Sienna decides to study movement in plants. Identify the correct sequence of the scientific steps, and place the steps in order. She developed a hypothesis that plants move toward light.Over six weeks, both plants grew toward their available light source. She put one plant near the window and another in a dark room with a small opening that let light come through.Every few days she checked the plants and recorded the direction of their growth.

Answers

Answer 1
1. She developed a hypothesis that plants move toward light. 
2. She put one plant near the window and another in a dark room with a small opening that let light come through. 
3. Every few days she checked the plants and recorded the direction of their growth. 
4. Over six weeks, both plants grew toward their available light source. 

I hope this helps. 

Have a nice day. 

Related Questions

A human rbc is approximately 8 µm in diameter. an unknown bacterium measures 1 ocular space using the oil immersion objective compared to 2 minor spaces on the stage micrometer.
a.how big is the unknown bacterium (report in micrometers) and
b.how does its size compare to the rbc (how many times bigger is one versus the other)? (4pts)

Answers

a)
size = (number of minor spaces x 10μm) / number of ocular spaces
       = (2 x 10) / 1
       = 20μm

b)Since the RBC has a size of 8μm and the bacterium 20μm, the bacteria is bigger. The Bacterium is bigger than the RBC by 20μm / 8μm
Hence the bacterium is 2.5 times bigger than the RBC.

The specific heat of a metal is 0.5 cal/ (0C.g). The heat required to raise temperature of 100 gram of that metal by 20 0C is

Answers

Final answer:

The heat required to raise the temperature of 100 grams of the metal by 20 degrees Celsius is 1000 calories.

Explanation:

The heat required to raise the temperature of an object can be calculated using the formula:

Q = mcΔT

where Q is the heat energy, m is the mass of the object, c is the specific heat of the object, and ΔT is the change in temperature.

In this case, the metal has a specific heat of 0.5 cal/(0C.g), which means it requires 0.5 calories of heat energy to raise the temperature of 1 gram of the metal by 1 degree Celsius. So, for 100 grams of the metal, the heat required to raise its temperature by 20 degrees Celsius is:

Q = (100 g) * (0.5 cal/(0C.g)) * 20 0C = 1000 cal

Therefore, the heat required to raise the temperature of 100 grams of the metal by 20 0C is 1000 calories.

Final answer:

The heat required to raise the temperature of 100 grams of the metal by 20 °C is 1000 calories.

Explanation:

The specific heat of a metal is a measure of how much heat energy is required to raise the temperature of a given amount of the metal by 1 degree Celsius.

The specific heat of the metal in question is given as 0.5 cal/°C.g.

To find the heat required to raise the temperature of 100 grams of the metal by 20 °C, we can use the formula:

Heat = mass * specific heat * change in temperature

Substituting the given values into the formula, we get:

Heat = 100 g * 0.5 cal/°C.g * 20 °C

Calculation

Heat = 100 g * 0.5 cal/°C.g * 20 °C

Heat = 1000 cal

Therefore, the heat required to raise the temperature of 100 grams of the metal by 20 °C is 1000 calories.

When gina was 10, she swam in the ocean for the first time. she remembers the feeling of kicking her feet, slicing her arms through the water, tasting the tangy salt water, floating her on her back, and learning from her father that salt water is more dense than fresh water, which makes floating easier. which element is a semantic memory?

Answers

That salt water is more dense than fresh water.

What is a particulate?

a compound of oxygen and another element

a colorless, odorless radioactive gas

a tiny solid suspended in the atmosphere

a compound of carbon, chlorine, and fluorine

Answers

C. A particulate is a tiny solid suspended in the atmosphere.

A tiny solid or liquid particle suspended in the atmosphere is called a particulate. These particles, which include dust, pollen, soot, smoke, and liquid droplets, differ in size and composition. Particulates can come from man-made sources like automobile emissions and industrial processes, as well as natural ones like forest fires and volcanic eruptions.

Due to their small size, they can be inhaled and contribute significantly to air pollution, which may lead to health concerns such respiratory disorders and cardiovascular ailments.

"if, after a stroke, a patient is slurring words and has no balance, what two specialists should treat him?"

Answers

The patient must be referred to an occupational therapist and speech therapist. Post stroke patients requires rehabilitation and  resumption of their previous activities. The focus of occupational therapy is to help patients achieve health, their well being and participation in life through by engaging in their previous regular activities. Speech therapy is needed for a goal which is to help the patient achieve their highest level of language and communication function as possible.

Activation of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system produces _____ in heart rate, and activation of the parasympathetic division produces _____.
a.increases, additional increases in heart rate
b.increases, decreases in heart rate
c.decreases, increases in blood pressure
d.decreases, additional decreases in heart rate

Answers

The sympathetic nervous system is a part of the autonomic nervous system that carries stress responses or "flight or flight" responses that involves feelings of rush. The activation of sympathetic nervous system therefore increases the heart rate. The parasympathetic nervous system is another part of the autonomic nervous system which is responsible for "rest and digest" responses that involves feelings of relaxation. The activation of the parasympathetic nervous system decreases the heart rate.

Final answer:

Activation of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system increases heart rate for a 'fight or flight' response, while activation of the parasympathetic division decreases heart rate, supporting a 'rest and digest' state.

Explanation:

The autonomic nervous system, which includes the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions, plays a crucial role in regulating the heart rate among other functions. Activation of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system increases heart rate, preparing the body for 'fight or flight'. Conversely, activation of the parasympathetic division leads to a decrease in heart rate, facilitating a 'rest and digest' state. The sympathetic nerves release norepinephrine, which binds to adrenergic receptors causing an increase in heart rate. Parasympathetic nerves release acetylcholine, which binds to muscarinic receptors, resulting in a slowing of the heart rate.

Which cartilage belonging to the larynx anchors the vocal cords?

Answers

The arytenoid cartilage anchors the vocal chords. It is a pair that looks like a pyramid needed for the voice sound production. It sits on the upper part of the cricoid cartilage posterior part. The arytenoid has body, muscular process, apex and the vocal area and the vocal is the only thing that is clear if doing endoscopy in the larynx.

A patient who is known to be a heavy drinker is brought to the emergency department with ataxia and confusion. the patient cannot remember the events of the previous day. the examination reveals nystagmus, and the patient reports having double vision. the nurse will expect to administer which vitamin to this patient?

Answers

B1 (Thiamine), because chronic alcoholics often have poor nutrition, and Thiamine deficiency in the brain can lead to "Wernicke Encephalopathy."

Only about 10 percent of the energy in an organism is passed on to the next level of a food chain. Look at this food chain: grass → rabbit → hawk What percentage of the energy stored by the grass is passed on to the hawk?

Answers

Quick answer 1%.
The rabbit gets 10%. When the rabbit is caught he passes on 10% of what he got from the grass. !0% of 10% is 1 %

two pieces of silk have an electron charge after being rubbed on a piece of

Answers

when the silk is rubbed against the amber, the silk loses electrons to the amber making the silk positve charge and the amber have a negiitve charge.
when you put both positive charged pieces of silk near each other they will repel each other becasue they have the same charge
law of repulsion states that like charges repel
Hope this helps!

-Payshence xoxo

The answer is they will repel each other.

First, drag labels to targets (a) and (b) to indicate whether these environments are hydrophilic or hydrophobic. 2.next, drag the phospholipid layers to targets (c) and (d) to indicate how they are oriented in the plasma membrane. 3.finally, drag labels to targets (e), (f), and (g) to indicate which portions of the membrane protein are hydrophilic and which are hydrophobic

Answers

The plasma membrane has hydrophilic heads on the outer surface and hydrophobic tails on the interior. The phospholipid layers are arranged in a bilayer with hydrophilic heads facing outward and hydrophobic tails facing inward. The membrane protein contains both hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions.

Explanation:(a) Hydrophilic - The plasma membrane has hydrophilic heads on the outer surface that interact with water.(b) Hydrophobic - The interior of the plasma membrane is made up of hydrophobic tails that repel water.(c) Phospholipid layers in the plasma membrane are arranged in a bilayer with hydrophilic heads facing outward and hydrophobic tails facing inward.(d) The same orientation as (c).(e) Hydrophilic - The regions exposed to the aqueous environment within and outside the cell.(f) Hydrophilic - The regions that interact with other proteins or molecules.(g) Hydrophobic - The regions that are embedded within the lipid bilayer.

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which vessels allows for oxygen movement into the tissues

Answers

Answer: The blood capillaries supply oxygen to the various parts of the body.

Explanation:

The oxygenated blood from the lungs travels to the various parts of the body so that every organ of the body gets oxygen.

Oxygen is required for the cellular respiration of the body as the energy required by the cells is obtained by this process.

The blood capillaries supply oxygenated blood to every organ of the body.

Final answer:

Capillaries, thin-walled vessels in the body, allow for the transport of oxygen into tissues. Oxygen is taken into the capillaries from the lungs, transported through the body's circulatory system, and delivered to cells through the process of diffusion. Deoxygenated blood is then returned to the heart.

Explanation:

The vessels that allow for oxygen movement into the tissues are known as capillaries. These are tiny, thin-walled vessels that facilitate the exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and waste products between the blood and the body's cells. The process begins in the lungs, where oxygen is absorbed into the capillaries from the alveoli, small air sacs where the exchange of gases occurs.

When the oxygen-rich blood leaves the lungs, it is transported via the pulmonary veins into the left atrium and then into the left ventricle of the heart. The left ventricle pumps the oxygenated blood into the aorta, the largest artery, and from there, the oxygenated blood is distributed throughout the body via a network of arteries and arterioles that eventually leads to the capillary beds.

In the capillaries, oxygen is diffused from the blood into tissue fluid, which allows it to reach the body's cells. Gas exchange in capillaries is driven by the differences in pressure between the capillaries and the tissues, which allows for the movement of oxygen into the tissues and carbon dioxide, a waste product, into the blood. It is important to understand that the slow rate of travel through the capillaries assists with this gas and nutrient exchange. After leaving the tissues, deoxygenated blood is then returned to the heart via venules and veins.

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Does medical assistance safeguard or impede the birth process?

Answers

The medical assistance safeguard the birth process. This is to guide the patient and to help the newborn babies in their incubation stage. It assists the mother and the child during the labor.
Medical assistance safeguards the process of birth. The process of giving birth poses serious risk to both mother and child. There are a number of complications that can occur during the process that can cause the death of both mother and infant.
Medical assistance reduces the risk and ensures a safe delivery by being on hand in the event that a complication may arise. The infant mortality rate and the number of mothers who die in childbirth have been significantly reduced because of medical assistance.

The horseshoe crab looks very similar to its fossil ancestor from the Jurassic era.

Why has the horseshoe crab not evolved?

Its original form always remained well adapted to its environment.

The species was affected by natural selection.

The species did not pass on genetic information to its offspring.

The species underwent major mutations in a short period of time.

Answers

The appropriate answer is A. It's original for always remained well adapted to its environment. Adaptation refers to a change that increases an organism's chances of survival and evolution is the change that occurs over time in the organism. There are other organisms that have not changed so much over time. One such organism is the family of reptiles to which alligators and crocodiles belong.

a is right


Tell me if it is right

If an animal does not have four legs, can it be a mammal? Explain

Answers

Eh I don't think so look at squirrels
If an animal does not have four legs, It still can be a mammal. The definition of a mammal is a warm-blooded vertebrate animal that possesses hair or fur, secretion of milk by females for the nourishment of the young, and (typically) the birth of live young. By this definition, both whales and porpoises are mammals, and they do not have four legs. 

Gene flow involves the spreading of alleles to and from a population. _______________ is the flow of genes into an area whereas _________________ is the flow of genes out of an area. A) immigration, emigration B) emigration, immigration C) founder effect, bottleneck effect D) bottleneck effect, founder effect

Answers

I believe that the answer might be A. immigration, emigration I hope that this will help you

Answer: A) immigration, emigration

Explanation:

The gene flow can also be defined as the gene migration from one generation to another. The composition of the gene pool changes. Due to the genetic variability at the individual level the variation in the gene pool also increases. The gene flow occurs mainly because of migration of organisms from one region to another.

Immigration can be defined as the introduction of organisms in a new habitat. Emigration can be defined as the migration or departure of the organisms to a new habitat from their native habitat.  Immigration will add new genes to the new habitat population gene pool. Emigration will limit the genetic variation in the gene pool.

On the basis of the above information, immigration is the flow of genes into an area whereas emigration is the flow of genes out of an area.

Which of the following statements best describes how science has developed over time? A. Scientists worldwide use only existing knowledge and research. B. Male scientists have made the most important scientific discoveries. C. All useful scientific discoveries have been made within the past 50 years. D. Individuals from all over the world throughout history have worked both independently and together to build scientific knowledge.

Answers

D is correct. Scientists do not use only present information, men and women have made discoveries, and useful scientific discoveries have occurred for many years.

Answer: D. Individuals from all over the world throughout history have worked both independently and together to build scientific knowledge.

Explanation:

Human beings have tried to identify the cause of natural phenomena by conducting experiments by using accessible and suitable methods of experimentation.

With the rising demand for innovation individual scientists have contributed their time and knowledge to solve problems related to daily life. This has resulted in gathering of huge scientific information among the scientific communities.

A child has been brought to the emergency department by child's grandparent. the grandparent tells the nurse, "it is important that the child's parents not know she is here. she lives with me, and they are no good for her." what is the nurse's most relevant assessment question?

Answers

Final answer:

The nurse should ask the grandparent about the child's living situation to understand why the parents shouldn't know about the visit, which will help assess the child's current needs and any potential safety concerns.

Explanation:

The nurse's most relevant assessment question in the context where a child has been brought to the emergency department by a grandparent who has custody and expresses concerns about the parents is to ask about the wellbeing and safety of the child. An appropriate question might be: "Can you provide any details regarding the child's living situation and why it is important for the parents not to know about this visit?"

Understanding the context in which the grandparent has assumed the primary caregiver role is crucial. This information can inform the nurse's assessment of the child's current needs and whether there may be any legal or safety concerns to consider.

In some cases, grandparents take on caregiving roles due to various reasons such as parental drug abuse, incarceration, or abandonment, which can render the parents incapable of providing adequate care for the child. This assessment can help the nurse and the healthcare team to tailor their approach to meet the child's and the family's needs while also ensuring the child's safety and privacy.

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"What specific concerns do you have about the child's parents?" This question aims to understand the grandparent's worries and assess the situation.

In a situation where a child is brought to the emergency department by a grandparent, and the grandparent expresses concerns about the child's parents, the nurse's most relevant assessment question would be aimed at understanding the child's immediate safety and the nature of the concerns regarding the parents. Here's a comprehensive approach:

The nurse could start by expressing empathy and validating the grandparent's concerns, acknowledging that they are seeking what they believe is best for the child. Then, the nurse could ask open-ended questions to gather more information while ensuring confidentiality:

1. Can you tell me more about why you feel the child's parents are not good for her?: This open-ended question encourages the grandparent to elaborate on their concerns. It allows the nurse to gain insight into specific issues or behaviors that may be endangering the child's well-being.

2. Has the child experienced any recent incidents or behaviors at home that have raised concerns for you?: This question seeks to uncover any recent events or patterns of behavior that may indicate neglect, abuse, or unsafe living conditions

3. Are there any specific safety concerns or risks in the child's home environment?: By asking about potential hazards in the child's living situation, the nurse can assess immediate safety concerns and evaluate the need for intervention or protective measures.

4. Has the child ever expressed fear or discomfort about being at home with her parents?: This question explores the child's perspective and feelings, providing valuable insight into the child's emotional well-being and the dynamics within the family.

5. Do you have any concerns about the child's physical or emotional health that you would like to discuss?: This question allows the grandparent to address any additional worries or observations about the child's overall well-being.

Through these questions, the nurse aims to gather comprehensive information about the child's situation, assess any immediate safety risks, and determine the appropriate course of action to ensure the child's safety and well-being. Additionally, the nurse should reassure the grandparent that their concerns will be taken seriously and handled with sensitivity and confidentiality.

Geologists have so far identified 1000 minerals. True or false?

Answers

Geologist have identified over than 4,000 minerals 
false because why why why necermind

how many amino acids are coded for by this sequence ATG GGA ACT CCA

Answers

This sequence codes for 4 amino acids namely (in order): Methionine-Guanine-Threonine-Proline. This is because translation of mRNA to amino acids requires grouping of nucleotide bases by 3s called codons. Different codons code for different amino acids.

The DNA sequence ATG GGA ACT CCA codes for four amino acids. Each triplet of nucleotides, known as a codon, translates to a single amino acid.

To determine how many amino acids are coded for by the sequence ATG GGA ACT CCA, we need to break it down into codons. Each codon consists of three nucleotides.

ATGGGAACTCCA

Each codon codes for one amino acid.

Using the genetic code:

ATG codes for Methionine (Met)GGA codes for Glycine (Gly)ACT codes for Threonine (Thr)CCA codes for Proline (Pro)

Thus, the sequence codes for 4 amino acids.

Which term is used by scientists to describe structures that look different on the outside but are actually similar in construction and develop from the same embryonic tissues?

Answers

The answer to the above question would be: Homologous structures.

Hope this helped if so ....pls mark as brainliest

If the climate in an area has very little rainfall, what would be the characteristics of the soil in the area?

Answers

The answer is thin, with very little organic material. The reason the soils are thin is that weathering of rocks in such regions is slow due to lack of rainfall. Water is a significant factor in weathering. Additionally, due to the dryness, little vegetation and organisms will thrive. Therefore, chemical weathering of the rocks will be reduced and the humus (organic material) in the soil will be less abundant.


if an organism did not respond to changing environmental circumstances by regulating gene expression, what is the most likely occurrence?
 A. cellular reproduction would become uncontrolled.
b. cells would be unable to reproduce.
c. energy efficiency would be reduced.
d. enzymes would not be available when necessary.

Answers

B cells would be unable to reproduce 
Hey there!

If an organism did not respond to changing environmental circumstances by regulating gene expression, the most likely occurrence is that cells would be unable to reproduce.

Hope this helps!

How many phenotypes for exoskeleton color are exhibited in the population?

Answers

Two phenotypes of exoskeleton are exhibited in the population: black and white. According to the information provided, beetles with the black phenotype can either have a BB or a Bb genotype, while beetles with the white exoskeleton have a bb genotype. 

The number of phenotypes for exoskeleton color are exhibited in the population should be black and white.

Calculation of the number of phenotypes:

There are two types of phenotypes i.e. black and white. The beetles should be considered as the black phenotype it could be in BB or Bb genotype. While on the other hand, beetles should contains the white exo-skeletion that contains the bb genotype.

Therefore, The number of phenotypes for exoskeleton color are exhibited in the population should be black and white.

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Currents cause warmer and cooler temperatures in the areas where they are located.
True or False

Answers

It is a true fact that currents cause warmer and cooler temperatures in the areas where they are located.

Hope this helps :)

Answer:

True

Explanation:

The currents bring warm and cool water with them. They can bring wind and rain. Currents are like under water wind.

Which processes lead to most genetic variation in sexually reproducing organisms? select all that apply. select all that apply. crossing over cytokinesis independent assortment of chromosomes in meiosis random fertilization?

Answers

The processes that lead to most genetic variation in sexually reproducing organisms are the following;

-          Crossing over – the process of exchanging genetic material that occurs during sexual reproduction

-          Independent assortment of chromosomes in meiosis – the process where maternal chromosomes are not separated in a cell with the parental chromosomes separated

-          Random fertilization – responsible for the sperm and the egg to meet

The processes that lead to most genetic variation in organisms with sexual reproduction include 'random fertilization', 'crossing over', and 'independent assortment of chromosomes in meiosis'.

Crossing over or recombination refers to the exchange of genetic material (DNA) between non-sister chromatids during Meiosis I (prophase I).

The independent assortment of chromosomes refers to the independent separation/segregation of hom-ologous chromosomes during Meiosis I (Anaphase I).

Random fertilization refers to the genetic diversity associated with the unlimited number of possible gamete (sperm and egg) combinations.

In conclusion, the processes that lead to most genetic variation in organisms with sexual reproduction include 'random fertilization', 'crossing over', and 'independent assortment of chromosomes in meiosis'.

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Look at this character table. rattlesnakes (like turtles) are reptiles, yet they do not have four limbs. in fact, they have no apparent limbs. character lancelet (outgroup) lamprey bass frog turtle leopard vertebral column (backbone) 0 1 1 1 1 1 hinged jaws 0 0 1 1 1 1 four limbs 0 0 0 1 1 1 amnion 0 0 0 0 1 1 hair 0 0 0 0 0 1 what does this suggest? what does this suggest? rattlesnakes are more closely related to bass than they are to frogs, turtles, and leopards. of the species in the table, rattlesnakes are most closely related to lampreys. the presence or absence of four limbs is not a useful character for studying evolutionary relationships among vertebrates. the presence or absence of four limbs, on its own, could be misleading when considering the evolutionary relationships of rattlesnakes.

Answers

Final answer:

The presence or absence of four limbs is not a useful character for studying evolutionary relationships among vertebrates, as it can be misleading. Other characteristics and genetic information should be considered to accurately determine evolutionary relationships.

Explanation:

Reptiles are tetrapods that ancestrally had four limbs, but some species, like snakes, have secondarily lost or reduced their limbs over time. The presence or absence of four limbs is not a useful character for studying evolutionary relationships among vertebrates because it can be misleading. In the character table provided, the absence of four limbs in snakes does not necessarily mean they are more closely related to bass than to frogs, turtles, and leopards. It is important to consider other characteristics and genetic information to determine evolutionary relationships accurately.

A region that is experiencing very frequent disturbances of intermediate intensity will most likely exhibit _______. if the intensity of these disturbances increases noticeably, the region will most likely exhibit _______.

Answers

I really dont know but i would like 4 u 2 give me points on my thing

What makes one protein capable of a different function than other proteins?

Answers

The amino acid sequence of a protein determines its function.

Charles and francis darwin concluded from their experiments on phototropism by grass seedlings that the part of the seedling that detects the direction of light is the

Answers

Charles and Francis Darwin concluded from their experiments on phototropism by grass seedlings that the part of the seedling that detects the direction of light is the "tip of the coleoptile."
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