Answer:
The most important thing to keep in mind about the stroke is the area in which the brain is affected, if it is an ischemic or hemorrhagic stroke since if it is hemorrhagic it is necessary to decompress the area and restrain the bleeding, and the etiology of the stroke if it is embolo bacterial or thrombus, or by blood hypercoagulation.
Explanation:
The adverse effects of all the medications that are prescribed must also always be evaluated, since they are often the cause of secondary pathologies triggered by certain treatments.
Answer:The first priority in acute management of the patient with a stroke is the preservation of life. Because the patient of a stroke may be unconscious or have a reduced gag reflex, it is most important to maintain a patent airway for the patient and provide oxygen if respiratory effort is impaired. IV fluid replacement, treatment with osmotic diuretics, and avoiding hyperthermia may be used for further treatment.
Stroke care may be organized at three levels - a basic stroke care facility, a primary stroke care facility and a comprehensive stroke care facility. The basic stroke care facility should be the minimum setup at district hospitals; primary stroke care facility should be mandatory for all medical colleges and multispeciality hospitals; and well-equipped hospitals including some medical colleges should develop comprehensive stroke care facilities. The basic stroke facility may not have artificial ventilators, echocardiography and carotid Doppler facility, primary stroke care facilities may have these facilities but not neurosurgery, MRI or angiography. Comprehensive stroke care facilities should have all these facilities.
Stroke management is multiprofessional and interprofessional not only in its entirety of the pathway but also sections of the pathway such as the management of swallowing problems. Good practice dictates that people admitted to hospital with an acute stroke should be managed on a stroke unit.
Stroke units are clinical areas dedicated to the care of people admitted to hospital with stroke. Stroke units are staffed by professionals with an interest in and knowledge of stroke. Evidence has shown that people cared for on stroke units recover better and are less likely to die both in the short and long terms (odds of death 0.82; 95% CI, 0.77 to 0.87; P0.00001) [7,
Explanation:
The most important thing to keep in mind about the stroke is the area in which the brain is affected, if it is an ischemic or hemorrhagic stroke since if it is hemorrhagic it is necessary to decompress the area and restrain the bleeding, and the etiology of the stroke if it is embolo bacterial or thrombus, or by blood hypercoagulation.
If a patient is hard of hearing, it is their responsibility to bring someone with them to their appointment to relay information
Answer:
false
Explanation:
An epidemiologic study of postmenopausal women is performed. The subjects undergo periodic examination by dualenergy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan performed on the hip and lumbar vertebrae to evaluate bone mineral density over the next 10 years. They respond to a survey regarding their past and present use of drugs, diet, activity levels, history of bone fractures, and medical conditions. A subset of the subjects is identified whose bone mineral density is closest to that of the young adult reference range and in whom no bone fractures have occurred. The survey data from this subset of women are analyzed. Which of the following strategies is most likely to be supported by the study data to provide the best overall long-term reduction in risk of fracture in postmenopausal women?
A. Supplement the diet with calcium and vitamin D after menopause
B. Begin estrogen replacement therapy after a fracture
C. Avoid corticosteroid therapy for any inflammatory condition
D. Increase bone mass with exercise during childhood and young adulthood
E. Limit alcohol use, and avoid use of tobacco
Answer:
D. Increase bone mass with exercise during childhood and young adulthood
Explanation:
After the survey, a subset of the subjects is identified whose bone mineral density is closest to that of the young adult reference range and in whom no bone fractures have occurred.
The strategy that is most likely to be supported by the study data to provide the best overall long-term reduction in risk of fracture in postmenopausal women will be Increase bone mass with exercise during childhood and young adulthood. This is the right answer because the conditions for long-term reduction in risk of fracture needs to be the same for older women who have reached menopause and young adults and the only option which is best suited for such condition is Option D.
everybody at work sees me as self-confident?
I Guess That is good but they may think you think your better than others and your "cooler". that's just my opinion. :)
Thirty-two people in San Francisco who are jack fish caught at Midway Island developed malaise, nausea, blurred vision, breathing difficulty, and numbness from 3 to 6 hours after eating. The most likely cause of this food intoxication is ____.
Answer: Ciguatera
Explanation:
Ciguatera is a food poisoning or foodborne illness. It is caused when the fish contaminated with the ciguatera toxin is ingested in the meal. It is a lipid-soluble heat-stable toxin. It is produced by the dinoflagellates. The ciguatera toxicity can cause symptoms like pain, malaise, labored breathing, blurred vision, numbness of body parts, cardiac as well as neurological problems in human beings. Based on the above description, the people of San Francisco are expected to be affected by Ciguatera.
Show the correct sequence of the path of blood flow through the pulmonary and sytemic circuits by placing the number of the part of the heart that receives oxygen poor blood from body tissues in the first blank, then continuing the sequence until you are back at the starting point. HINT: You will start AND end with the same part of the heart!
Answer:Please see answer in the explanation column section:
Explanation:
The path of blood flow through the pulmonary and systemic circuits is given in this order starting from the Right atrium and ending at the same right atrium.
The four valve which would be seen in the path flow are responsible for preventing back flow of blood ensuring the right flow of blood in the pulmonary and systemic circuits. The right part of the heart( right Atrium) receives the oxygen poor blood from the body
Right Atrium->Tricuspid valve->Right Vestibule->Pulmonary valve->Pulmonary arteries->Lungs->Pulmonary veins->Left Atrium->Bicuspid (Mitral) valve->Left ventricle->Aortic valve->Aorta->All the body.->Coronary artries->Superior vena cava(returns blood from head neck upper limbs and chest to the heart) and Inferior vena cava ( returns all blood under the diaphram tothe heart)-> Right atrium .
The path of blood flow starts at the right atrium with oxygen-poor blood, moves through the right ventricle to the lungs, returns to the left atrium, is pumped by the left ventricle to the body, and ends back at the right atrium.
Explanation:The correct sequence of the path of blood flow through the pulmonary and systemic circuits starts with the right atrium, which receives oxygen-poor blood from body tissues. From the right atrium, blood moves to the right ventricle, which pumps the blood to the lungs for oxygenation. After receiving oxygen, the blood travels to the left atrium and then through the left ventricle, which pumps oxygen-rich blood out to the body through systemic circulation. This cycle completes after oxygen-poor blood returns to the right atrium, starting the process anew.
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How can health care organizations utilize social media to better understand the needs and preferences of patients and consumers?
Answer:
Explanation:
PARTICIPATION IN SOCIAL MEDIA BY HEALTH CARE PROFESSIONALS
HCPs can use social media to potentially improve health outcomes, develop a professional network, increase personal awareness of news and discoveries, motivate patients, and provide health information to the community.
A 22-year-old male is being discharged home after surgery for testicular cancer. The patient is scheduled to begin chemotherapy in 2 weeks. The patient tells the nurse that he doesn't think he can take weeks or months of chemotherapy, stating that he has researched the adverse effects online. What is the most appropriate nursing action for this patient at this time?A) Provide empathy and encouragement in an effort to foster a positive outlook.B) Tell the patient it is his decision whether to accept or reject chemotherapy.C) Report the patient's statement to members of his support system.D) Refer the patient to social work.
Answer:
A. provide empathy and encouragement in an effort to to foster a positive outlook
At 2:00 a.m. the nurse on duty was called to the patient's room. The patient had vomited a large quantity of undigested food. He was perspiring profusely, his pulse was 132 beats/min, and his blood pressure was 215/138 mmHg. An abdominal exam showed no evidence of tenderness, but there was a complete lack of bowel sounds. Over the next hour the patient's pulse slowed, blood pressure fell toward normal, and he was able to go back to sleep until morning. Blood and urine tests in the morning showed normal blood glucose, but a significant elevation of urinary glucose.Which of the following is a normal stimulator of digestive activity?
Sympathetic nerve activity
Increased insulin secretion
Decreased thyroid hormone
Decreased cortisol secretion
Parasympathetic nerve activity
Answer:
B.) An increase of Insulin Secretion
what is a viral infection ?
Answer:
It is an infection caused by a virus in your body
Explanation:
"The ________ are designed to help individuals age 2 and over improve the quality and content of their diet and make other lifestyle choices to lower their risk of chronic diseases and conditions, such as diabetes mellitus, cardiovascular disease, certain cancers, osteoporosis, and obesity."
Answer:The Dietary Guidelines for Americans
Explanation:
The Dietary Guidelines for Americans produced by the HHS and the U.S Department of Agriculture is a nutrition information designed for individuals from two years and above to make healthy diet and lifestyle choices. This guideline is usually reanalyzed every five years to make sure set guidelines are at par with latest and improved research of which the last was modified in 2015, and would run its course through this year, 2020
Having Healthy eating habits which includes consuming foods like vegetables, fruits, whole grains, fat-free and low-fat dairy products, lean meats, seafood, other protein foods, and oils together with healthy lifestyle such as regular physical activities, have been shown to reduce risks of chronic disease such as diabetes mellitus, obesity, certain cancers etc throughout their lives.
In the stomach, parietal cells produce hydrochloric acid, which is needed to convert the proenzyme pepsinogen to the protein-digesting enzyme pepsin. Hydrochloric acid dramatically lowers the pH of the stomach contents to around 2.5. When saliva is swallowed will amylase continue to be functional when it enters the stomach?
Answer: No, it will not function.
Explanation: The gastric acid in the human stomach lumen generally has a pH level of about 1.5 to 3.5 as more hydrochloric acid is been released in the stomach.
Amylase is an enzyme secreted ino the silva in our mouth, this enzyme helps to accelerate reactions such as breaking down of starch into sugar in an optimum pH which is about 5.2 to 7.0.
When amylase enters the stomach, it cease to function because the pH level of gastric acid in the stomach lumen is between 1.5 to 3.5 (acidic) which is not favourable to the enzyme. This condition limits the amylase from forming enzyme-substrate complexes with starch.
So with the pH of the stomach contents at around 2.5, the amylase will not function when it enters the stomach.
Salivary amylase in saliva breaks down starches into sugars. This process stops in the acidic environment of the stomach where the pH level is too low for amylase to function effectively due to hydrochloric acid.
Explanation:In the human digestive system, salivary amylase is an enzyme in saliva that breaks down starches into sugars. This process takes place in the mouth and continues until the chewed food, now called bolus, reaches the acidic environment of the stomach. The pH level in the stomach, which is around 2.5 due to the presence of hydrochloric acid, is too acidic for salivary amylase to continue functioning effectively. Thus, the activity of salivary amylase is greatly reduced in the stomach.
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A number of older adults have come to attend a wellness clinic that includes both blood pressure monitoring and education about how to best control blood pressure. Which teaching point is most accurate?
Since, the options have not been given the question is incomplete. The complete question is as follows.
A number of older adults have come to attend a wellness clinic that includes both blood pressure monitoring and education about how to best control blood pressure. Which of the leader's following teaching points is most accurate?
a) "Too much alcohol, too little exercise and too much body fat all contribute to high blood pressure."
b) "It's important to minimize the amount of potassium and, especially, sodium in your diet."
c) "High blood pressure is largely controllable, except for those with a significant family history or African Americans."
d) "Hypertension puts you at a significant risk of developing type 2 diabetes later in life."
Answer: a) "Too much alcohol, too little exercise and too much body fat all contribute to high blood pressure."
Explanation:
The excess consumption of alcohol, sedentary lifestyle, obesity, and inadequate intake of potassium can all be responsible for uncontrolled blood pressure or condition of hypertension. Thus people should avoid alcohol consumption, must do exercise regularly to reduce fat and to prevent the blockage of blood vessels with fats and cholesterol. These strategies can help to regulate the high blood pressure.
Answer:
the blood pressure monitoring
Explanation:
Following a few months of noticeably high urine volume, Stephanie's doctor diagnosed her with diabetes insipidus and prescribed her desmopressin, which is a synthetic drug form of vasopressin. A few weeks later, Stephanie accidentally takes two doses instead of one. On that day, what is Stephanie likely to experience?
Stephanie is likely to experience headache, drowsiness, urination problem due to overdose of the drug that same day.
What is the easiest way to identify what distracts you?
Select one:
a. Log your time
b. Read about distractions online
c. Ask others about their distractions
d. Think about distractions during meditation
The easiest way to identify what distracts an individual is by logging or
recording ones time usage.
Logging of time involves various methods and techniques which helps to
determine how time is spent. This can be recorded and closely monitored
daily to obtain an accurate result.
This helps to identify activities done and time taken together with how
leisure time is also spent. When this is determined it's best to employ
methods which will help to maximize time.
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125. If delegated care of a person at increased risk for
infection, you must
Final answer:
Healthcare workers must implement strict hygiene practices, maintain clean facilities, and follow isolation protocols to care for individuals at an increased risk for infection, which helps prevent the spread to others while ensuring the safety and well-being of both the patient and the medical staff.
Explanation:
Care for Individuals at Increased Risk for Infection:
If delegated the care of a person at increased risk for infection, it is crucial to follow a regimented protocol to minimize the risk of infections spreading. This involves ensuring isolated care for such individuals, like Marisa, who was separated from other patients to prevent her infection from transmitting to others. Healthcare staff must practice stringent hand hygiene, routinely disinfect surfaces, and maintain strict cleaning protocols for anything in contact with the patient, reinforcing surface and equipment contamination prevention.
It's also important to support clients who are at high risk of medication-related harm. Such support might include post-discharge contact by a nurse. Hospitals and nursing facilities must have licensed personnel available 24/7 and uphold high care standards. Additionally, healthcare providers should exercise good judgment when ill and maintain personal hygiene and cleanliness with their uniforms.
Specific populations including drug addicts, phlebotomists, and dentists, may have a higher risk of certain types of infection and must take extra precautions. People with chronic conditions or symptoms should always be under the care of a healthcare provider and seek advice on appropriate types of activity. Avoiding direct contact with infectious discharges is also key to preventing infection spread. These guidelines are critical for managing the health and safety of both the patients and healthcare workers.
what ways do you anticipate 3D printing will become even more commonplace in the health care industry? How does 3D printing represent the adaptive face of HMIS?
Customization, precision and accuracy of medical drugs can be achieved with the help of 3D printing.
Explanation:
3D printing has affected the health industry in a great way. Certain drugs are also produced with the help of 3D printing. One of the drugs produced with the help of the 3D printing are for the diseases like hypertension, and diabetes.
The designs of these drugs which are produced with the help of this 3D printing are made precise and accurate. The customization and personalization of the medical drugs can be done with the help of 3D drugs according to need of patients.
Describe the responses of the human ear to sound waves coming from the right side
Answer:
1. An echo can be heard only if the person is in the range of both the sound waves coming directly from the source and the reflected waves and at a distance of more than 16.6 meters in front of the reflecting source.
A person behind the reflecting source will likely not hear an echo. If the interval of time between the instant a sound wave reaches the ear and the instant the reflected wave reaches the ear is less than 0.1 second, the person can’t hear the echo separately from the original sound. Finally, the person can’t be too close to the reflecting surface.
2. Clay tile would be the least efficient because it has the lowest coefficient of absorption (3%). This means that the energy remaining in a reflected wave is 97%, which is very high. (Remember that this is equal to 100 minus the coefficient of absorption). Very little of the sound energy would be absorbed.
3. Infrasonic and ultrasonic vibrations can’t be heard by humans because they’re outside of the range of frequencies that can be detected. Infrasonic vibrations have a lower frequency than can be heard by the human ear; ultrasonic vibrations have a higher frequency than can be heard by the human ear. Infrasonic vibrations can be felt if the amplitude is great enough. Ultrasonic vibrations are utilized in sonar equipment and in applications to detect flaws in steel castings and to remove grease or foreign material from machine-part surfaces.
4. If the sound comes from the right side, the waves reach the right ear before the left ear. If the sound comes from the left side, the waves reach the left ear before the right ear. The difference between the phases of waves reaching both ears is detected by the ears and then interpreted by the brain. If the sound comes from directly above, directly below, directly ahead, or directly behind, the sound waves reach both ears in phase and is interpreted as such by the brain.
Explanation:
The ear is involved with the sound waves that travel through passages and reaches the nerves and brain. When sound waves come from the right direction, then the sound reaches the right ear.
What is an ear?
An ear is an organ of hearing that converts the incoming sound waves into electrical impulses that travel down the passage and reach the brain through the nerves to facilitate hearing.
The sound waves travel through the external, middle, and inner ear before it reaches the brain. The direction of the waves traveling affects the listening and the use of the right and the left ear.
If the sound waves come from the right direction, then the waves will reach the right ear first and will get interpreted by the brain in the same way as the normal sounds travel through the three bones and nerves.
If the sound enters from the left direction, then it reaches the left ear and gets blocked in the right ear similarly, the sound from above below, or in other directions reaches the left and right ear equally.
Therefore, the sound coming from the right side enters the right ear.
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How is the egg transferred from the ovary to the uterus?
A.)through muscle contractions
B.)by using special hairs
C.)by producing estrogen
D.)through secretions of glands
Answer:
The answer is:
B) by using special hairs
Explanation:
Answer:
muscle conractions
Explanation:
help plz :)When a cell undergoes mitosis, what is the result ?
A-four genetically different cells
B-two cells, each containing half of the parent cell genetic information
C- two genetically identical cells
D- four cells created from the combination of two parent cells
Answer:
its c
Explanation:
i jus did it on study island lols
Final answer:
The result of mitosis is two genetically identical cells.
Explanation:
The result of mitosis is C- two genetically identical cells. During mitosis, the parent cell divides to produce two daughter cells that are genetically identical to each other and to the parent cell. This is because the chromosomes equally separate, ensuring that each nucleus in each resulting cell after cell division is genetically identical.
When we're under stress, chemicals that increase memory retention flood our brains.
What is the advantage of this response?
Stress response and memory retention
Explanation:
During a stress response, many neurotransmitters or catecholamines like dopamine, adrenaline, noradrenaline, are released. The catecholamines are hormones which are released and acts as part of the body's fight-or-flight response.
Oversecretion of these catecholamines can hinder the long-term memory. However, these stress hormones do increase the short-term or the immediate recall memory. During an acute or an emotional stress response, the short-term, working, or the recognition memory becomes active.
The acute stress responses activates the sympathetic nervous system and areas of the brain like hippocampus and amygdala. These further improve the cognitive and sensory skills which improves the memory.
This also improves decision making skills to decide what is best during the fight-or-flight response.
Stress-induced chemicals and hormones improve survival by preparing the body for action and enhancing memory retention. This allows individuals to clearly remember and learn from stressful experiences.
When we're under stress, the brain releases chemicals and hormones like adrenaline, cortisol, and glutamate, which prepare our body to face a threat or flee to safety. These stress hormones enhance physiological responses such as increased heart rate, faster breathing, and heightened muscle tension, crucial for survival. Moreover, strong emotions during stress can trigger the release of neurotransmitters that strengthen memory retention, as seen in the flashbulb memory phenomenon, where people remember stressful events clearly.
This response is advantageous because it enhances focus and memory retention, allowing individuals to remember critical details necessary for avoiding future threats.
Malpractice is a type of civil lawsuit that can be filed against counseling professionals for practicing in a manner that leads to
a. injury to a recipient of their services.
b. dissatisfaction with the result of the counseling experience.
c. divorce, when a married couple has sought counseling.
d. the development of new behaviors that are counterproductive to clients, but not injurious.
e. injury to other counselors.
Answer:a. injury to a recipient of their services.
Explanation: Malpractice refers to how the councillor's practice leads to some sort of harm to their clients.
The councillor's advice (practice) has harmed this person. malpractice then means the councillor was negligent in their action or they are guilty of ommission , they didn't do something that might have prevented the injury.
The negligence might be the result of errors in diagnosis or treatments
Answer:
Option A.
Injury to a recipient of their services
Explanation:
In various professions, malpractices can be filed, when various professionals do not show a certain amount of skill and professionalism that their position and level of expertise demands.
Malpractices are usually filed when the behavior of those professionals lead to injury to a recipient of their services. This is usually common in the medical field.
Having an individual lie down and elevate his or her legs after breaking a bone is intended to _________
Explanation:
Answer:
prevent shock
Explanation:
What drug classification is alcohol
A data manager detects an inconsistency in trial data. He/she immediately calls the investigator of the trial at the trial site and asks for clarifications and starts the conversation by saying fraud has been committed. The data manager then sets up an appointment to visit the site and to check all data. Based upon what you learned in this course, did the data manager act as he/she should?
a. No
b. Yes
Answer:
I want to say no they did not act as they should have.
Explanation:
My reasoning is that there is other possibilities than fraud having been committed and could potentially put themselves in a dangerous situation.
(I hope this helps? If not, I wish you good luck! )
No, the data manager did not handle the situation appropriately by accusing the investigator of fraud without proper evidence. Initial steps should involve confidential inquiry and proper data verification processes.
The data manager in the scenario described did not act appropriately by immediately accusing the investigator of fraud. Researchers, like the data manager, have a responsibility to investigate inconsistencies responsibly and preserve the integrity of the research. Proper research conduct would involve a respectful request for clarification and data verification without prematurely asserting fraud which could damage professional relationships and reputations. The data manager should first investigate thoroughly before making any accusations, perhaps through a confidential inquiry that involves examining the data in question and using proper analytic procedures to verify its validity. It is crucial for research integrity that allegations of fraud be supported by solid evidence, and premature accusations can be harmful and unethical.
Which nursing profession does NOT require a Master's degree?
Select one:
a. Certified nurse midwife
b. Registered nurse
c. Certified registered nurse anesthetist
d. Nurse practitioner
What is the best avenue to solving a problem or making a decision?
Solving a problem or making a decision involves a systematic, step-by-step process that includes defining the problem, gathering information, generating and evaluating options, and implementing the chosen solution. It requires creativity and insight, and one's decisions should be based on achieving the highest utility.
Explanation:The best avenue to solving a problem or making a decision involves a systematic, step-by-step approach. This approach often involves the following stages:
Defining the problem: Clearly identify the issue at hand.Gathering information: Compile all necessary data, inputs, and resources that could provide insights into the problem.Generating options: Brainstorm various possible solutions to the problem.Evaluating options: Analyze each potential solution in terms of its advantages and disadvantages.Making a decision: Choose the best solution based on the gathered information and evaluation.Implementing the solution: Put the decision into action and monitor the outcome.Remember that what might be the best solution highly depends on the specific situation and circumstances, and requires a certain amount of creativity and insight. It's important to consider the trade-offs of each solution, and choose the one that provides the highest level of utility or satisfaction.
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Select all that apply. Select all that apply. Cancers with higher numbers of cases will have higher deadliness percentages. Reducing risk factors might decrease the number of cancer cases, but would be unlikely to decrease the cancer deadliness percentages. Cancer of the cervix is the most survivable type of cancer. The combined survivability of all types of cancer is about 65%. Lung cancer is more deadly than cancer of the pancreas.
Answer:
A and D i think that's right
Explanation:
The deadliness of cancer depends on various factors and is not necessarily related to the prevalence of cases. Reducing risk factors can indeed lower both the incidences and mortality rates of certain cancers. Cervical cancer is highly survivable with early detection, combined survivability for all cancer types is about 65%, and lung cancer is particularly deadly, especially due to its links to smoking.
Explanation:Cancers with higher numbers of cases do not necessarily have higher deadliness percentages. The deadliness of a cancer depends on various factors including stage of discovery, available treatments, and individual patient health. It's incorrect to assume that the more common a cancer is, the more deadly it is. In fact, some common cancers like basal cell carcinoma have high rates of successful treatment, while less common cancers can be more deadly.
Reducing risk factors, such as smoking tobacco, eating an unhealthy diet, and not exercising, can decrease the number of cancer cases and also potentially reduce the deadliness of certain cancers. This is because early detection and prevention of cancer can lead to more effective treatments and better survival rates.
Cervical cancer, when detected early through screening, can often be treated successfully, making it one of the most survivable types of cancer, especially in high-income nations where screening is more common. However, it is still a leading cause of cancer death in low-income countries.
The combined survivability rate for all types of cancer is about 65%, which means that, on average, around 65 out of 100 people with cancer will survive the disease. However, this rate can vary greatly depending on the type of cancer and other factors.
Lung cancer is indeed more deadly than many other types of cancer, including pancreatic cancer. It remains the leading cause of cancer death globally, often due to its association with smoking tobacco. It's important to note that the most deadly cancers are not always the most common ones.
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To be well prepared for an internship, always have a pocket application, a cover letter, and a blank ready to submit
Review the offer letter and position description. Give some thought to what you want to get out of your internship experience. Consider learning objectives for your experience and complete a learning plan upon arrival at your internship in conjunction with your supervisor.
Explanation:
Your cover letter exists to tell a company, “Hey, I really, really, really want this internship. Here’s why I want it, and here’s how I’ll help you.” It’s your opportunity to grab a recruiter’s attention and show why you’re the best candidate for the job.The university cites 3-4 months as reasonable, with the intern completing 20-35 hours weekly. Of course, you can also recruit interns for longer periods. Some internships last for an entire year, or for two semesters. In many of these internships, the first semester is unpaid, while the second semester is paidA great internship provides the knowledge and skills required to become successful in a specific career field. Employers spend a great deal of time and money on training their new employees, and they know that they can eliminate a lot of this time by hiring someone with previous knowledge and experience.Answer: it’s resume
Explanation: A P E X
What is people’s first language
Answer:
People-first language, also called person-first language, is a type of linguistic prescription which puts a person before a diagnosis, describing what a person "has" rather than asserting what a person "is."
Explanation:
A patient said her doctor recommended taking 1.5 g of psyllium fiber capsules daily. If the capsules contain 500 mg of psyllium in each one, how many should she take each day?
To meet the recommended dosage of 1.5 g of psyllium fiber, the patient should take 3 capsules daily.
Explanation:To calculate the number of psyllium fiber capsules the patient should take daily, we need to convert the recommended dosage of 1.5 grams into milligrams. Since 1 gram is equal to 1000 milligrams, 1.5 grams would be 1500 milligrams. Next, we divide the total amount of psyllium needed (1500 mg) by the amount of psyllium in each capsule (500 mg) to find the number of capsules. So, the patient should take 3 capsules each day.
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