Answer:
Option (a).
Explanation:
Minute respiratory volume or minute ventilation may be defined as the amount of gas exhaled or inhaled in a minute. Wright respirometer can be used to calculate the minute ventilation.
Minute ventilation can be calculated by the formula:
MRV = TV × Breaths per minute.
Here, MRV is minute respiratory volume and TV is tidal volume.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).
A patient is suspected of having tuberculosis. What type of stain would be the most diagnostic?
a) Spore
b) Gram
c) Acid fast
d) Capsule
e) Methylene Blue
Answer: c) Acid fast
Explanation:
The Tuberculosis or TB is a pulmonary disease characterized by fever, weight loss, night sweats and most of the times a productive cough. In some patients there is cough with blood in the sputum.
It is produced by a bacteria called Mycobacterium tuberculosis who has a rod (bacillus) morphology. Additionally, it has a special component in its cell wall: Mycolic acid, a very long fatty acid.
When there is a presumption of the presence of Tuberculosis, the most inexpensive way to look for it is by taking a sample of sputum or phlegm. Then, it has to be stained with the ACID FAST also called the ZIEHL NEELSEN stain. If there are bright red bacilli, then the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is confirmed.
The mechanism under the therapeutio effect of lovastatin is:
A. inhbiting COx
B. inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase
C. inhibiting thrombin
D. inhibiting Na-"K" ATPase
Answer:
(B). inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase.
Explanation:
Lovastatin is a drug, which is used to reduce risk for cardiovascular diseases and to reduce level of cholesterol in blood.
It works by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase (3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-coenzyme A reductase) enzyme, required for the formation of mevalonate from HMG-CoA.
Mevalonate is building block for the biosynthesis of cholesterol. Hence, lovastatin inhibits cholesterol production by inhibiting synthesis of mevalonate.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Which of the following statements is FALSE about fluid compartments and body fluid composition?
(a) Males generally have more muscle mass and therefore more water content than females
(b) Fluids such as lymph and plasma would be considered transcellul ar fhaids
(c) Nat and CI- are more heavily concentrated in extracellular fluids
(d) Most water inside the body is contained within the intracellular
Answer:
Out of the four given statements, the false statement is
option d)
Explanation:
a) Muscle mass and hence water content is greater in males than in females
b) Transcellular fluid is the portion of total water content in the body which is contained within the lined spaces of epithelial tissue. It is a part of the extracellular fluid which includes plasma and lymph can also be considered as tanscellular fluid.
c) Na+ and Cl- are the major content of extracellular fluids
d) About 60% of water inside the body is contained within extracellular and not in intra cellular.
Most water inside the body is contained within the intracellular is false about fluid compartment and body fluid composition.
What is Fluid compartment and body composition?Fluid compartment refer to fluid present inside all cells of the body which comprises of a compartment system that is largely segregated from other systems by hydrostatic pressure. This pressure help to exert a fluid against a wall.
Body fluid composition is refers to total fluid constituents or materials that are in the body. This involve the percentages of fat, bone, water and muscle in human bodies
Therefore, Most water inside the body is contained within the intracellular is false about fluid compartment and body fluid composition.
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A covalent bond between two atoms is formed as a result of the ________.
(a) sharing of electrons.
(b) transfer of electrons
(c) sharing of protons
(d) transfer of protons
Answer:
A. sharing electrons
Explanation:
A covalent bond consists of the simultaneous attraction of two nuclei for one or more pairs of electrons.
A covalent bond between two atoms is formed as a result of the sharing of electrons.
CHEMICAL BONDING:
Atoms of chemical substances/elements are joined together to form compounds and molecules via chemical bonds. There are different types of chemical bonds that exists between the atoms of elements and they include: covalent bonds, ionic bonds, hydrogen bonds etc. Covalent bonds are chemical bonds formed when atoms share electron pairs. Examples of elements and compounds whose atoms are joined by covalent bond are Cl2, O2, H2, CH4, CO2 etc.Therefore, covalent bond between two atoms is formed as a result of the sharing of electrons.
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Saltatory conduction is associated with which of the following?
A) dendrites
B) myelinated axon
C) unmyelinated axon
D) interneurons
Answer:
I believe it is B.
Explanation:
Hope my answer has helped you and if not i'm sorry.
The respiratory membrane consists of the following except:
a. alveolar wall
b. lymphatic vessel basement membrane
c. epithelial basement membrane of the alveolar wall.
d. capillary basement membrane
e. capillary endothelial cells
Answer:
The answer is B: lymphatic vessel basement membrane.
Explanation:
The respiratory menbrana consists of the following elements:
1- A layer of liquid that covers the alveolus and that contains the substances that decrease the surface tension of the alveolar liquid.
2- The alveolar epithelium composed of fine epithelial cells.
3- A basal epithelial menbrana.
4- An interstitial space between the alveolus and the capillary menbrana.
5- A capillary endothelial menbrana.
The respiratory membrane does not include the lymphatic vessel basement membrane as part of its structure, which makes option b the correct answer to the question.
Explanation:The respiratory membrane consists of the alveolar wall, the epithelial basement membrane of the alveolar wall, the capillary basement membrane, and capillary endothelial cells. The correct answer to the question 'The respiratory membrane consists of the following except' is option b. lymphatic vessel basement membrane. The respiratory membrane is a blood-air barrier that facilitates the simple diffusion of gases such as the exchange of oxygen and CO2 between the alveoli and the blood in the capillaries. It does not include the lymphatic vessel basement membrane as part of its structure.
The region where somatic neurons bind on a skeletal muscle is called:
a) Sarcolemma
b) Plasma membrane
c) Motor end plate
d) Synaptic terminal
e) Synaptic bouton
Answer:
The answer is C: motor end plate.
Explanation:
The region where somatic neurons join a skeletal muscle is known as a motor terminal plate. These plates are formed by an axon and a muscle fiber. Depolarization is produced by a nerve stimulation activating the corresponding muscle; Each muscle has its own motor plate and its corresponding axon.
Icd 10 code for lumbar disc herniation with radiculopathy
Answer:
M 51.1
Explanation:
M or chapter XIII correspond to the musculoskeletical and connective tissue disorders. From M 50-54 are other dorsopathies, M51 are the intervetebral disc disorders.
The ICD-10 code for lumbar disc herniation with radiculopathy is M51.2.
Explanation:The ICD-10 code for lumbar disc herniation with radiculopathy is M51.2. The code M51.2 specifically represents "Other intervertebral disc displacement." It is important to note that ICD-10 codes provide specific classifications for various medical conditions and diagnoses, allowing healthcare providers to accurately document and code patient records.
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What are microvilli/cilia? What are their functions?
Answer:
Many cells in the body have extensions of their cellular menbrana, which depending on their length can be cilia or microvilli, which are the shortest. We see the case, for example, the microvilli found in the small intestine, more abundant at the level of the second and third portions of the intestine, which favors the great absorption of liquids, proteins and nutrients that occur at this level.
Cilia are cellular structures that have a more defined formation and are characterized by their nucleus being made up of proteins and enveloped by the cytosol and plasma menbrana. They are presented as an appendix in the form of hair; We will find these cilia in the cells of the respiratory system and in the reproductive system where they help the mobility of foreign bodies (respiratory system) and the movements of sperm (reproductive system).
A nurse on a medical unit is administering heparin by continuous IV infusion to a client who has a pulmonary embolism. The client’s most recent aPTT is 70 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
a. Increase the IV infusion rate.
b. Decrease the IV infusion rate.
c. Discontinue the IV infusion.
d. Continue the IV infusion.
Answer:
it's wild guess I'm say a is answer
During infection with Salmonella it primarily replicates in the?
a) Intestinal lining
b) Liver cells
c) Macrophages
d) Gallbladder tissues
Answer:
The answer is A intestinal lining
Explanation:
Salmonella typhi is a bacterium that is located in the intestine of the host producing a diarrheal disease that can be acute or chronic, since at the level of the intestine it is usually where we will find it.
What event triggers the opening of the gastroesophageal sphincter?
Peristalsis in the Esophagus event triggers the opening of the gastroesophageal sphincter.
Explanation:
In the esophagus, there are two types of peristalsis occurs.The first one is a "primary peristaltic wave" occurs through which bolus enters esophagus during swallowing. This "wave pushes the bolus down esophagus", into stomach in a wave lasting about 8–9 seconds.The esophageal sphincter in the lower region is separated by both sympathetic and parasymphathetic nerves. The pathways of vagal are a major for the relaxation of reflex of LES and this occurs in LES relaxations.The gastroesophageal sphincter is triggered to open by the act of swallowing and the pressure exerted by the bolus of food. When food nears the stomach, the esophagus distends, leading to the relaxation and opening of the sphincter, allowing food to pass into the stomach. Absence of food pressure keeps the sphincter shut, preventing the reflux of stomach contents into the esophagus.
Explanation:The gastroesophageal sphincter, which is a ring-like muscle located at the stomach end of the esophagus, plays a crucial role in digestive system functioning. This sphincter is activated by the act of swallowing and the pressure exerted by the bolus of food. In specific, during ingestion, a series of contractions move food towards the stomach. When the food bolus nears the stomach, the esophagus distends, which in turn initiates a short reflex relaxation of the gastroesophageal sphincter. This relaxation allows the food bolus to pass into the stomach.
When there is no swallowing or food pressuring the sphincter, it remains shut. This close state of the sphincter prevents the contents of the stomach from traveling up the esophagus, thereby preventing acid reflux or commonly known as 'heartburn’.
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The 14th Amendment to the U.S. Constitution states that no state shall make or enforce any law...(which shall) deny any person with ts jurisdiction _________________
a. freedom to practice his/her religion
b. access to the printed word
c. the equal protection of the laws
d. trial by jury
Answer:
c. the equal protection of the laws
Explanation:
Section 1 of the Fourteenth Amendment establishes the requirements to be a U.S. citizen and some of their civil rights including "the equal protection of the laws." While the 5th Amendment requires the U.S. government to practice equal protection, the 14th Amendment requires states to practice it. The Equal Protection Clause guarantees the same rights, privileges, and protections to all citizens and therefore, it prevents states governments from having a preference to apply or not to apply laws to some individuals and not to others
Which lobe of the cerebrum is involved with vision?
a. frontal
b. occipital
c. temporal
d. insula
Which of the following would interfere most with the ability of an enzyme to catalyze a reaction?
a. Reduced concentration of substrate available
b. Reduced concentration of product available
c. Increased concentration of substrate available
d. A change in the pH
Answer:
d. A change in the pH
Explanation:
Enzymes are defined as biocatalysts that increase the rate of the reactions by decreasing activation energy for those reactions. Most of the enzymes are protein molecules, made up of polymerization of amino acids.
Function of proteins depends on their primary sequence and proper folding. Protein molecules get denatured in unfavorable conditions and they lost their function.
As enzymes are also proteins, change in pH and temperature lead to denaturation of enzyme molecules by changing their active sites (sites where substrate binds).
Hence, from given conditions, change in pH would most affect the ability of enzymes to catalyze a reaction.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
When asthma attacks, the patient can hardly breathe. Which of the following should probably be administered to the patient?
a. norepinephrine, to relax smooth muscle in the bronchioles and increase airflow
b. antihistamine, to counteract the bronchoconstriction caused by histamine
c. ACh, to increase bronchoconstriction
d. a and b are correct
e. a, b and c are correct
Answer:
The answer is D: A and B are correct
Explanation:
During an acute asthmatic crisis it is mandatory to act quickly to improve the ventilation of the patient, the use of bronchodilators and antistamines through the nose, give good results in these conditions, especially in children.
What is Satiety? what kind of foods tend to give more satiety?)
Answer:
Satiety is the sensation that occurs in the body of not needing food intake. It is a mechanism of stability of the organism where the food that passes through the intestine sends an order to the brain, to report that it does not need more nutrients, information that travels through the vagus nerve or X cranial nerve.
The following are some of the foods that produce more satiety:
- Egg
- potato
- fish
- Oatmeal
- whole grains
Answer:
Explanation:
Satiety is a state in which the person feels the satisfaction of feeding and is not able to consume more. It is a state where the hunger of a person gets suppressed after having a meal. The feeling of satiety will influence a person's diet that is how much a person eat and how soon.
The following kind of foods tend to give more satiety:
1. High in protein and fats: The process of digestion of protein and fats in the body is slow so this will help in keeping the stomach full for long time.
2. High in fiber: The foods containing fibers provide bulk to the food, which helps to feel full for longer and slows down the rate of digestion.
3. High in volume: The foods which contain more water and air also delay digestion.
4. Low in energy density: The foods low in calories typically have a lot of water and fiber which keep the stomach full.
The biochemical reactions that degrade molecules such as nutrients are called:
A. anobolic reactions
B. amphibolic reactions
C. amphipathic reactions
D. catabolic reactions
E. near-equilibrium reactions
Answer:
D. catabolic reactions
Explanation:
Metabolism employs catabolic reactions to break down large molecules (nutrients) carbohydrates, fats, proteins as food is ingested. Then they degrade the molecules , being smaller and releasing the energy we need in order to function. The metabolic processes ocurr in all cell of the body.
Catabolism and anabolic reactions are good companions as they occur together.
Final answer:
The biochemical reactions that degrade molecules such as nutrients are known as catabolic reactions. They release energy by breaking down molecules, which contrasts with anabolic reactions that build larger molecules and require energy input.
Explanation:
The biochemical reactions that degrade molecules such as nutrients are called catabolic reactions. These reactions are exergonic, meaning they release energy as they break down molecules into smaller units. Their importance lies in the fact that they provide the energy cells need to perform vital processes. Anabolic reactions, on the other hand, are endergonic, requiring the input of energy to build larger molecules from smaller ones. Since the digestion of food involves the breakdown of molecules to extract energy, the reactions occurring during digestion are catabolic. The role of enzymes is to catalyze both catabolic and anabolic reactions, facilitating biochemical processes at the temperatures and concentrations found within living organisms.
An excitatory neurotransmitter ______ the postsynaptic membrane.
a. depolarizes
b. repolarizes
c. hyperpolarizes
d. does not affect the polarity of
e. moves across channels in
Answer:
Depolarise.
Explanation:
Excitatory post synaptic potential may be defined as the potential that has the ability to fire an action potential. They have an additive effect on the membrane potential.
This post synaptic potential causes the influx of sodium ions and changes the membrane potential towards more negative. They causes the depolarization of the cell.
Thus, the answer is option (a).
An excitatory neurotransmitter a. depolarizes the postsynaptic membrane. Therefore , a. depolarizes is correct .
When an excitatory neurotransmitter binds to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane, it triggers a series of events that lead to a reduction in the membrane's resting potential, making it more likely to generate an action potential.
This depolarization brings the membrane potential closer to the threshold for firing an action potential, enhancing the excitability of the postsynaptic neuron.
In contrast, inhibitory neurotransmitters hyperpolarize the postsynaptic membrane, making it less likely to fire an action potential by moving the membrane potential further from the threshold.
The intricate balance between excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters is essential for proper neural communication and the regulation of neuronal activity in the nervous system.
Neural communication is a complex process that relies on the precise interaction of neurons through synapses.
The transmission of signals from one neuron to another occurs at these specialized junctions, and neurotransmitters play a crucial role in this process.
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The small intestine extends from _______________ to the large intestine for about 6 meters (20 feet). It is suspended in the abdominal cavity by the ___________ which anchors it to the posterior abdominal wall.
Answer:
The answer is 1) Pylorus, 2) Mesentery
Explanation:
The small intestine extends from the stomach at the level of the pylorus, to the large intestine. It is suspended in the abdomen by the mesentery that fixes it to the posterior abdominal wall.
The mesentery is a thin sheet of tissue, continuation of the peritoneum that is made up of two portions, one internal or visceral and the other external or parietal.
It is a clinic where patients with skin ailments are referred to.
a. actinic keratosis
b. biopsy
c. cicatrices
d. dermatitis
e. dermatology
f. keloids
g. pruritus
h. ulcers
i. vesicles
j. emollients
Answer:
e. dermatology
Anorexia nervosa is the chronic fear of:
a. eating.
b. getting fat.
c. being lazy.
d. vomiting.
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: Anorexia nervosa is the chronic fear of:____, would be, B: Getting fat.
Explanation:
Anorexia nervosa, like other such alimentary disorders, is defined as the abnormal fear that people have to gaining weight. In order to prevent it, they resort to all kinds of methods to prevent that from happening. The real problem lies in the distorted way that the person perceives his/her body, with the result always being that they think they are fat. The fear of gaining weight makes them almost paranoid in reducing calorie intake, or getting rid of any calories present, if they have eaten anything at all. The answer is B, because these patients, more than an aversion to food, have an aversion to seeing themselves fat.
Answer:
B getting fat
explanation
differentiate Supraventricular tachycardia vs ventricular tachycardia
Answer:
Ventricular tachycardia:
This tachycardia may be defined as in which the beating of ventricles is not controlled by the sinoatrial node. The heart beating is affected in ventricular tachycardia. The main symptoms of this tachycardia are syncope, dizziness and breath.
Supra-ventricular tachycardia:
This tachycardia may be defined as in which the electrical signals of heart from the upper chamber interferes with the sinoatrial node. The heart beating is increased in supra-ventricular tachycardia. This tachycardia is more commonly found in woman, infants and smokers.
Inversion sprains produce damage to the lateral ligaments:
a. Hip
b. Knee
c. Ankle
Answer:
The correct option is : c. Ankle
Explanation:
A sprain is a damage to the ligaments of a joint. A sprain typically occurs when the joint is stretched beyond its functional range of motion or due to a trauma. Sprains are most common to occur in the ankle joint and wrist joint.
About 70-85% of the ankle sprains are inversion sprains. An inversion ankle sprain happens when the foot is inverted out of its functional range of motion. This type of sprain damages the outer or the lateral ligaments of the ankle.
Give the names of the following body motions produced by muscle actions:
Increases the angel of a joint.
Turns the palm downward.
Decreases the angle of a joint.
Points the toes.
Answer:
Increases the angle of a joint: Extension
Turns the palm downward: Pronation
Decreases the angle of a joint: Flexion
Points the toes (upward): Dorsiflexion
Points the toes (downwards): Plantar flexion
What is the antibody involved in erythroblastosis fetalis?
Answer:
Immunoglobulin G (IgG) molecules
Explanation:
Erythroblastosis also called as Hemolytic disease of fetus and the newborn, is a type of alloimmune condition that advance in the peripartum fetus, when the lgG molecule (antigen released and created by plasma B cells) produced by mother body passes through the wall of the placenta. These antibodies attack antigens the RBCs in fetal circulation resulting in the breaking down and also the destroying of the cells (hemolysis). Reticulocytosis and anemia can be developed by the fetus. This fetal disease ranges from mild to very severe (even death).
A RN is assessing a client's home situation, support systems and resources in preparation for discharge. Which of these observations should be given priority consideration?
Financial status overall
Location of entries, exits, stairs
Distance to the nearest hospital/emergency care
Family's understanding of the client's needs
Answer: The answer is; location of entries, exits, and stairs
Explanation:
The RN should always access the home situation before discharging a patient. The RN should take into account where the stairs, exits, etc are in case the patient is unable to get around in the home. If the patient is unable to walk and lives in a 2 story apartment building and can't manage the stairs, other arrangements must be made.
The family's understanding of the client's needs should be given priority consideration, as it directly impacts the client's safety and post-discharge recovery. Option d is correct.
This is because the family's comprehension directly influences the client's safety and adherence to post-hospitalization care plans. Without adequate understanding, the family might not effectively support the client, which could lead to adverse outcomes.Assessing family understanding is vital as it helps ensure they can assist with medication management, recognize signs of potential complications, and provide emotional support. Moreover, involving the family in the discharge planning process fosters a supportive home environment that can significantly impact the client's overall recovery and well-being.While other factors like financial status, home's physical safety aspects (entries, exits, stairs), and proximity to emergency care are also important, the immediate and ongoing understanding of the client's needs by their family is paramount for a smooth transition and recovery.Complete question as follows:
A RN is assessing a client's home situation, support systems and resources in preparation for discharge. Which of these observations should be given priority consideration?
a. Financial status overall
b. Location of entries, exits, stairs
c. Distance to the nearest hospital/emergency care
d. Family's understanding of the client's needs
Enzymes are:
a. biological catalysts.
b. have peptide nature (proteins).
c. agents that significantly speed up the rate of biochemical reaction.
d. all of the above.
Answer: All of the above.
Explanation:
Enzymes can be defined as the proteins that does nit takes part in the chemical or biochemical reaction but enhances the rate of reaction.
All the enzymes are proteinous in nature and gets denatured at a very high temperature. They are known as catalyst which can increase the rate of reaction by decreasing the activation energy.
Hence, all the given options are correct regarding enzymes.
which of the following is a characteristic of low- context culture
Answer:
Efficiency and speed are valued
Explanation:
Which of the following statements is FALSE about the glomerulus and the processes that occur there?
a. Capsular hydrostatic pressure refers to the pressure of fluid pressing on the capsule and opposes filtration
b. Net filtration pressure in the glomerulus is the difference between forces favoring filtration and forces opposing filtration
c. Blood from the afferent arteriole is filtered by size when it enters the glomerulus because of the many fenestrae.
d. Vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole lowers glomerular filtration rate.
Answer:
The correct answer is option D.
Explanation:
The vasoconstriction or the narrowing of the blood vessels regulate the filtration rate of the glomerulus. The afferent arteriole vasoconstriction decreases the flow of blood to the glomerulus thus, decreases the filtration rate
The vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole increases the glomerular filtration rate due to the increase in the blood level in the glomerular capillaries.
Thus, option D is the correct option.
The false statement about the glomerulus is that vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole lowers the GFR, whereas it actually increases the GFR by increasing the hydrostatic pressure in the glomerulus.
Explanation:The false statement about the glomerulus and the processes that occur there is option (d): Vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole lowers glomerular filtration rate (GFR). Actually, vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole typically increases GFR by increasing hydrostatic pressure within the glomerulus. The net filtration pressure in the glomerulus is indeed the difference between forces favoring filtration and forces opposing filtration, as stated in option (b). In option (a), capsular hydrostatic pressure does oppose filtration by pressing on the capsule's fluid. For option (c), blood from the afferent arteriole is filtered by size as it enters the glomerulus, which is facilitated by the many fenestrae (pores) present that allow the passive diffusion of solutes, except for macromolecules like proteins.