The merchandise inventory turnover for Feemster Company in 2012 was 8 times; this was calculated by dividing the cost of goods sold, which was $1,400,000, by the average inventory amount of $175,000.
Explanation:To calculate the merchandise inventory turnover rate for Feemster Company in 2012, we need to use the formula:
Inventory Turnover = Cost of Goods Sold / Average Inventory
First, we find the average inventory for the year:
Average Inventory = (Beginning Inventory + End Inventory) / 2
Average Inventory = ($155,000 + $195,000) / 2
Average Inventory = $175,000
Then, we use the Cost of Goods Sold and Average Inventory to calculate the inventory turnover:
Inventory Turnover = $1,400,000 / $175,000
Inventory Turnover = 8 times
Thus, the inventory turned over 8 times during the year 2012.
A business student conjectures that the Internet caused companies to become more profitable, since many transactions previously handled “face-to-face” could now be completed online. The student compares earnings from a sample of companies from the 1980s to a sample from the 2000s. Explain why this is an observational study. If indeed profitability increased, can she conclude the Internet was the cause? Why or why not?
The study is observational because it compares profitability between the 1980s and 2000s without altering any variables. Increased profitability cannot be solely attributed to the Internet due to numerous other potential contributing factors, which means causation cannot be established from this correlation.
Explanation:The study conducted by the business student is an observational study because it examines data from existing records of company earnings without manipulating any of the variables such as internet usage or other business practices. The student simply observes the differences in profitability before and after the widespread use of the internet.
If profitability did indeed increase in the time frame that coincides with the adoption of the Internet, the student cannot conclusively attribute the rise in profitability solely to the Internet. This is because observational studies do not establish causation but rather show correlation. There could be other contributing factors such as globalization, changes in consumer behavior, or improvements in business processes that may have influenced the companies' profitability.
Furthermore, the increased competition and the ability to reach a global market, both outcomes of advances in technology and globalization, could have spurred companies to optimize productivity, resulting in higher profits. This observation supports the idea that while the Internet may have been one of the contributing factors to increased profitability, it cannot be declared as the definitive cause without ruling out other variables.
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Assume the demand function for basketballs is given by QD = 150 −3P + 0.1I, where P = price of a basketball, and I = average income of consumers. Also, assume the supply of basketballs is given by QS = 2P. If the market for basketballs is perfectly competitive, and the average income is equal to $1,500, what is the equilibrium price and quantity? What if a 20 percent income tax is introduced?
Answer: (1) Equilibrium price = 60 and Equilibrium quantity = 120, when I = $1500.
(2) Equilibrium price = 54 and Equilibrium quantity = 108, when I = $1200.
Explanation:
(1) When Average income (I) = $1500
At equilibrium, QD = QS
150 - 3p + 0.1I = 2p
150 - 3p + 0.1 × 1500 = 2p
5p = 300
p = [tex]\frac{300}{5}[/tex]
p = 60
q = 2p ⇒ 2 × 60 = 120
Hence, p and q are equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity, respectively.
(2) If 20% income tax is introduced then Average income (I) = $1500 - 20% of $1500 ⇒ $1500 - $300 = $1200
At equilibrium, QD = QS
150 - 3p + 0.1I = 2p
150 - 3p + 0.1 × 1200 = 2p
5p = 270
p = [tex]\frac{270}{5}[/tex]
p = 54
q = 2p ⇒ 2 × 54 = 108
Hence, p and q are equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity, respectively.
Final answer:
To calculate the equilibrium price and quantity for basketballs, we set the demand function equal to the supply function, using the provided income. Initially, with no tax, the equilibrium price is $60, and the quantity is 120 basketballs. Introducing a 20% income tax affects consumers' income and demand, thereby potentially adjusting the equilibrium again.
Explanation:
To find the equilibrium price and quantity for basketballs, given the demand function QD = 150 −3P + 0.1I where I is income ($1500), and the supply function QS = 2P, we set QD equal to QS to solve for the equilibrium. Plugging the average income value into the demand function yields QD = 150 −3P + 0.1(1500), simplifying to QD = 150 −3P + 150. Setting this equal to the supply function gives 150 −3P + 150 = 2P, leading to 5P = 300, so P = 60. The equilibrium quantity (Q) is found by plugging the price back into either the supply or demand equation, resulting in QS = 2(60) = 120, thus, the equilibrium price is $60, and the equilibrium quantity is 120 basketballs.
Introducing a 20 percent income tax on the average income of $1500 reduces this to $1200 (after tax income). Re-calculating with the new income in the demand function gives QD = 150 −3P + 0.1(1200) or QD = 150 −3P + 120. Setting this equal to the supply again gives a new equilibrium. However, without explicit calculations for the new equilibrium with the tax, we understand the process involves substituting the adjusted income into the demand function, solving for P and Q as before. The introduction of the tax essentially shifts the demand curve leftward, likely lowering the equilibrium quantity and potentially changing the equilibrium price depending on the degree of the shift.
View each of the below-listed provisions that are often contained in bond indentures alone. Which of these provisions would tend to REDUCE the yield to maturity that investors would otherwise require on a newly issued bond?1. Fixed assets are used as security for a bond.2. A given bond is subordinated to other classes of debt.3. The bond can be converted into the firm's common stock.4. The bond has a sinking fund.5. The bond has a call provision.6. The indenture contains covenants that restrict the use of additional debt.A. 1, 3, 4, 6B. 1, 4, 6C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6D. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6E. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
Final answer:
Provisions in a bond indenture impact the risk and therefore the yield required by investors. Provisions that secure the debt, allow conversion to stock, provide for a sinking fund, or limit additional debt issuance tend to reduce the required yield.
Explanation:
Bonds are debt securities that provide an avenue for corporations to raise capital. Bond provisions influence investor perception of risk, which in turn affects the yield to maturity that investors require. The yield to maturity is the total return anticipated on a bond if the bond is held until it matures. Let's examine the given bond provisions and their potential impact on yield to maturity:
Fixed assets as security (1) provide a guarantee which reduces risk, thereby likely reducing the yield required by investors.A subordinated bond (2) ranks lower in claim than other debts in the case of a liquidation, increasing risk and thus, typically requiring a higher yield.A convertible bond (3) allows investors to convert the bond into stock, often above the bond's nominal value, which is an attractive option that can reduce the required yield.A bond with a sinking fund (4) provides for periodic repayment before maturity, reducing risk and potentially the yield required.A bond with a call provision (5) can be retired early by the issuer, often in a lower interest rate environment, which increases risk for investors and the expected yield.Restrictive covenants (6) limit the issuer's ability to take on additional debt, protecting the bondholder's interests and possibly reducing the yield required.Considering the provisions that would tend to reduce the yield to maturity, we can conclude that options 1, 3, 4, and 6 would have this effect. Therefore, the correct choice of provisions is A. 1, 3, 4, 6.
The poverty rate in the United States is defined as the proportion of the population that fails to earn a ____ absolute income standard. Poverty rates in the United States have largely ____ since the year 2000.
Answer:
The correct answer is : minimum; risen.
Explanation:
The poverty rate can be defined as the rate of population in a certain age gap who fail to earn a given minimum absolute income.
The census bureau updates the poverty threshold annually. People below this threshold level are considered poor.
According to the data from US census bureau the poverty rate in 2000 was 11.3%. In 2010, it was 15.1%. Though it fell to 13.5% in 2015 it is still higher than that in 2000.
So, we can conclude that poverty rate has increased largely since the year 2000.
Which of the following would most likely be treated as an activity in an activity-based costing system? direct materials cost sales revenues machine processing direct labor cost
Answer: the correct answer is machine processing
Explanation:
Activity-based costing (ABC) is an accounting method that identifies and assigns costs to overhead activities and then assigns those costs to products. Indirect costs, such as management and office staff salaries, are sometimes difficult to assign to a product.
A grocery store chain recently rolled out a customer loyalty program that sends the customer a $5 coupon towards their next purchase for every $250 they spend at the store. This is an example of strategic use of bargaining power of suppliers True False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
The bargaining power of suppliers (Term of Michael Porter) is a force that shapes the competitive structure of a market.
It represents the way of put pressure by raising the prices or lowering the quality or quantity of the product. This power makes the buyer profits decrease.
In your case, this is a policy set to the customer, and it is not increasing the price, decreasing quantity or lowering the quality.
It is more policy to induct loyalty from the customer to purchase again from the grocery store.
A grocery store chain recently rolled out a customer loyalty program that sends the customer a $5 coupon towards their next purchase for every $250 they spend at the store. This is an example of strategic use of bargaining power of suppliers is the false statement.
Supplier bargaining power, to use Michael Porter's term, is a factor that affects how a market is competitively structured.
It stands for the method of applying pressure by raising prices or diminishing the product's quality or quantity. The buyer earnings fall as a result of this power. In this case, this is a customer-set policy; a price increase, a decrease in supply, or a drop in quality are not involved.
It is increasingly common practice to reward customers for their loyalty by having them make additional grocery purchases.
Thus, it is a false statement.
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George's Chemicals allocates overhead based on machine hours. Selected data for the most recent year follow. Estimated manufacturing overhead cost $235,300 Actual manufacturing overhead cost $244,800 Estimated machine hours 20,000 Actual machine hours 22,700 The estimates were made as of the beginning of the year, while the actual results were for the entire year. The predetermined manufacturing overhead rate per machine hour is closest to (Round your answer to the nearest cent.)
Answer:
Overehad Rate $11.765
Explanation:
[tex]\frac{Cost\: Of \:Manufacturing \:Overhead}{Cost \:Driver}= Overhead \:Rate[/tex]
Estimated manufacturing overhead cost $235,300
Estimated machine hours 20,000
Overehad Rate $11.765
This means for every hours the machine are working, 11.76 dollars of MOH are generated.
The question if for the predeterminated rate, all the actual data is irrelevant.
Remember : The overhead rate is done by the dividision of the cost over a cost driver, which generally is labor hours or cost or machine hours.
The predetermined manufacturing overhead rate per machine hour is calculated by dividing the estimated manufacturing overhead cost by the estimated machine hours, which in this case is $11.77 per machine hour.
The question is asking to calculate the predetermined manufacturing overhead rate per machine hour. To find this, we need to divide the estimated manufacturing overhead cost by the estimated machine hours.
The formula to calculate the predetermined overhead rate is:
Estimated Manufacturing Overhead Cost ÷ Estimated Machine Hours = Predetermined Overhead Rate
Using the data provided:
$235,300 ÷ 20,000 hours = $11.77 per machine hour
Therefore, the predetermined manufacturing overhead rate per machine hour is $11.77, rounded to the nearest cent.
Warner Company’s year-end unadjusted trial balance shows accounts receivable of $99,000, allowance for doubtful accounts of $600 (credit), and sales of $280,000. Uncollectibles are estimated to be 1.5% of accounts receivable. 1. Prepare the December 31 year-end adjusting entry for uncollectibles.
Answer:
bad debt expense 885 debit
allowance for doubtful accounts 885 credit
Explanation:
expected uncollectibles
1.5% of AR = 99,000 x 1.5% = 1,485
current balance credit (600)
Adjustment 885
When calculating over account receivable, we stimated the allowance so we have to adjsut for the diference.
The year-end adjusting entry for uncollectibles is given in the image below.
What is journal entry?Journal entry is the systematic record of all the financial transactions, that shows all the transactions of the business incurred in a particular period of time.
It is the primary recording of all the transactions related to the money only.
Computation of amount of expected uncollectibles:
According to the given information,
The amount of expected uncollectibles are:
[tex]1.5\% \text{of} \text{Accounts Receivable}- \text{Currect Balance Credit}[/tex]
[tex]= 1.5\% \times \$99,000- 600\\=\$885[/tex]
Therefore, the amount of expected uncollectibles are 885.
Refer, the image given below for the adjustment entry of the expected uncollectibles.
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In 2018, the Barton and Barton Company changed its method of valuing inventory from the FIFO method to the average cost method. At December 31, 2017, B & B's inventories were $32.6 million (FIFO). B & B's records indicated that the inventories would have totaled $24.1 million at December 31, 2017, if determined on an average cost basisIgnoring income taxes, what journal entry will B & B use to record the adjustment in 2018?
Answer: The journal entry is as follows:
Explanation:
Given that,
Barton and Barton company's inventories were $32.6 million at December 31st, 2017
But the records of B and B's company indicated that inventories would have totaled $24.1 million December 31st, 2017
Therefore, the journal entry for the adjustment in the records of B and B's company in 2018 is as follows:
Debit Credit
Retained Earnings A\c $8.5 million
To Inventory $8.5 million
Retained Earnings = $32.6 million - $24.1 million
= $8.5 million
Final answer:
To adjust for the change from FIFO to average cost method, B & B would debit the Inventory Valuation Adjustment Account and credit the Inventory Account by $8.5 million, reducing inventory value on the balance sheet.
Explanation:
The Barton and Barton Company switched inventory valuation from the FIFO (First-In, First-Out) method to the average cost method. Due to this change, the inventory's value also changed. As of December 31, 2017, using FIFO, inventory was valued at $32.6 million, but at the same time, had B & B used the Average Cost method, the inventory would be valued at $24.1 million. This indicates an $8.5 million overstatement in its inventory value using FIFO.
The journal entry to record the adjustment in 2018 would be as follows:
Debit Inventory Valuation Adjustment Account for $8.5 millionCredit Inventory Account for $8.5 millionThis entry would reduce the inventory value on the balance sheet to reflect the valuation change. Ignoring income taxes, there are no associated tax effects to consider in this journal entry.
Easter Egg and Poultry Company has $1,710,000 in assets and $698,000 of debt. It reports net income of $196,000. a. What is the firm’s return on assets? (Enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.) b. What is its return on stockholders’ equity? (Enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.) c. If the firm has an asset turnover ratio of 3.5 times, what is the profit margin (return on sales)? (Enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)
Answer:
a) Firm’s return on assets = 11.46 %
b) Return on stockholders’ equity = 19.37%
c) Profit margin = 3.27%
Explanation:
a) Return on assets = [tex]\frac{Net Income}{Total Assets} X 100[/tex]
= [tex]\frac{196,000}{1,710,000} X 100 = 11.46 percent[/tex]
b) Return on stockholder's equity = [tex]\frac{Net income}{Equity} X 100[/tex]
Equity =Total assets - Debt = $1,710,000 - $698,000 = $1,012,000
Return on equity = [tex]\frac{196,000}{1,012,000} X100 = 19.37 percent[/tex]
c) Asset Turnover ratio = [tex]\frac{Net Sales}{Total Assets}[/tex] = 3.5
then Net sales = 3.5 X Total Assets = = 3.5 X $1,710,000 = $5,985,000
Profit margin = [tex]\frac{Net profit}{Net sales} X 100 [tex]= \frac{196,000}{5,985,000} X 100 = 3.27 percent[/tex]
a) Firm’s return on assets = 11.46 %
b) Return on stockholders’ equity = 19.37%
c) Profit margin = 3.27%
Final answer:
The firm's return on assets is 11.46%, its return on stockholders' equity is 19.37%, and the profit margin is 3.28% Approx.
Explanation:
To calculate the return on assets (ROA) for Easter Egg and Poultry Company, we divide the net income by the total assets and multiply by 100 to get a percentage:
ROA = (Net Income / Total Assets) × 100
ROA = ($196,000 / $1,710,000) × 100
ROA = 11.46%
To calculate the return on stockholders' equity (ROSE), we first need to determine the stockholders' equity by subtracting total debt from total assets. Then divide the net income by the stockholders' equity and multiply by 100 to get a percentage:
Stockholders' Equity = Total Assets - Total Debt
Stockholders' Equity = $1,710,000 - $698,000
Stockholders' Equity = $1,012,000
ROSE = (Net Income / Stockholders' Equity) × 100
ROSE = ($196,000 / $1,012,000) × 100
ROSE = 19.37%
For the asset turnover ratio, we have the formula:
Asset Turnover Ratio = Sales / Total Assets
Given an asset turnover ratio of 3.5 times, to find the profit margin (or return on sales), we need to divide net income by sales. We have the ratio of assets to sales, so we can use it to find sales:
Sales = Asset Turnover Ratio × Total Assets
Sales = 3.5 × $1,710,000
Sales = $5,985,000
Profit Margin = (Net Income / Sales) × 100
Profit Margin = ($196,000 / $5,985,000) × 100
Profit Margin = 3.28% Approx.
6. A promoter: A. may have liability on the contracts he negotiates on behalf of the prospective corporation. B. does not hold any liability to third parties on preincorporation contracts. C. automatically becomes one of the initial directors of the corporation. D. is not liable on a preincorporation contract after the corporation’s adoption of the contract.
Answer:
The correct answer is A. may have liability on the contracts he negotiates on behalf of the prospective corporation.
Explanation:
The function of the promoter is basically to do a preliminary work incidental to the formation of a company, in which it is included the promotion, incorporation, and flotation, and this person is also in charge of soliciting people to invest money in the company, usually when the company is starting the business.
Flynn, Inc. is considering a four- year project that has an initial outlay or cost of $80,000. The future cash inflows from its project are $40,000, $40,000, $30,000, and $30,000 for years 1, 2, 3 and 4, respectively. Flynn uses the internal rate of return method to evaluate projects. What is the approximate IRR for this project?
Answer:
The IRR for this project is 28.88%
Explanation:
The Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is that rate of return in which the Net present value (NPV) of the project is zero.
Where, Net Present value is that value in which the initial investment and cash outflows after applying discount factor is equal.
The Internal rate of return is calculated by using the Excel formula:
= IRR (-initial investment, all cash outflows)
The computation is shown in the attachment sheet.
Thus, the IRR for this project is 28.88%
Used Car Problems. ABC Motors sold a used car to Frank, who wrote a bad check for the car and left town but not before he sold the car to Betty, who paid $1,100 (a fair price for the car) believing that Frank had all rights to sell it. ABC Motors asked Frank to return the car, but he told them that he already sold it to Betty. What kind of title did Frank have?
Answer:
Frank had a voidable title, since he committed fraud by paying for the car with a bad check.
Explanation:
A voidable title is a title that can be voided by the grantee (ABC Motors) but is a valid title until voided. The grantee can void the title if some irregularity occurred during the transaction, e.g. fraud by paying with a bad check.
But the title passed to Betty is a good title, since she was an innocent good faith buyer and when she purchased the car the title had not been voided.
On its 2017 balance sheet, Walgreens Boot Alliance, Inc., reports treasury stock at cost of $4,934 million. The company has a total of 1,172,513,618 shares issued and 1,082,986,591 shares outstanding. What average price did Walgreens pay for treasury shares?
Answer:
$57.02 Average price per share in treasury Stock
Explanation:
Treasury Stock in dollars 4,934M
[tex]\frac{Treasury \: Stock_{dollars}}{Treasury \: Stock_{shares}} \\Where:\\issued - outstanding = Treasury \: Stock_{shares}[/tex]
1,172,513,618 - 1,082,986,591 = 89,527,027 TS in shares
4,934,000,000/89,527,027 = 57.02264565
$57.02 Average price per share in treasury Stock
Walgreens Boot Alliance, Inc. paid an average price of $55.10 for each treasury share, calculated by dividing the total treasury stock cost of $4,934 million by the number of treasury shares, which is 89,527,027.
For calculating the average price Walgreens paid for its treasury shares. Walgreens Boot Alliance, Inc. reports treasury stock for $4,934 million and has 89,527,027 treasury shares (calculated as 1,172,513,618 issued shares minus 1,082,986,591 outstanding shares). To find the average price paid for treasury shares, divide the total cost by the number of treasury shares.
Average price paid for treasury shares = Total Treasury Stock Cost / Number of Treasury Shares
= $4,934 million / 89,527,027 shares
= $55.10 per share (rounded to two decimal places)
Therefore, Walgreens paid an average of $55.10 for each treasury share it purchased.
Several months after the reorganization, Jim Umpleby checks in with department managers to see how their employees are handling the changes Several managers comment that everything must be okay because they haven't heard anything from their employees about the reorganization. Which of the following are methods that Caterpillar could implement in order to hear what employees throughout the organization are thinking and feeling? Check all that apply. Plan surprise visits to office locations Hold town hall meetings with employees Send a voice message to all employees providing updates on the successes of the reorqanization Write a blog which allows for reader comments
Caterpillar could implement town hall meetings, a blog with reader comments, and surprise office visits to hear what employees think and feel after the reorganization.
Explanation:Caterpillar could implement several methods to hear what employees throughout the organization are thinking and feeling after the reorganization. They can hold town hall meetings with employees to provide a platform for open communication and gather feedback. They can also write a blog that allows for reader comments, giving employees an opportunity to share their thoughts. Moreover, they can plan surprise visits to office locations to interact with employees directly.
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Caterpillar could implement surprise visits to offices, town hall meetings, and a blog which allows for comments to hear employee thoughts after reorganization. Additional method could also include regular internal surveys.
Explanation:There are several methods Caterpillar could implement to understand the thoughts and feelings of employees post-reorganization. Firstly, the idea to plan surprise visits to office locations could be effective. These visits could provide a chance for unfiltered conversation between management and employees, offering insights into the effect of the changes. Secondly, holding town hall meetings with employees is a well-known method for hearing broad concerns and ideas. These meetings could be a platform for open-ended conversation about the reorganization. Thirdly, writing a blog with the ability for reader comments would also provide an outlet for candid feedback.
However, a strategy that was not mentioned in the question but could also be beneficial is distributing regular internal surveys to garner candid feedback about the reorganization. This would accommodate for employees who may not feel comfortable voicing their thoughts in public.
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Brown Corp., a calendar-year taxpayer, was organized and actively began operations on July 1, 2013, and incurred the following costs:Legal fees to obtain corporate charter$45,000Commission paid to underwriter30,000Other stock issue costs15,000Brown wishes to amortize its organizational costs over the shortest period allowed for tax purposes. In 2013, what amount should Brown deduct for the amortization of organizational expenses (excluding any immediate expensing allowed)?
Answer:
The amount of amortized organizational expenses for the year 2013 would be $6,333 ( approximately )
Explanation:
First of all the important point here to note is that while calculating the amortized organizational cost we only include the legal fee for drafting the corporate charter and not the commission paid to underwriter or cost incurred while selling the stock.
In the legal fee for corporate charter too there are limitations , as only $50,000 are allowed as total expenditure to be amortized over a period of 15 years or 180 months. Where for the first year the limitation allowed is $5000 and rest of the amount would be amortized over 180 months.
So $45,000 - $5000 = $40,000
$40000 / 180 = $222.22
Now multiplying this by 6 months as the operations of company began on 1 July , 2013,
$222.22 x 6 = $1333.32
Now adding this amount to $5000 will give us the total amortized organizational expense,
$5000 + $1333.32 = $6,333.32
= $6,333 ( approximately )
On September 30, World Co. borrowed $1,000,000 on a 9% note payable. World paid the first of four quarterly payments of $264,200 when due on December 30. In its income statement for the year, what amount should World report as interest expense?
Answer:
It would report 21,778 on interest expense
Explanation:
Because it is the first payment, we can use the compoun interest formula
[tex]Principal * (1+ r)^{time} = Amount[/tex]
[tex]$Amount - Principal = Interest Paid[/tex]
[tex]1,000,000 * (1+ 0.09)^{1/4} =1,021,778 [/tex]
[tex]1,021,778- 1,000,000= 21,778[/tex]
The rest of the cuota would be amortization of the principal
It is important to do not split the interest in four because the interest are decreasing over the course of the note life. That's because along with the interest accrued during the period World Co. is also paying a portion of the principal
The interest expense reported at the end of the year by World Co. would be $14,200, which is the interest portion of the first quarterly payment. Only this payment is considered as this is the only payment made in the year.
Explanation:The question asks for the amount that World Co. should report as an interest expense in its income statement for the year. World Co. borrowed $1,000,000 on a 9% note payable. This results in a total of $90,000 in interest for the year ( $1,000,000 * 0.09). Each quarterly payment includes both principal and interest. If the first payment was $264,200, subtracting the principal repayment ($1,000,000/4, which is $250,000), we get an interest payment of $14,200 ($264,200 - $250,000) for the first quarter. As World Co. only made a payment in the first quarter, the interest expense reported at the end of the year would be $14,200.
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Manipulation Manufacturing's (AMM) standards anticipate that there will be 5 pounds of raw material used for every unit of finished goods produced. AMM began the month of MayMay with 8,000 pounds of raw material, purchased 25,500 pounds for $ 15,300 and ended the month with 7,400 pounds on hand. The company produced 4,9004,900 units of finished goods. The company estimates standard costs at $ 1.10 per pound. The materials price and efficiency variances for the month of MayMay were:
Answer:
price variance: 13,050 favorable
quantity variance: -1,760 unfavorable
Explanation:
standard quantity 5
standard price 1.1 per pound
actual quantity for 4900 units
[tex] beginning \: inventory + purchases = ending \: inventory + used[/tex]
8000 + 25,500 -7,400 = 26,100 pounds
standard quantity 4,900*5= 24,500
actual price 15,300/25,500 = 0.60
standard price = 1.10
[tex]price \: var = actual \: pounds(STD \: price - actual \: price)[/tex]
[tex]26100(1.1 - 0.6) = 13050 \: favorable[/tex]
Because actual is lower than STD the company saved money spending. It is favorable.
[tex]quantity \: var = STD \: price(STD \: quantity - actual \: quantity)[/tex]
[tex]1.10(24500 - 26100) = - 1760 \: unfavored[/tex]
Because the company used more pounds than STD the quantity variance is unfavorable
The materials price variance for Manipulation Manufacturing for the month of May was -$13,410 unfavorable, while the materials efficiency variance was -$1,760 unfavorable.
Explanation:To calculate the materials price and efficiency variances, we first need to determine the standard cost for the actual amount of raw materials used. The total amount of materials used during May is the starting inventory (8,000 lbs) plus purchases (25,500 lbs) minus ending inventory (7,400 lbs), which equals 26,100 lbs. The standard cost for this is $1.10 per pound, so the total standard cost is $28,710.
The actual cost of the raw materials purchased in May was $15,300, so the materials price variance is the actual cost minus the standard cost, or $15,300 - $28,710 = -$13,410, which is an unfavorable variance because the actual cost was higher than expected.
Next, we calculate the materials efficiency variance. The standard amount of materials expected for the production of 4,900 units is 5 lbs per unit, or 24,500 lbs. The actual quantity used was 26,100 lbs, so the efficiency variance is (24,500 lbs - 26,100 lbs) * $1.10 = -$1,760, which means the company used worse than expected amounts of raw materials, hence it's also unfavorable.
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Myers Company uses a flexible budget for manufacturing overhead based on direct labor hours. Variable manufacturing overhead costs per direct labor hour are as follows. Indirect labor $1.20 Indirect materials 0.50 Utilities 0.20 Fixed overhead costs per month are Supervision $4,400, Depreciation $1,500, and Property Taxes $500. The company believes it will normally operate in a range of 7,700–10,700 direct labor hours per month. Prepare a monthly manufacturing overhead flexible budget for 2017 for the expected range of activity, using increments of 1,000 direct labor hours.
Answer:
[tex]\left[\begin{array}{cccccc}-&rate&7,700&8,700&9,700&10,700\\IL&1.2&9,240&10,440&11,640&12,840\\IM&0.5&4620&5,220&5,820&6,420&Utilities&0.2&924&10,44&1,164&1,284&Total \: Variable&1.9&14,784&16,704&18,624&20,544&Fixed&6,100&6,100&6,100&6100&6,100&MO&-&20,884&22,804&24724&26,644&\end{array}\right][/tex]
Explanation:
You have to apply the rate to each activity level.
for example
DL rate 1.20 x 7700 = 9240
The fixed cost remains constant.
hich of the following statements is CORRECT? a. A corporation is a legal entity created by a state, and it has a life and existence that is separate from the lives and existence of its owners and managers. b. A hostile takeover is the main method of transferring ownership interest in a corporation. c. Limited liability is an advantage of the corporate form of organization to its owners (stockholders), but corporations have more trouble raising money in financial markets because of the complexity of this form of organization. d. Unlimited liability and limited life are two key advantages of the corporate form over other forms of business organization. e. Although the stockholders of the corporation are insulated by limited legal liability, the legal status of the corporation does not protect the firm's managers in the same way, i.e., bondholders can sue the firm's managers if the firm defaults on its debt.
The correct answer is a, stating that a corporation is a legal entity separate from its owners and managers. Hostile takeovers are not the primary method of ownership transfer, and the ability to raise funds is an advantage, not a disadvantage, of corporations. Limited liability applies to stockholders, but not necessarily to firm managers in all situations.
Explanation:The correct statement is a. A corporation is indeed a legal entity created by a state and has a life and existence that is separate from the lives and existence of its owners and managers. This means that although the individual shareholders own parts of the company, the corporation itself is recognized by law as a separate entity with its own rights and liabilities.
Hostile takeovers are not the main method of transferring ownership interest in a corporation; they are just one of several methods, and not the most common. The ability to raise funds is actually an advantage of the corporate form of organization because corporations can issue stock or bonds, not a disadvantage due to complexity.
While limited liability is indeed an advantage for the stockholders, the corporate form does not necessarily provide the same legal protection to its managers in the case of the firm's default on its debts. In certain circumstances, managers can be held personally liable if they violate the law or engage in misconduct.
Department A had no work in process at the beginning of the period, 16,000 units were started during the period, 2,000 units were 40% completed at the end of the period, and the following manufacturing costs were debited to the departmental work in process account during the period (assuming the company uses FIFO): Assuming that all direct materials are placed in process at the beginning of production, what are the conversion cost equivalent units?
Answer:
Conversion Cost Equivalent Units = 14,800
Explanation:
Beginning WIP = 0
Started 16,000
Ending 2,000 at 40%
Equivalent cost for conversion
[tex]Started\: Units - Ending \: units \times (1-completion)[/tex]
[tex]16,000 - 2,000 \times (1-0.40) = 16,000 - 2,000 \times 0.6 = \\16,000 - 1,200 = 14,800[/tex]
There was none beginning inventory and the direct materials information is not relevant to calculate the conversion cost.
I am buying a firm with an expected perpetual cash flow of $1,450 but am unsure of its risk. If I think the beta of the firm is 0, when the beta is really 1, how much more will I offer for the firm than it is truly worth? Assume the risk-free rate is 5% and the expected rate of return on the market is 20%. (Input the amount as a positive value.)
Answer:
Thus amount extra offered = $29,000 - $7,250 = $21,750
Explanation:
Calculating true worth of company
Cash flow = Rf + beta(Rm - Rf)
Where Cash flow = $1,450
Rf = Risk free rate of return = 5%
Rm = Rate of return of market = 20%
Calculating true worth of company
$1450 = 5% + 1 X (20% - 5%)
$1450 = 5% + 15%
$1450 = 20%
Value of company = $1450/20% = $7,250
In case value of Beta is taken as 0 then
$1450 = 5% + 0(20% - 5%)
$1450 = 5%
Value of company = $1450/5% = $29,000
Thus amount extra offered = $29,000 - $7,250 = $21,750
In this scenario, you would end up offering $19,333 more for the firm than its true worth if you wrongly assumed that the beta was 0 instead of 1.
Explanation:To solve this problem, we need to use the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) to calculate the expected return on the investment. The CAPM formula is the risk-free rate plus the beta times the difference between the market return and the risk-free rate.
If you underestimate the beta as 0, you would assume that the expected return is equal to the risk-free rate, which is 5%. Using the perpetuity formula (Perpetuity = Cash flow / Discount rate), the value of the firm would be $1,450 / 0.05 = $29,000.
However, with the real beta of 1, we should use the correct market risk rate, which is 20%. Using the CAPM, the correct discount rate would be 5% + 1 * (20% - 5%) = 15%. Thus, the true value of the firm would be $1,450 / 0.15 = $9,667.
Hence, if you believe the beta was 0 when it was actually 1, you would offer $29,000 - $9,667 = $19,333 more than the firm is truly worth.
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Ramirez Company installs a computerized manufacturing machine in its factory at the beginning of the year at a cost of $85,400. The machine's useful life is estimated at 20 years, or 402,000 units of product, with a $5,000 salvage value. During its second year, the machine produces 34,200 units of product. Determine the machine’s second-year depreciation and year end book value under the straight-line method.
The machine’s second-year depreciation and year end book value under the straight-line method is $4020 and $77,360 respectively.
The straight line depreciation method is used by companies to calculate amortization and depreciation. It is good method to determine the loss of value of an asset over a given period.
Further ExplanationYou can calculate straight line depreciation by subtracting assets cost from expected salvage value and then divide the derived value by the expected number of years to be used.
This can be expressed as:
Initial cost – salvage value / useful life
From the given question,
Initial cost = $85,400 Salvage value = $5000 Useful life = 20If you substitute the values into the equation, then you have:
$85,400 - $5000 / 20
= $80400 / 20
= $4020
To determine the book value for the second year, then you should subtract the initial value from the derived value when you multiply the years (2) and the depreciation.
This can be expressed as:
Book value = Initial value - (years x depreciation)
= $85,400 - (2 x $4020)
= $77,360
Thus, the machine’s second-year depreciation and year end book value under the straight-line method is $4020 and $77,360 respectively.
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Sarita Company installs a computerized manufacturing machine in its factory at the beginning of the year at a cost of $67,000 https://brainly.com/question/14209516Ramirez Company installs a computerized manufacturing machine in its factory at the beginning of the year at a cost of $85,400. https://brainly.com/question/13018775KEYWORDS:
ramirez companysalvage valuesecond - year depreciation yearstraight line methodbook valueuseful lifeThe machine’s second-year depreciation is $4,020 and the book value is $77,360.
The straight line depreciation method is used to determine the loss of value of an asset over a given period.
The formulae for straight line depreciation is [(Initial cost - Salvage value) / Useful life]Given question,
Initial cost = $85,400
Salvage value = $5000
Useful life = 20
Depreciation Expenses = [$85,400 - $5000 / 20]
Depreciation Expenses = $80400 / 20
Depreciation Expenses = $4,020
We have to subtract the initial value from the derived value when you multiply the years (2) and the depreciation to derive the Book value
The formulae for Book value is [Initial value - (Years x Depreciation)]Book value = $85,400 - (2 x $4020)
Book value = $85,400 - $8,040
Book value = $77,360
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LBC Corporation makes and sells a product called Product WZ. Each unit of Product WZ requires 3.0 hours of direct labor at the rate of $26.00 per direct labor-hour. Management would like you to prepare a Direct Labor Budget for June. The company plans to sell 49,000 units of Product WZ in June. The finished goods inventories on June 1 and June 30 are budgeted to be 610 and 170 units, respectively. Budgeted direct labor costs for June would be:
Answer:
The Budgeted direct labor costs for June would be $1,262,560
Explanation:
For computing the direct labor cost, first we have to calculate how many units of production is used. The equation is shown below :
Total Production Units = Ending finished goods inventories + sales units - opening finished goods inventories
= 170 + 49,000 - 610
= 48,560 units
Now, multiply these units with direct labor hour rate which equals to
= Units produced × direct labor hour rate
= 48,560 × $26.00
= $1,262,560
Thus, Budgeted direct labor costs for June would be $1,262,560
Under the FIFO method, unit costs would: a) result from costs in the beginning inventory being added in with current period costs. b) contain some element of cost from the prior period. c) not contain some elements of cost from the prior period. d) not include costs incurred to complete beginning inventory.
Answer:
a) result from costs in the beginning inventory being added in with current period costs.
Explanation:
Because the FIFO means First In First Out
the beginning inventory AKA cost from prior period will be include to determinate the cost of the units that made first in. Then the remaining cost added to finish this units will be assing to calculate the cost of units under FIFO
example
100 units BI WIP $5,000
cost added to finish this units $10,000
Total cost $15,000
units cost $15,000/100 = $150
If there are more units finsihed during the period, they may have a diferent units cost.
Common stock value long dash Variable growth Personal Finance Problem Home Place Hotels, Inc., is entering into a 3-year remodeling and expansion project. The construction will have a limiting effect on earnings during that time, but when it is complete, it should allow the company to enjoy much improved growth in earnings and dividends. Last year, the company paid a dividend of $2.30. It expects zero growth in the next year. In years 2 and 3, 3% growth is expected, and in year 4, 16% growth. In year 5 and thereafter, growth should be a constant 11% per year. What is the maximum price per share that an investor who requires a return of 15% should pay for Home Place Hotels common stock
Answer: Current stock price ([tex]P_{0}[/tex]) = $ 51.71
Explanation:
First we'll calculate the dividends for the next 5 years and the respective Terminal value in [tex]5^{th}[/tex] year .
i.e. ,
[tex]D_{0}[/tex] = $ 2.30
[tex]D_{1}[/tex] = [tex]D_{0}[/tex] [tex]\times[/tex] (1 + [tex]Growth rate_{year 1}[/tex])
[tex]D_{1}[/tex] = $ 2.30 × ( 1 + 0%) = $ 2.30
[tex]D_{2}[/tex] = [tex]D_{1}[/tex] [tex]\times[/tex] (1 + [tex]Growth rate_{year 2}[/tex])
[tex]D_{2}[/tex] = $ 2.30 × ( 1 + 3%) = $ 2.36
[tex]D_{3}[/tex] = [tex]D_{2}[/tex] [tex]\times[/tex] (1 + [tex]Growth rate_{year 3}[/tex])
[tex]D_{3}[/tex] = $ 2.36 × ( 1 + 3%) = $ 2.43
[tex]D_{4}[/tex] = [tex]D_{3}[/tex] [tex]\times[/tex] (1 + [tex]Growth rate_{year 4}[/tex])
[tex]D_{4}[/tex] = $ 2.43 × ( 1 + 16%) = $ 2.819
[tex]D_{5}[/tex] = [tex]D_{4}[/tex] [tex]\times[/tex] (1 + [tex]Growth rate_{year 5}[/tex])
[tex]D_{5}[/tex] = $ 2.819 × ( 1 + 11%) = $ 3.129
∵ The growth rate after [tex]5^{th}[/tex] year = 11%
Required rate of return (r) = 15%
∴ Terminal value ([tex]P_{5}[/tex]) = [tex]\frac{D_{5} \times (1 + Growth rate)}{Required rate of return - Growth rate}[/tex]
Terminal value ([tex]P_{5}[/tex]) = [tex]\frac{ 3.129 \times (1 + 0.11)}{0.15 - 0.11}[/tex]
Terminal value ([tex]P_{5}[/tex]) = $ 86.85
Now, we'll compute the price per share :
Current stock price ([tex]P_{0}[/tex]) = [tex]\left [ \frac{D_{1}}{(1 + r)^{n}} + \frac{D_{2}}{(1 + r)^{n}} +\frac{D_{3}}{(1 + r)^{n}} + \frac{D_{4}}{(1 + r)^{n}} + \frac{D_{5}}{(1 + r)^{n}} + \frac{P_{5}}{(1 + r)^{n}}\right ][/tex]
where;
n = respective years
r = required rate of return
∴ Current stock price ([tex]P_{0}[/tex]) = [tex]\left [ \frac{2.30}{(1 + 0.15)^{1}} + \frac{2.36}{(1 + 0.15)^{2}} +\frac{2.43}{(1 + 0.15)^{3}} + \frac{2.819}{(1 + 0.15)^{4}} + \frac{3.129}{(1 + 0.15)^{5}} + \frac{86.85}{(1 + 0.15)^{5}}\right ][/tex]
Current stock price ([tex]P_{0}[/tex]) = ( 2 + 1.78 + 1.59 + 1.611 + 1.55 + 43.18)
Current stock price ([tex]P_{0}[/tex]) = $ 51.71
Final answer:
To determine the maximum price per share, present value calculations using the Dividend Discount Model (DDM) for the expected dividends with variable growth rates are needed. Since not all details are provided, a numerical answer cannot be given.
Explanation:
To calculate the maximum price per share that an investor who requires a return of 15% should pay for Home Place Hotels common stock, we would need to discount the future dividends at the investor's required rate of return and then sum these present values. The dividends are expected to be $2.30 with no growth in the first year, followed by 3% growth for the next two years, then a jump to 16% growth in the fourth year, and finally stabilizing at 11% growth from the fifth year onwards. We use the dividend discount model (DDM) for variable growth rates to calculate the present value of dividends, adjusting for growth, and then discount those values back to the present at the investor's required rate of return.
However, as the detailed information needed to perform these calculations is not provided in the question, we cannot provide a numerical answer. Accordingly, an investor's willingness to pay for a share would depend on their required rate of return and the dividends forecasted by Home Place Hotels common stock, taking into account the various growth stages of the company's expansion project. In practice, factors such as market conditions, the company's overall financial health, investor sentiment, and external economic events would also impact the stock's value.
The unemployment rate:A. is measured by the number of people who are unemployed divided by the labor force.B. is never zero.C. measures what percentage of our population is currently looking for a job and can't find one.D. All of these are true.
The unemployment rate measures the percentage of the population that is actively seeking employment but can't find a job.The correct option is D.
Explanation:The correct answer is D. All of these are true.The unemployment rate is a measure of the number of people who are unemployed divided by the labor force. It is never zero because there will always be some level of unemployment in an economy.
It also represents the percentage of the population that is currently looking for a job but can't find one.
This means that it does not include people who are not actively seeking employment, such as retired individuals or those who have given up searching for work.The correct option is D.
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The unemployment rate is A. measured by the number of people who are unemployed divided by the labor force and it is never zero. It reflects the percentage of the population currently looking for a job and unable to find one.
Explanation:The unemployment rate is a key economic indicator that measures the percentage of the labor force without a job and actively seeking employment. It reflects the health of the job market and overall economy. The rate is calculated by dividing the number of unemployed individuals by the total labor force and is often reported monthly by government agencies.
Different types of unemployment, such as frictional, structural, and cyclical, can affect the overall rate, influencing government policy and economic decision-making. The unemployment rate is measured by the number of people who are unemployed divided by the labor force. It is never zero and measures what percentage of our population is currently looking for a job and can't find one.
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An increase in cost (fixed cost or variable cost) tends to increase the operating breakeven point, whereas an increase in the sales price per unit will decrease the operating breakeven point.
True or false ?
Answer:
TRUE
Explanation:
Let's see the BEP formula:
[tex]\frac{Fixed Cost}{Sales - Variable Cost} = BEP[/tex]
Notice that Fixed cost are being divide by the contribution margin, which is sales - variable cost
Let's see each statment and check if there is true.
Remember all of them must be true
if fixed cost increase, then the ammount to cover is higher, so the BEP increase:
Imagine you are sharing candies to some kinds and suddently 10 more kind arrives, you are gonna need more candies to share to each children the same ammount.
TRUE
IF variable cost decrease:
the contribution margin decrease, because more portion of the sale is used to pay the variable cost, which makes the effort of paying the fixed cost higher.
like when you are saving for a certain ammount, let's say $100 per month to achieve $1,000 If an unexpected expense happens and you save $50 per month, you going to take more time.
TRUE
If Sales Increase, then the contribution margin increase, so it makes the effort to pay the fixed cost more easy, like if in the previous example instead of going down we went up to $200. The 1,000 goal would be more achievable.
TRUE
All statment are true so the sentence is TRUE
Database Systems is considering expansion into a new product line. Assets to support expansion will cost $750,000. It is estimated that Database Systems can generate $2,150,000 in annual sales, with an 7 percent profit margin. What would net income and return on assets (investment) be for the year? (Input your return on assets answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)
Answer:
The net income is $150,500 and the return on assets is 20.06 %
Explanation:
The formula for computing net income and return on assets is shown below and the computation is also made.
Net income = Sales revenue × Profit margin
= $2,150,000 × 7%
= $150,500
Return on assets = Net income ÷ total assets
= $150,500 ÷ $750,000
= 0.2006
= 20.06 %
Thus, the net income is $150,500 and the return on assets is 20.06 %
The net income for the year would be $150,500 and the return on assets would be 20%.
Explanation:First, let's calculate the net income:
Net income = Sales revenue * Profit margin
Net income = $2,150,000 * 0.07
Net income = $150,500
Now, let's calculate the return on assets:
Return on assets (ROA) = Net income / Total assets
ROA = $150,500 / $750,000
ROA = 0.20 or 20%
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Elephant, Inc.'s cost of goods sold for the year is $2,000,000, and the average merchandise inventory for the year is $129,000. Calculate the inventory turnover ratio of the company. (Round your answer to two decimal places.)
Answer:
15.50
Explanation:
Stock turnover or inventory turnover can be defined as the ratio of the number of times a company has sold or replaced inventory during a given period , generally a year, .
.
It can be computed as follows -
=[tex]\frac{cost of goods sold}{average stock}[/tex]
therefore,
=[tex]\frac{2,000,000}{129,000}[/tex]
= 15.50