option (1), (3), and (5).
Recently, Kevin has been spending a lot of time playing online poker. Last weekend, he decided on a whim to fly to Las Vegas to try his hand at "the real thing." He lost over $5,000. This behavior indicates that Kevin may have
A) bipolar disorder.
B) borderline personality disorder.
C) schizophrenia.
D) generalized anxiety disorder
Answer:
The correct option is: B. Borderline Personality Disorder
Explanation:
Borderline Personality Disorder is a chronic mental disorder characterized by impulsiveness, disturbed sense of self, unstable emotions and relationships.
Symptoms of borderline personality disorder can be easily triggered by normal actions, events, social and environmental factors.
Other common symptoms of this disorder include insecurity, depersonalization, detachment from reality, feelings of emptiness and worthlessness, self-harm and anxiety.
Therefore, Kevin's behavior in the given example indicates that he may have borderline personality disorder.
Gabe's roommate fell asleep about 25 minutes ago. Now, he needs to awaken him so that they both can get to a party on time. He is sleep talking about his girlfriend's cat. When Gabe begins laughing, his roommate wakes up. He was in what stage of sleep?
A) NREM-1 sleep
B) NREM-2 sleep
C) NREM-3 sleep
D) REM sleep
Answer:
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
The stages of sleep are divided in REM and NREM, also the NREM stages are divided in 1, 2, 3 and 4.
In stages NREM 3 and 4 occurs the deeper sleep and the person is less likely to be awaken during these stages.
In stages 1 and 2 occur the lighter sleep.
In REM stage the person is in a state very similar to the awake state and therefore is more likely to be awaken in this stage. Also, in the REM stage occur dreams.
What type of mental disorder is uncontrolled shopping? phobia schizophrenia paranoid personality impulse-control
Chemistry and hematological are the type of tests that may be performed in physician office laboratory if the POL: has been granted a certificate of waiver.
Hematological test related to the blood. the blood samples are tested for finding out any defect related to the red blood cells or white blood cells. Chemical test is done for various enzymes and hormones of the body.
These two tests are performed by the physician in his office laboratory. The certificate of waiver is very important for the physician.
Personality impulse control
Explanation:
Individuals with character or personality issue will in general display issues with motivation control.
These issues can show as either over-controlled or under-controlled driving forces. (Under-controlled drive control is regularly called an "absence of motivation control".
In a similar way that individuals with character issue may have issues with over-or under-controlled full of the feeling (passionate) guideline, they additionally will, in general, have issues directing their driving forces.
Thus the feel of uncontrolled shopping is inferred as personality impulse control mental disorder.
Dr. Ivy's research focuses on the genetic tendencies that shape each child's characteristic way of reacting to environmental experiences. Dr. Ivy is MOST likely working from a(n) _____ perspective.
Answer:
The best answer to fill in the blank in this statement would be: Dr. Ivy is MOST likely working from a(n): evolutionary perspective, to explain the way that children react to environmental experiences based on their genetic tendencies.
Explanation:
There have been many theories created throughout time to explain why and how, people, be it children or adults, react and act according to the environment in which they are. In this particular case, Dr. Ivy is basing his knowledge and his comprehension of why a child acts in one way to the environment, while another may act completely differently, given the same environment, on the role that genetics plays in behavior shaping. As such, to him, it is a child´s genetic make-up what determines how a child will react to a specific environment, and not other factors, or aspects. This is characteristically of those who favor the evolutionary perspective.
When the preoperative client tells the nurse that he cannot sleep because he keeps thinking about the surgery, an appropriate reflection of the statement by the nurse is:A. "Sounds as if your surgery is a pretty scary procedure." B. "You have a great surgeon. You have nothing to worry about."C. "The thought of having surgery is keeping you awake."D. "You shouldn't be nervous. We perform this procedure every day."
Answer: An appropriate reflection of the nurse to the patient is "The thought of having surgery is keeping you awake."
Explanation:
The nurse will validate what the patient is thinking and not cross any boundaries. The nurse should never tell a patient that the surgery sounds scary, as this will cause more stress to the patient. The nurse should never say that the patient should not be nervous since he has every right to be nervous and this can make the patient feel inferior or silly. Lastly, the nurse should not make statements about how the great the surgeon is and there is nothing to worry about. The patient should have the nurse there to listen to them and validate that she understands he is not sleeping because of the thought of surgery.
Dr. Leung gives all of her clients a short questionnaire that asks questions about sleeping and eating habits, daily activities, and emotional states. Based on this information, Dr. Leung is able to assess whether depressive symptoms are present in each client. Dr. Leung is making use of __________ to assess psychopathology.
Answer:
Psychology testing.
Explanation:
Psychology testing was used to determine the behavior of an individual. This test is used to construct and determines the ability of an individual to cope up with the given tasks.
The psychological testing asks the individual questions related to eating, emotional activity and sleeping habits. The doctors can diagnose the psychological condition of the patient and its depression state by the psychology testing. Hence, Dr. Leung is doing psychological testing with his patient.
Thus, the correct answer is psychology testing.
A woman has just received the news that she is pregnant. She is ambivalent about the pregnancy because she had planned to go back to work when her youngest child started school next year. What developmental task of pregnancy must the woman accomplish in the first trimester of pregnancy?
a. Recognize her ambivalence.
b. Accept that she is pregnant.
c. Prepare for the birth of the baby.
d. Recognize the fetus as an individual separate from the mother.
Answer: c. Prepare for the birth of the baby.
Explanation:
The tenure of the pregnancy lasts for 40 weeks. This tenure is distributed into three trimesters. The first trimester is the tenure in which the fertilization takes place by the sperms to the egg till the fetus development which ends 12 weeks of the pregnancy.
This period is initial and crucial period for the development of the fetus. The women has make up her mindset according to the situation that she has conceived and she has to prepare herself for the child birth.
During a well child exam on a 4-year old child, the primary care pediatric nurse practitioner notes that the clinic nurse recorded "20/50" for the child’s vision and noted that the child had difficulty cooperating with the exam. What will the nurse practitioner recommend? a) Follow up with a visual acuity screen in 6 months. b) Refer to a pediatric ophthalmologist. c) Retest the child in 1 year. d) Test the child’s vision in 1 month.
Answer:
Test the child's vision in 1 month.
Explanation:
Eyes is one of the most important sense organ of the body that helps the organism to visualize the things. The vision of the organism may change due to the weakening of ciliary muscle or any other medical conditions.
The nurse has noticed that child has 20/50" for the child’s vision and feels difficulty in exam. The nurse should provide treatment to the child. Proper spectacles and diet should be accessed to child to improve his vision. She again attend the child after one month and must check the child's vision in one month.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
"The correct option is b) Refer to a pediatric ophthalmologist.
When a child's vision is recorded as ""20/50,"" it indicates that the child can see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 50 feet. This suggests that the child has reduced visual acuity compared to the norm for their age. The fact that the child had difficulty cooperating with the exam could have contributed to the less accurate measurement, but it does not negate the need for further evaluation. Given the child's age and the concerning finding of reduced visual acuity, it is important to address this issue promptly. Early detection and treatment of vision problems in children are crucial for preventing long-term visual impairment and ensuring normal visual development. Here's the rationale for the recommended action: a) Follow up with a visual acuity screen in 6 months: This option may not be appropriate because a delay of 6 months could be detrimental if the child has a vision problem that requires intervention. b) Refer to a pediatric ophthalmologist: This is the most appropriate action because a pediatric ophthalmologist specializes in diagnosing and treating visual disorders in children. They have the expertise to perform a comprehensive eye exam, which is necessary to accurately assess the child's vision and identify any potential issues that could be affecting their visual development. c) Retest the child in 1 year: This option allows too much time to pass before addressing a potential vision problem. Delaying the evaluation could miss a critical period for effective treatment.
To determine her blood pressureblood pressure, KeriKeri divides up her day into three parts: morning, afternoon, and evening. She then measures her blood pressureblood pressure at 22 randomly selected times during each part of the day.
What type of sampling is used?
A. Systematic
B. Simple random
C. Convenience
D. Stratified
E. Cluster
Answer: D. Stratified
Explanation:
In the case of stratified sampling the samples are divided into parts or groups and then samples for study are randomly chosen from these groups or parts. Here Kerikeri has divided up her day into three parts and she selects the blood pressure randomly from these parts. This is the example of stratified sampling.
Which of the following recommendations has been shown to improve blood lipid levels and reduce the risk for cardiovascular disease?
a) maintaining fat intake to within 20-35% of total energy
b) increasing saturated fat to at least 10% of total energy
c) decreasing intake of dietary omega-3 fatty acids from cold-water fish, nuts, and canola oil
d) consuming the UL for vitamin B6, B12, and folate from supplements
Answer:
Maintaining fat intake to within 20-35% of total energy
Explanation:
Making even small lifestyle changes can reduce the risk of cardiovascular ... Coronary artery disease (narrowing of the arteries supplying blood to the ... If you already have cardiovascular disease, you can follow these guidelines to ... increase in the risk for cardiovascular disease when total cholesterol levels
Increasing age.
Cardiovascular disease is more likely to occur as you get older. About 85 percent of people who die of coronary artery disease are age 65 or older.
Male gender.
Men have a greater risk of heart attack than women.
Menopause. After menopause, a woman’s risk of cardiovascular disease increases.
Family history.
Your risk of cardiovascular disease increases if your parents, brothers, sisters, or children have the disease, especially if male relatives were less than age 55 when diagnosed, or female relatives were less than age 65 when diagnosed.
Race.
The risk of cardiovascular disease is higher in African Americans, Mexican Americans, American Indians, native Hawaiians, and some Asian Americans. This increased risk is partly due to higher rates of high blood pressure, obesity, and diabetes in these populations.
When names are removed from questionnaires and are replaced with identification numbers so that only the researcher can later link a response to a particular name, the researcher should tell the respondent that the information is __________.
Answer:
When names are removed from questionnaires and are replaced with identification numbers so that only the researcher can later link a response to a particular name, the researcher should tell the respondent that the information is confidential.
Explanation:
When conducting confidential research it is remarkably important that researchers maintain private and protect the participants' identities with techniques such as the one mentioned in the case above. Participants expect investigators to not divulge without permission their personal information given in a confidential interview.
When Marcia goes into the bedroom to check on the child she is babysitting, she observes that his eyes are rapidly moving back and forth under his eyelids. The child is also lying very still. It is likely that he is:
The child is likely in the REM sleep phase, characterized by rapid eye movement and a still body, which is normal during the active dreaming stage of sleep.
When Marcia observes the child with eyes rapidly moving back and forth under his eyelids and lying very still, it is likely that he is in the rapid eye movement (REM) sleep phase. During REM sleep, which is one of the stages of the sleep cycle, a person's or child's brain is active, and dreams occur. The body becomes temporarily paralyzed except for eye movements and respiration, which prevents us from acting out our dreams.