Answer:
544 distinct DNA sequences are there.
Explanation:
DNA contains four nitrogenous bases adenine, thymine, guanine and cytosine.
Total DNA sequences of 5 bases are [tex]4^{5}[/tex]
= 1024 sequences.
Out of 1024 sequence, [tex]4^{3}[/tex] sequence is palindromic sequence (the sequence that can be determined only if the first three sequences are known.
64 sequences are palindromic sequence.
Since, the difference between the sequence and the same sequenced reverse is zero. 960 sequences (1024-64) are reverse of the other 959 sequences.
Distinct DNA sequences can be calculated by:
Distinct DNA sequence = Palindromic sequence + 1/2 (remaining sequences)
= 64+1/2(960)
=544 sequences.
Thus, the distinct DNA sequences are 544.
A(n) _____ force is the overall force on an object after all the forces are added together.
Answer:
Net
Explanation:
A Net force is the overall force on an object after all the forces are added together.
Answer:
The correct answer would be Net force.
Explanation:
A force is the interaction with the object which changes the motion of that particular object when there is no opposed interaction. There are many forces which are present in the atmosphere and have impact on the objects, but such forces cannot be felt until and unless they become severe in nature. There are gravitational force, Wind Force, Frictional Force, etc. All these forces are so small that they can't be felt and the balance of the object is not disturbed. These all forces combine to make the Net Force. So Net Force is the overall force on an object after all the forces are added together.
Check answers.
1. The active site
A. Located in an enzyme (my answer)
B. Is rich in amino acid
C. Is located on a substrate
D. A and B
E. B and C
2. Anabolism is defined as the
A. Sum of all chemical reactions
B. Degradation of polymers in monomers
C. Synthesis of polymers from monomers (my answer)
D. Exchange of elections in chemical reactions
1) A. Located in an enzyme
2) C. Synthesis of polymers from monomers
You're all good!
Answer:
The active site refers to the region present in an enzyme where the binding of the substrate takes place, and the chemical reaction occurs. The amino acids of the enzyme protein combine with the substrate in the active site. Hence, for question 1 the correct answer is option A.
The two kinds of metabolic reactions occur in the cell, that is, catabolism and anabolism. In the anabolic reactions, the energy is consumed, and the small molecules combine to produce the bigger ones. Hence, for question 2 the correct answer is option C.
What is the period during the cardiac cycle when the valves leading to and from the ventricles are completely closed and blood volume in the ventricles remains constant as the walls contract?
Answer: Isovolumetric contraction period.
The isovolumetric contraction phase in the cardiac cycle is the time when both the ventricles' inlet and outlet valves are closed, creating a constant blood volume in the ventricles.
Explanation:The period during the cardiac cycle when the valves leading to and from the ventricles are completely closed and blood volume in the ventricles remains constant as the walls contract is called the isovolumetric contraction phase. During this phase, both the mitral and aortic valves are closed, leaving the ventricles sealed compartments. This phase follows the end of ventricular filling, and precedes the ejection of blood when the aortic valve opens.
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Which of the following is often provided by anthropologists and biologists as a possible explanation for the development of bipedal hominids?
A. Standing upright allowed for sightlines over tall grasses and savannah shrubbery
B. Standing upright allowed for better tree climbing
C. Standing upright allowed for more efficient movement
D. Standing upright allowed for better foraging of tree fruits
Answer:
The answer is C. Standing upright allowed for sightlines over tall grasses and savanna shrubbery
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Answer:
The correct answer is option A-standing upright allowed for sightlines over tall grasses and savannah shrubbery.
Explanation:
Bipedalism or walking upright on two legs departed the hominids- Neanderthals and Homo erectus from four-legged apes. Many reasons were given to support the bipedalism of hominids like:
1. They needed to stand over tall grass to minimize the body exposure to the sun in savannah.
2. They needed to stand over tall grass to increase the sightlines to gather foods for themselves especially females and young ones which required hands to be free.
Thus, option A is the correct option.
Keratin is an intracellular protein. How is it made?
Answer: Formed by intermediate filaments
Explanation:
Keratin belongs to the family of fibrous structural proteins. It is found in abundant amount inside the human body.
Hair constitutes of about 90% of keratin protein. The epidermis is the outer layer of skin which is formed by scale like cells known as epithelial cells and specialized cells known as keratinocytes.
These cells protect the body from the outer damage and is formed by long strands of proteins(intermediate filament) inside the cell, hence called keratin.
This is how keratin is made inside the body.
Assume a population of purple and white flower pea plants (2000 total plants) is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. The frequency of white flower plants is 0.16. On the basis of this information, determine the following:
a. The frequency (decimal form) of heterozygous purple plants. Round to 2 significant digits.
b. The frequency (decimal form) of the dominant allele (1 significant digit).
c. The number of homozygous purple flower plants.
I tried to take 2pg = 2(0.84)(0.16) for part A and got 0.268 (approximately 0.27) for the heterozygous purple flower but that was incorrect.4
Answer:
a) [tex]0.48[/tex]
b)
[tex]p= 0.4\\q=0.6[/tex]
c) [tex]720[/tex]
Explanation:
Given ,
Frequency of white flower plant ([tex]p^2[/tex]) is [tex]0.16[/tex]
Thus, frequency of dominant white allele ([tex]p[/tex]) is equal to [tex]\sqrt{0.16} \\= 0.4[/tex]
As we that, as per Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium equation
[tex]p+q=1[/tex]
Substituting the value of [tex]p[/tex] in above equation, we get
[tex]0.4+q=1\\q=1-0.4\\q=0.6[/tex]
a) As per Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium equation
[tex]p^2+q^2+2pq=1\\[/tex]
Substituting the given and calculated values in above equation, we get -
[tex]0.4^2+0.6^2+2pq=1\\0.16+0.36+2pq=1\\2pq=1-0.16-0.36\\2pq=0.48[/tex]
b) The frequency (decimal form) of the dominant allele
[tex]p= 0.4\\q=0.6[/tex]
c) number of homozygous purple flower plants
[tex]=[/tex] frequency of purple flower plants ([tex]q^2[/tex]) [tex]*[/tex] Number of flowers
[tex]= q^2 * 2000\\= (0.6^2)*2000\\= 0.36 * 2000\\= 720[/tex]
An atom that undergoes radioactive decay and has a large nucleus most likely contains
Answer:
An atom that undergoes radioactive decay and has a large nucleus most likely contains a high neutron-proton ratio.
here is the full questiojn below.
An atom that undergoes radioactive decay and has a large nucleus most likely contains:
(a) a high neutron-proton ratio.
(b) a low neutron-proton ratio.
(c) more protons than electrons.
(d) more electrons than protons.
Answer:
(a) a high neutron-proton ratio
Explanation:
An atom that undergoes radioactive decay and has a large nucleus most likely contains a high neutron-proton ratio. This stance is true because, the neutron–proton ratio of an atomic nucleus is the ratio of its number of neutrons to its number of protons. Among stable nuclei and naturally occurring nuclei, this ratio generally increases with increasing atomic number. This is because electrical repulsive forces between protons scale with distance differently than strong nuclear force attractions. As such, an atom that requires to undergo radioactivity and has large nucleic will most likely contains a high neutron-proton ratio.
Isotopes are atoms with the same atomic number i.e (the same number of protons) but different mass number (i.e number of neutrons). Isotopes are named according to their mass numbers; example chlorine-35, and chlorine-37. Their atomic numbers remain as 17 but neutron numbers differ (35 and 37).
Mike and Veronica are expecting their first child and they are nervous about all of the possible health issues a baby can face. Explain how knowing their family medical history can be useful for Mike and Veronica and their doctors as they prepare for the birth of their child.
The possibles is knowing the Medical history of the family which can
tell you what hereditary diseases the child boy/girl might be strangely have which could tell the doctors what to look for and how to solve the problem if it can be impossible to be fixed, it will also prepare the parents for what their expectations are for the their child and not be so surprised about the whole situation.
conmon disorders=heart disease, high blood pressure, stroke, certain cancers and more.. other..
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Lara spends her days cultivating new hybrid plants that she sells to Jon. Jon uses these plants to feed cattle because the hybrid plants offer better sources of nutrients.
Which most likely explains the jobs of Lara and Jon?
Lara works as a Nursery Manager and Jon works as a Grader.
Lara works as a Plant Scientist and Jon works as a Farmworker.
Lara works as a Forester and Jon works as a Farm Management Adviser.
Lara works as a Landscaper and Jon works as an Environmental Engineer.
Answer:
Lara works as a Plant Scientist and Jon works as a Farmworker.- second choice
Answer:Explained
Explanation:
Lara works as Plant scientist and Jon works as a farm worker as it is given in
question that Lara spends her days cultivating new hybrid plants and a plant scientist do the same job as specified , trying to find a hybrid plant which has
improved qualities than the parent plants.
While Jon has nothing to do with hybrid plant as he only needs rich nutrient fodder.
A common column material used in size-exclusion chromatography is dextran, a polysaccharide of glucose. Which type of interaction most likely occurs between proteins and the dextran column material?
Answer:
Hydrogen bonding
Explanation:
A hydrogen bond is a form of the electrostatic force of attraction which takes place between the hydrogen atom and a more electronegative atom such as nitrogen, fluorine, and oxygen. Hydrogen bond falls in the category of weak forces. In size-exclusion chromatography, the type of interaction that takes place between the proteins and dextran is hydrogen bonding. The hydrogen bonding is possible because dextran, being a polysaccharide of glucose has several hydroxyl groups and thus, they get involved in the hydrogen bonding.The article “Autoimmune Diseases Stopped in Mice” refers to medication that suppresses the immune system. Why does this medication increase the risk of certain cancers?
Answer:Part of the immune system’s job is to control abnormal cells that the body develops. If the immune system is suppressed, abnormal cells can grow and multiply, causing cancerous growths.
Explanation:
Answer:
The correct answer is - it makes the immune system week to detect cancerous cells.
Explanation:
The autoimmune disease is taking place when the immune system works against cells of the body itself. To stooping such diseases immunosuppressive medications are provided to the patient.
These treatments suppress the immune system which stops its function. The immune system becomes less able to detect and destroy the cancerous cells.
Thus, the correct answer is - it makes the immune system week to detect cancerous cells.
The development of the brain continues past childhood. For example, if a monkey pushes a lever with its finger several thousand times a day, the _____ that controls the finger changes as a result of the experience.
Answer:
The development of the brain continues past childhood. For example, if a monkey pushes a lever with its finger several thousand times a day, the Brain tissue that controls the finger changes as a result of the experience.
Which of the functions listed below is/are attributed to various plasma proteins? 1. contribute to blood clotting 2. exert colloid osmotic pressure (to assist the maintenance of water balance) 3. help attack viruses and bacteria 4. function as transport proteins for several steroid hormones 5. transport fat-soluble vitamins 6. transport oxygen
Answer:
The correct answers are options 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
Explanation:
Plasma proteins are the proteins found in blood plasma and exhibit distinct functions, like the conduction of various biochemicals in the circulatory system, maintaining the balance of fluid and levels of electrolyte in the body, regulating osmotic pressure, and others.
Some of the more general plasma proteins found in the plasma of the blood are serum albumin, which helps in maintaining the osmotic pressure and transporting biomolecules around the body. Fibrinogen that helps in the formation of blood clots, and globulins that provides antibodies to fight against bacteria and viruses.
Which of the following are basic components of the Hardy-Weinberg model?
a.) Allele frequencies, number of individuals in the population
b.) Frequencies of two alleles in a gene pool before and after many random matings
c.) Allele frequencies, phenotype frequencies
d.) Allele frequencies in a subset of the population
Answer:
b.) Frequencies of two alleles in a gene pool before and after many random matings
Explanation:
b.) Frequencies of two alleles in a gene pool before and after many random matings
The Hardy-Weinberg model includes two basic components: the allele frequencies and the frequencies of two alleles in a gene pool before and after many random matings.
Explanation:The Hardy-Weinberg model is a principle in population genetics that describes the genetic variation in a population that is not evolving. The basic components of the Hardy-Weinberg model are allele frequencies and the frequencies of two alleles in a gene pool before and after many random matings. Therefore, the correct answer to your question is option b.) Frequencies of two alleles in a gene pool before and after many random matings.
This principle makes two fundamental assumptions - that the population is very large to minimize genetic drift, and there is random mating in the population. It essentially states that the frequency of alleles in a population will remain constant over generations unless acted upon by evolutionary influences such as genetic drift, mutation, migration or selection.
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Competent cells
are able to take up naked DNA.
are antibiotic resistant.
occur naturally.
can be created in the laboratory.
are able to take up naked DNA, occur naturally AND can be created in the laboratory.
Answer: Competent cells are able to take up naked DNA, they occur naturally and can be created in the laboratory
Explanation: Competent cells are cells that can modify its genetic make up and take other DNA using transfomation. Competent cells are commonky made from e.coli because it can replicate faster, readily available for use. DNA is cleavedusing restriction enzymes making up sticky ends.
What is the relevance of osmosis to cellular homeostasis?
Answer:
Osmosis maintains the cellular homeostasis as this allows the exchange of water and other molecules into and out of the cell.
Explanation:
Osmosis may be defined as the solute particles movement from the higher concentration region towards the region of lower concentration through the semi-permeable membrane.
Osmosis is helpful in maintaining the cellular homeostasis. Osmosis balance the ions and water molecules into and out of the cell. Only some selected particles can enter in the cell by the process of osmosis. Electrolytes balance in organisms can be performed by the process of osmosis as it allows the exchange of ions.
What organs develop in the embryo during the 1st month of pregnancy?
Answer:
thus buds that eventually grow into arms and legs are formed in 1st month of pregnancy
While most bacteria are eliminated by antibiotics, some can possess mutations that are resistant to antibiotics, leading to more drug-resistant strains of bacteria. Such a mutation is an example of which of Charles Darwin's proposed criteria for traits to evolve through natural selection?
Answer:
A trait that impart survival advantage to the individuals is favored by natural selection.
Explanation:
According to Darwin, genetic variations are present in natural populations. However, the genetic variations or the traits that increase the survival rates of the individuals are favored by natural selection.
In the given example, antibiotic resistance was favored by natural selection since it increased the survival rates of the bacteria having this trait. Over generations, natural selection of antibiotic resistance led to the evolution of bacterial population with an increased number of bacteria having this trait.
The light reactions of photosynthesis use chemiosmosis to produce ATP that will be used in the Calvin cycle. The electrochemical gradient that drives this chemiosmosis is formed across which structure(s)?
Answer: Thylakoid membrane.
Explanation:
Photosynthesis is a chemical process carried out by plants, algae, and certain microorganisms, whereby solar energy is captured and converted into chemical energy in the form of ATP and organic compounds. During electron transfer, the protons (H +) of the H atoms are sent to the interior of the thylakoids through their membranes, producing an energy gradient. This electrochemical gradient generates enough energy to phosphorylate ADP and produce ATP, similar to the oxidative phosphorylation that occurs in mitochondria. The end products are ATP and NADPH.
Which part of the brain that is associated with the following function:
a. Stimulus interpretation
b. Movement of tongue
c. Walking
d. Muscular movement
e. Respiratory activities
f. Hunger
Answer:
Brain is composed of three main parts: cerebrum, cerebellum and brain-stem.
Stimulus interpretation and speech are controlled by cerebrum. It is the biggest part of brain and performs important functions.
While movement of muscles, walking and movement of tongue is controlled by cerebellum. It is present under cerebrum and performs functions associated with coordination.
Respiratory activities, hunger and other automatic functions of body are controlled by Brain-stem. It connects cerebrum and cerebellum to the spinal cord.
An in vitro experiment involves making observations of events in a
A. test tube
B. growth chamber
c. living organism
D. total vacuum
Answer:
A; test tube
Explanation:
In-vitro is defined as a technique of performing a given procedure in a controlled environment outside of a living organism. It does not correspond to the circumstances you would usually see in a living organism (since it is most likely in a test tube). This means that an in-vitro experiment could not be applied in a growth chamber in which outside/environmental factors affect the whole organism. You can also eliminate C since in vitro is exclusively taken place outside of a living organism. For D, you most likely wouldn't be able to observe much in a total vacuum as organisms work under regular Earth atmospheric conditions and a total vacuum would not accommodate that as it has a lower pressure.
Kinesiology is
a. the science or study of movement, and the active and passive structures involved
b. the science of the morphology or structure of organisms
c. the science concerned with the normal vital processes of animal and vegetable organisms
d. the science concerned with the action of forces, internal, and external, on the living body
e. none of these
Answer:
It could be D or A but D sounds like it explains it better.
Explanation:
Since kinesiology is the study of bodily mechanics.
Answer:
I believe the correct answer is A
According to the cladogram shown, which two animal species shared the most recent common ancestor?
A. Primates and crocodiles
B. Birds and rodents
C. Sharks and birds
D. Birds and crocodiles
Answer:
Birds and Crocodiles (Ans. D)
Explanation:
Birds and Crocodiles shows most recent common ancestor because they are part of much larger group known as Archosauria (ruling lizards). When they both species divided from each others, they divided into 2 major evolutionary pathways:
The bird-line archosours , and the second one is crocodile-line archosours (which includes crocodilians and their ancestors).
So, Crocodiles are the closest living relatives of the birds and they sharing the most common ancestor.
What percentage of people have green eyes?
Answer: 2% of people have green eyes
Explanation:
Guppies living in a stream have a variety of spot patterns, some of which provide good camouflage against the stones in the streambed and others of which make them stand out against the background, allowing potential mates to see them more easily. If a predator that hunted by sight were introduced to the stream, what would be the most likely long-term consequence for the guppy population?
A The number of guppies in the population would decline, although most of the remaining ones would be uncamouflaged.
B The guppy population would devise a mutation that allowed the camouflaged guppies to find mates by scent or sound.
C The guppy population would die out since none of the guppies would be able to find mates.
D The number of camouflaged guppies in the population would increase while the number of successful matings decreased.
Answer:
A The number of guppies in the population would decline, although most of the remaining ones would be uncamouflaged.
Explanation:
The number of guppies in the population would decline, although most of the remaining ones would be uncamouflaged would be the most likely long-term consequence for the guppy population.
Answer:
D. The number of camouflaged guppies in the population would increase while the number of successful matings decreased.
Explanation:
The predator would eat the uncamouflaged guppies, reducing the number of uncamouflaged guppies. At the same time, the number of camoflouged guppies would increase as a large percentage of the camouflaged guppies that would have mates with the uncamouflaged will instead have offspring with the camouflaged guppies. While the number of camouflaged guppies mating will increase, the total number of successful matings will decrease because a large percent of all matings were with uncamouflaged guppies and now that is being severely cut down since the predator is eating all of them.
How does deforestation affect the water cycle
Answer:
Explanation:
Deforestation is a precursor to desertification. A desert is an extremely arid region with little to no rainfall. How does this happen?
Plants contributes a significant proportion of water to the water cycle. During transpiration, water evaporates from the body parts of a plant and this water goes to the atmosphere. The water cools and condenses to form precipitation
When forests are removed, this significant proportion of the water cycle is lost. The water from plants would no longer be available for precipitation. Such an area will suffer drastic changes in the amount of precipitation it receives.
Answer:
It increases the amount of runoff
Explanation:
Protein synthesis in bacterial cells usually starts with a: a. cysteine residue. b. phenylalanine residue. c. formylmethionine residue. d. valine residue. e. methionine residue.
Answer:
c. formylmethionine residue
Explanation:
The initiation codon (5' AUG 3') is present in the P site of the bacterial ribosomes and bind to the tRNA carrying formyl methionine amino acid. The formyl methionine amino acid serves to initiate the process of protein synthesis in bacteria. The initiator amino acid formyl methionine is encoded by genetic code "AUG".
The direct answer is: c. formylmethionine residue.
In bacterial cells, protein synthesis typically begins with a formylmethionine residue.
Formyl methionine, also known as fMet or fMet-tRNA, serves as the initiator amino acid during translation in bacteria. This modified form of methionine contains a formyl group attached to the amino group, making it distinct from regular methionine. The presence of formyl methionine at the beginning of a protein chain allows the ribosome to recognize the start codon and initiate translation. Once the protein synthesis process begins, subsequent amino acids are added to the growing polypeptide chain. However, it's important to note that in some bacteria, particularly mitochondria, the initiation amino acid can be methionine instead of formyl methionine.
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Cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division include all of the following EXCEPT ________. a. weak dilation of the blood vessels of skeletal muscles during exercise b. constriction of most blood vessels c. increase of heart rate and force d. dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera
Answer:
d. dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera.
Explanation:
Cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division include all of the following EXCEPT dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera.
The sympathetic division of the nervous system involves increasing heart rate, constricting most blood vessels, and dilating blood vessels serving skeletal muscles. It does not include the dilation of blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera, which belongs to the parasympathetic division.
Explanation:The cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division of the nervous system, part of the body's fight or flight response, include several responses geared towards preparing the body for immediate action. These effects include an increase in heart rate and force, constriction of most blood vessels, and the dilation of blood vessels serving skeletal muscles- to improve oxygen supply during exercise. However, the sympathetic division does not include the dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera. This option is part of the parasympathetic division, which occurs when the body is in a state of rest and digestion.
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The process of protein denaturation Multiple Choice: a) is only possible in proteins with quaternary structure. b) is permanent and irreversible. c) changes the form of a protein, but not its function. d) is temporary and reversible.
Answer:
The correct option is D.
Explanation:
Protein generally are very sensitive macro molecules; they have specific temperatures and pH that are ideal for their operations, this is especially true for proteins that act as enzymes in biochemical reactions.
There are four different types of structures that a protein can assume, these are primary, secondary, tertiary and Quaternary structure. The structure of a protein determines the kind of function it can perform.
There are some factors that can destroy the structure and functions of proteins, these include excessive heat and pH. A protein is said to be denatured when its secondary and tertiary structure have been disrupted or destroyed. Denaturation does not affect the primary structure of the protein, thus, the peptide bond remains intact.
Denaturation is usually temporary and can be reversed if the factors that cause denaturation is removed, this process is called RENATURATION. Renaturation process allow the protein to refold and resume its functions. But sometimes, denaturation can be permanent and irreversible leading to permanent loss of protein functions.
Protein denaturation involves changes in the protein structure leading to loss of its function, which could involve changes in its secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure. This process, often triggered by changes in temperature or pH, or exposure to chemicals, may be reversible or irreversible depending on the circumstances.
Explanation:The process of protein denaturation involves changes in the protein structure which can result in the loss of its shape, and in turn, its function. This process can be triggered by changes in temperature, pH, or exposure to certain chemicals, with some instances resulting in the loss of the protein's secondary, tertiary, and even quaternary structure. One everyday example of this is when an egg is fried: the albumin protein in the egg white is denatured, changing from a clear substance to an opaque white one.
Interestingly, not all proteins denature under high temperatures. For instance, certain bacteria that survive in hot springs possess proteins that are adapted to function at those temperatures. Similarly, the stomach, which is very acidic, denatures proteins as part of its digestion process, but the enzymes involved in the process retain their functions despite operating under such conditions.
Protein denaturation is often reversible, as the primary structure of the polypeptide is preserved, meaning if the denaturing agent is removed, the protein can sometimes regain its shape and resume its function. However, there are instances when denaturation is irreversible, resulting in the permanent loss of function.
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Which of the following is a function of a signal peptide?
A) To bind RNA polymerase to DNA and initiate transcription
B) To direct mRNA molecules into the cisternal space of the ER
C) To terminate translation of the messenger RNA
D) To translocate polypeptides across the ER membrane
Answer:
D) To translocate polypeptides across the ER membrane is a correct answer.
Explanation:
The signal peptide is a short stretch of amino acids, present at N terminus of nascent protein.
Function of a signal peptide is to guide the protein where to go and is to transport the protein to the ER membrane.
When the protein is reserved for the secretion, then signal peptide guide the protein to translocate polypeptides across the Endoplasmic membrane, where it get mature and prepare for the secretion.
Thus option(D)To translocate polypeptides across the ER membrane is correct answer.
A signal peptide's function is to direct the translocation of polypeptides across the ER membrane by interacting with the SRP and the ER docking complex.
The correct function of a signal peptide is to direct the translocation of polypeptides across the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) membrane. As a nascent polypeptide is being synthesized by a ribosome, the signal sequence at the N-terminus of the polypeptide emerges first and is recognized by a signal recognition particle (SRP). This interaction leads to a pause in translation and facilitates the docking of the ribosome to the ER membrane. Once docked, translation resumes, and the polypeptide is translocated into the ER lumen through a protein pore.