Answer:
2 chromosomes
Explanation:
The cell of an eukaryotic organism like roundworm contains the Nucleus, which harbors the genetic material embedded in the chromosome. The number of chromosomes of that organism is contained in each cell.
Somatic cells, also called body cells, are all other cells asides sperm and eggs, that form the tissues and organs of an organism. Somatic cells are usually diploid i.e two sets of chromosomes from each parent. In this question, the roundworm has 4 chromosomes in its somatic cell.
The reproductive cells or sex cells (sperm and eggs) of an organism always result from meiotic division of specialized cells.
Since meiosis is a kind of division that results in cells with their chromosome number reduced by half (haploid), it therefore means that the ovum and sperm cell will be expected to contain 2 chromosomes each.
This way, when fertilization occurs (sperm and egg fusion), the resulting zygote, which will eventually develop into an adult organism, will have 4 chromosomes.
European starlings and Eastern bluebirds both nest in naturally occurring cavities. In areas where both species occur, starlings often evict bluebirds from their nesting holes and raise their own young there. This is an example of:
Answer:
Competition
Explanation:
The organisms living in a particular ecosystem constantly interact with each other and these interactions are of different types:1. Mutualism
2. commensalism
3. predation
4. competition
5. parasitism
In a situation where there are limited resources are available and the species present in the ecosystem want to utilize the similarly limited resources and thus, do not want to compromise this leads to competitive interaction.In the case of competition one of the species tries to eliminate the other species and the fittest wins.In the given case it can be seen that both the starling and the bluebird occupy cavities and hence, compete with each other, however, the bluebirds are evicted by the starlings and hence, this is an example of competition.Which of the following regions of the brain provides the precise timing and appropriate patterns of skeletal muscle contraction for the smooth, coordinated movements and agility that are needed for our daily living?
Answer:
Cerebellum.
Explanation:
Brain acts as the main control and coordination center of the body. Human brain is divided into three main parts - forebrain, midbrain and the hindbrain.
Cerebellum is the main part of hindbarin regulates the motor coordination and movement of the body. The involuntary and some sort of voluntary actions are controlled by the cerebellum. The contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscles is performed by cerebellum.
Thus, the correct answer is cerebellum.
Although testosterone and related anabolic steroids clearly increase muscle mass during puberty, it has been more difficult to determine scientifically whether adult men with normal testosterone can get much stronger from extra steroids, partly because:
Answer & Explanation
The use of extra anabolic steroids has been termed ''unethical''. Therefore, the research would be unethical to subject participants to extra doses of different steroids.
In sports, the use of anabolic steroids in order to boost personal performance is regarded as doping and anabolic steroids are listed as banned substances.
Answer is it will be unethical to expose participants to high doses of multiple steroids
Please help asap!
What kind of bonding occurs between carbon atoms, allowing carbon to form stable molecules?
A. Single, double, and triple covalent bonds
B. Single, double, and triple ionic bonds
C. Single, double, and triple hydrogen bonds
D. Single, double, and triple metallic bonds
Answer:
The real correct answer would be a.
Explanation:
Covalent bonding occurs between Carbon atoms allowing Carbon to form stable molecules.
Single, double, and triple covalent bonding occurs between carbon atom, allowing carbon to form stable molecules. Thus, the correct option is A.
What is Covalent bonding?A covalent bond is the bond which consists of the mutual sharing of one or more pairs of electrons between two atoms of same element or different element. These electrons are simultaneously attracted by the two atomic nuclei. A covalent bond forms between two atoms when the difference between the electronegativities of two atoms is too small for an electron transfer to take place to form ions.
Carbon can form up to four covalent bonds. Covalent bonds are the chemical bonds that form between nonmetal atoms. In a covalent bond, two atoms share a pair of electrons between them. By forming four covalent bonds, carbon shares four pairs of electrons with other atoms, thus filling its outer energy level and achieving stability.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
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You are caring for a client with shock. You are concerned about hypoxemia and metabolic acidosis with your client. What finding should you analyze for evidence of hypoxemia and metabolic acidosis in a client with shock?
Answer:
ABG - Arterial blood gas findings
Explanation:
The ABG test measures the pH and the oxugen and CO2 levels in the blood that goes through the arteries.
How does biodiversity contribute to the sustainability of a habitat
Answer: The higher the biodiversity of an Habitat, the more
sustainable it is. Also, lower biodiversity equals less sustainability.
Explanation:
The term “biodiversity” is a coined from the phrase “biological diversity”. Biodiversity can be defined as the richness and variety of life of genes, species and ecosystem.
Biodiversity tells us a lot about the health of the biosphere. The greater the variety of species, the healthier the biosphere is. Why is this? This is because; the greater the species, the more links in food chains/webs. Also, the more the genes, the better chances for survival through adaptation.
On the other hand, Sustainability of an ecosystem is the ability of that ecosystem to maintain its structure and function over time in the face of inescapable external stress(e.g deforestation, tornadoes, floods, pollution, etc).
For an ecosystem, sustainability means maintaining ecological processes over long periods of time. These ecological processes includes evolution, food chains and webs, population dynamics, succession. e.t.c
So, if an ecosystem is able to maintain its structure and function over time in the face of external stress, it is said to be sustainable.
FURTHERMORE, The higher biodiversity in an ecosystem means that there is a greater variety of genes and species in that ecosystem. A great variety of genes and species means that the ecosystem is better able to carry out
natural processes. The ecosystem will therefore have more genes and species to help it carry out these processes. For example, there will be more species and more links in food webs, more plants to help with the biogeochemical cycles and more genes available for succession and evolution.
Biodiversity enhances ecosystem sustainability by increasing productivity and resilience, providing essential ecosystem services, and through the restoration and protection of keystone species, as demonstrated by the reintroduction of wolves to Yellowstone.
Explanation:How Biodiversity Contributes to Habitat SustainabilityBiodiversity plays a crucial role in ecosystem sustainability by enhancing productivity and stability, providing ecosystem services such as nutrient cycling, pest control, and pollination, and allowing ecosystems to be more resilient to environmental changes. For instance, diverse soil organisms enable nitrogen fixation and nutrient recycling, while various pollinators ensure that plants can reproduce. A notable example of the impact of biodiversity on an ecosystem is the reintroduction of wolves to Yellowstone National Park. As a keystone species, wolves helped to restore balance by controlling elk and coyote populations, leading to the revegetation of riparian areas and an increase in the diversity of other species. Restoration efforts emphasize the importance of biodiversity conservation to maintain the functionality of ecosystems and support human agriculture.
Keystone species are integral in maintaining biodiversity within ecosystems, and their removal can lead to a collapse in ecosystem diversity. The Yellowstone case highlighted the positive effects of reintroducing such species, which included enhancing populations of other species previously suppressed by predators like coyotes. Moreover, maintaining high biodiversity can increase ecosystem productivity, reduce year-to-year variability in productivity, and buffer ecosystems against disturbances. In essence, biodiversity is the life support for ecosystems, playing a role in everything from climate regulation to food production. Therefore, preserving and restoring biodiversity is essential for the health and sustainability of habitats.
The main function of the inflammatory response is to
A) initiate the production of antibodies.
B) remove contaminating microorganisms and initiate repair of damaged tissues.
C) initiate T cell-mediated immune responses.
D) initiate the production of killer cells
Answer:
B) remove contaminating microorganisms and initiate repair of damaged tissues.
Explanation:
Schematically we can divide the inflammation into five stages:
1- Release of mediators. They are molecules, most of them, of elementary structure that are released or
synthesized by the mast cell under the action of certain stimuli.
2- Effect of mediators. Once released, these molecules produce vascular alterations and effects
Chemotactics that favor the arrival of molecules and immune cells to the inflammatory focus.
3- Arrival of molecules and immune cells to the inflammatory focus. They come mostly from the blood, but
also from the areas surrounding the focus.
4- Regulation of the inflammatory process. Like most of the immune responses, the inflammatory phenomenon
It also integrates a series of inhibitory mechanisms aimed at finalizing or balancing the process.
5- Repair. Phase consisting of phenomena that will determine the total or partial repair of tissues
damaged by the aggressor or by the inflammatory response itself.
Which factor has a positive effect on the quality of sleep?A. Sleeping in a quiet environment.B. Sleeping hours that synchronize with the circadian rhythm.C. Spending additional time in stage II of the sleep cycle.D. Sleeping in a dark environment
Answer:
A. Sleeping in a quiet environment
Explanation:
As it's free from stress
Which of the following is not found in bacteria? Which of the following is not found in bacteria? control of chromatin remodeling transcriptional control control of chromatin remodeling, RNA splicing, and transcription control of both RNA splicing and chromatin remodeling control of RNA splicing
Answer:
Control of both RNA splicing and chromatin remodeling control of RNA splicing.
Explanation:
RNA is present as genetic material but in case of some viruses only. RNA contains the nitrogenous base ( adenine, guanine, uracil and cytosine), oxyribose sugar and phosphate group.
The bacteria do not have well developed nucleus so no chromatin remodification occurs in case of bacteria. Bacteria is devoid of introns and contains only exons in its RNA structure. The splicing process is not required in case of bacteria.
Thus, the correct answer is option (4).
An agouti mouse that is heterozygous at the agouti and albino loci (AaCc) is mated to an albino mouse that is heterozygous at the agouti locus (Aacc). Allele definitions: A_ = Agouti if non-albino aa = black if non-albino C_ = non-albino with A/a gene determining phenotype cc = albino independent of A/a gene genotype.
What percentage of the progeny do you expect to be albino?
What percentage of the progeny do you expect to be agouti?
What percentage of the progeny do you expect to be black?
Answer:
Percentage of progeny that are albino are 50.00%
Percentage of progeny that are agouti are 37.50%
Percentage of progeny that are black are 12.5%
Explanation:
This question is a classic example of the genetic phenomena known as "epistasis", “Epistasis” is a word composed of Greek roots that mean “standing upon.” The alleles that are being masked or silenced are said to be hypostatic to the epistatic alleles that are doing the masking.
The agouti mouse (AA), is dominant over the black (aa). However, a separate gene (C) is necessary for pigment production. A mouse with a recessive 'c' allele at this locus is unable to produce pigment and is albino regardless of the allele present at locus A.
Hence, A cross between heterozygotes for both genes (AaCc x Aacc)
is show in the pdf below and would generate offspring with a phenotypic ratio of:
albino : 8/16 (i.e 50.00%)
agouti: 6/16 (i.e 37.50%)
black: 2/16 (i.e 12.5%)
This is so FOR albino, Since cc_ = albino independent of A/a gene genotype. Therefore, all traits carrying albino independent is 8/16. i.e ( AAcc, Aacc, AAcc, Aacc, Aacc, aacc, Aacc, aacc)
= 50.00%
FOR agouti: Since C_ = non-albino with A/a gene determining phenotype & A_ = Agouti if non-albino. Therefore, any progeny carrying heterozygous agouti (i.e A) and albino (i.e C) is Agouti.
Hence, agouti = (those that are all heterozygous (AACc, AaCc, AACc, AaCc, AaCc, AaCc) )
=6/16 (i.e 37.50%)
FOR Black: Since aa = black if non-albino & C_ ( non-albino with A/a gene determining phenotype ). Black will be homozygous recessive agouti and heterozygous albino (aaCc and aaCc).
=2/16
= 12.5%
I HOPE THIS REALLY HELPS A LOT!.
Answer:
Percentage albino = 37.5%
Percentage agouti = 37.5%
Percentage black = 25%
Explanation:
The cross is between AaCc and Aacc.
The presence of C_ makes A_ to be agouti.
The presence of C_ makes aa to be black.
The absence of C makes A_ and aa to be albino
AaCc x Aacc
Offspring:
2 AACc Agouti
2 AAcc Albino
4 AaCc Agouti
4 Aacc Albino
2 aaCc Black
2 aaCC Black
Percentage albino = 6/16 x 100% = 37.5%
Percentage agouti = 6/16 x 100% = 37.5%
percentage black = 4/16 x 100% = 25%
See the attached image for the Punnet square analysis
The diet of many birds consists of hard seeds that need to be broken up for digestion. What part of the bird digestive system that is not found in many other vertebrates probably is responsible for this function?
Answer:
Proventriculum and gizzard
Explanation:
In birds, the stomach is divided into two compartments: the proventriculum and the gizzard. These structures are less distinct in carnivorous species, and well-prominent in grain and seed-feeding species.
The proventriculum is a structure located between the lower esophagus and the gizzard. It is covered by a glanular mucous layer with secretory function and is therefore responsible for the secretion of enzymes and hydrochloric acid for digestion.
The gizzard is considered a muscular stomach, responsible for crushing and macerating food (as in chewing). It has a highly developed and strong musculature, resistant to the action of hydrochloric acid.
According to the Nutrition Facts panel on a can of tuna, one serving of the fish supplies 16 g of protein. The DV for protein is 50g. Estimate the %DV for protein in a serving of the tuna.
Answer:
32%
Explanation:
16x100/50 = 32% Daily Value
To estimate the %DV for protein in a serving of tuna, you divide the protein amount in tuna (16g) by the total daily required protein intake (50g), then multiply by 100 to get it in percentage form. Hence, a serving of tuna supplies about 32% of your daily protein requirement.
Explanation:To estimate the %DV (Daily Value) for protein in a serving of the tuna, you just need to know the amount of protein in one serving of tuna and the total daily value for protein recommended. According to the Nutrition Facts panel on a can of tuna, one serving of the fish supplies 16 g of protein. The DV for protein is 50g. So, to find the %DV, we divide the amount of protein in tuna by the total DV and then multiply by 100 to get the value in terms of percentage.
Here is the formula: %DV = (Amount in tuna/Total DV) * 100%
Using the numbers provided: %DV = (16g / 50g) * 100% = 32%
So, a serving of tuna supplies approximately 32% of the daily protein requirement.
Besides protein, it's noteworthy that, tuna, along with salmon and trout, are good sources of omega-3 fatty acids which play an important role in brain function, normal growth and development, and may also prevent heart disease and reduce the risk of cancer.
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The three basic regions of the cerebrum are the cerebral cortical gray matter
Answer:
a) Myelinated nerve fibres
b) The white matter
c) gray matter
Explanation:
The three main parts of cerebral hemispheres are
a) Myelinated nerve fibers
b) The white matter
c) Gray matter
The nerve fibers of the white matter are responsible for connecting the functional parts of cerebral cortex while the gray matter is further divided into four surface folds/lobes with each lobe associated with a specific activity. Such as frontal lobe take cares of motor activity and speech, parietal lobe is responsible for touch and position sensation, occipital lobe for vision and temporal lobe for hearing.
You are studying nuclear lamins and use recombinant DNA technology to alter the coding sequence of a nuclear lamin gene. The alteration you make creates a situation such that the gene now codes for a nuclear lamin protein that can no longer be phosphorylated when the nuclear envelope is broken down during mitosis. What do you predict would happen if the cell only had the altered nuclear lamin gene (and not the unaltered version)?
(a)Mitosis should proceed as usual because the dephosphorylation of the lamin is what is important for nuclear lamina assembly during mitosis, so phosphorylation will not be necessary.(b)Disassembly of the nuclear lamins will occur prematurely because the lamins cannot be phosphorylated.
(c)Nuclear lamins will no longer disassemble properly during mitosis.(d)Nuclear lamins will be unable to produce dimers, as coiled-coil formation will be disrupted.
Answer:
(b)Disassembly of the nuclear lamins will occur prematurely because the lamins cannot be phosphorylated.
Explanation:
The alteration made to the nuclear lamin gene would likely disrupt the disassembly of nuclear lamins during mitosis. This disassembly is crucial for successful cell division as it allows the nuclear envelope to break down and makes the chromosomes accessible for segregation. Without phosphorylation, this might not occur properly.
Explanation:The subject matter of this question revolves around nuclear lamins, proteins that hold a crucial role in the structure of a cell's nucleus. They are involved in processes such as DNA replication and cell division. Specifically, the question focuses on the phosphorylation of nuclear lamins during mitosis.
The correct answer would be option (c): Nuclear lamins will no longer disassemble properly during mitosis. Phosphorylation of nuclear lamins is a crucial step in mitosis. It triggers the disassembly of the nuclear lamina, allowing the nuclear envelope to disintegrate and making the chromosomes accessible for segregation to the daughter cells. If the nuclear lamins cannot be phosphorylated, this means they will not disassemble properly when the nuclear envelope breaks down during mitosis, possibly leading to errors in chromosome segregation and thus affecting the overall cell division process.
This is an interpretation based on the known function of nuclear lamins and the well-studied process of mitosis in eukaryotic cells, assuming the modification of the lamin gene does not have any other unintended effects on the cell's function.
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Allele A has 235 codons. Allele a (an alternative allele of the same gene) has 233 codons. When comparing the protein encoded by allele A to that encoded by allele a, protein A must be:______
Explanation:
A must be two amino acids longer -each codon encodes one amino acid.
Sequences of DNA make up genes which can have different forms called alleles. DNA is transcribed into mRNA and later translated into amino acids which are linked together by rRNA to form proteins.
Further Explanation:
The nucleic acids are comprised of smaller units called nucleotides and function as storage for the body’s genetic information. These monomers include ribonucleic acid (RNA) or deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). They differ from other macromolecules since they don’t provide the body with energy. They exist solely to encode and protein synthesis.
Basic makeup: C, H, O, P... life on Earth is Carbon based nucleotides contain 5-carbon sugars, and nitrogen; the bases may contain single to double bond rings
All the genetic information within the eukaryotic cell is stored within the nucleus as helical DNA. This DNA is tightly wound around histones as chromosomes. Codons are three nucleotide bases encoding an amino acid or signal at the beginning or end of protein synthesis.
RNA codons determine certain amino acids so the order in which the bases occur within in the codon sequence designates which amino acid is to be made bus with the four RNA nucleotides (Adenine, Cysteine and Uracil) Up to 64 codons (with 3 as stop codons) determine amino acid synthesis. The stop codons ( UAG UGA UAA) terminate amino acid/ protein synthesis while the start codon AUG begins protein synthesis.
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Which of the following is NOT a goal of biomechanics?
a) to understand how the basic laws of physics affect human motion and the structure and function of the human body
b) to understand the interaction between the human user and the mechanics of equipment or devices
c) to improve performance and well-being to solve particular problems with the motion and structure of the human body
d) to understand the relationship between mechanical laws and movement techniques of specific movements to improve the outcome or effectiveness of movements
Answer: b) to understand the interaction between the human user and the mechanics of equipment or devices
Explanation:
To understand the interaction between the human user and the mechanics of equipment or devices is NOT a goal of biomechanics.
Biomechanics by definition in dictionaries is the branch of biophysics that deals with the mechanics of the human or animal body; especially concerned with muscles and the skeleton.To study the mechanics of a living body it is necessary to understand the forces exerted by muscles and gravity on the skeletal structure, as well as the mechanics of a part or function of a living body, for example the heart or of locomotion.
The answer is d) to understand the relationship between mechanical laws and movement techniques of specific movements to improve the outcome or effectiveness of movements.
Explanation:The correct answer is d) to understand the relationship between mechanical laws and movement techniques of specific movements to improve the outcome or effectiveness of movements. The field of biomechanics aims to understand the mechanical principles behind human movement and the structure and function of the human body. It involves analyzing the physics of motion, the interaction between humans and equipment, and identifying solutions to improve performance and well-being. However, it does not focus solely on the relationship between mechanical laws and movement techniques of specific movements.
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A cell contains Select one: a. one kind of enzyme that promotes thousands of different chemical reactions. b. thousands of different kinds of enzymes, each promoting a different chemical reaction. c. one enzyme that promotes photosynthesis and one enzyme that promotes cellular respiration. d. approximately 100 kinds of enzymes, each promoting a different chemical reaction.
Answer:
The answer is letter B
Explanation:
A cell contains thousands of different kinds of enzymes, each promoting a different chemical reaction.
Final answer:
A cell contains thousands of different kinds of enzymes, with each one catalyzing a specific chemical reaction essential for the cell's functionality and life sustainability.
Explanation:
Enzymes are specialized macromolecular biological catalysts that are crucial for facilitating the vast array of chemical reactions that occur in living cells. Each enzyme has a unique three-dimensional structure that allows it to bind specifically to its substrates and catalyze a particular reaction at a site known as the active site. Fundamentally, enzymes are imperative for sustaining life because they are able to accelerate biochemical reactions to rates that support cellular functions and metabolic processes.
Diving deeper, it's evident that there are thousands of different kinds of enzymes in a cell, with each type promoting a specific chemical reaction. This is necessary as cells carry out multifarious reactions that require precise control and regulation. For instance, enzymes are responsible not just for aiding in the digestion of nutrients but also for reading genetic material to synthesize new molecules.
Therefore, when addressing the student's question, the accurate answer is that a cell contains thousands of different kinds of enzymes, each specialized to catalyze different chemical reactions.
Proteins destined for the following locations are sorted in the trans-Golgi:
a. lysosome, plasma membrane, secretion
b. endoplasmic reticulum, lysosome, mitochondria
c. nucleus, secretion, plasma membrane
d. lysosome, plasma membrane, peroxisome
e. smooth endoplasmic reticulum, plasma membrane, secretion, lysosome
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Golgi apparatus is an organelle in eukaryotic cells that stores and modifies (might include addition of sugar groups) proteins and lipids for certain functions and prepare them for transport to other parts of the cell.
In the Endoplasmic reticulum, proteins fold into into their correct shape. Some of them are transported to the Golgi apparatus in membrane vesicles. Some proteins need to do their jobs in the Golgi (they are said to be Golgi-resident). They are transported from the golgi appratus to their final destinations through a secretory pathway. It involves sorting proteins into different kinds of transport vesicles, which emanate from the trans Golgi network and deliver their contents to the appropriate cellular locations.
Proteins that are membrane embedded are conveyed to the plasma membrane (integral membrane proteins) by constitutive secretion. Proteins can divert from constitutive secretion pathway and be targeted towards other destinations such as lysosomes (as lysosomal proteins) and regulated secretion from cells (to the cell exterior).
Proteins destined for the lysosome, plasma membrane, and secretion are sorted in the trans-Golgi network. This part of the Golgi apparatus acts as a crossroads for protein traffic, sending proteins to their correct destinations.
Explanation:The answer to the question is Proteins destined for locations such as the lysosome, plasma membrane, and for secretion are sorted in the trans-Golgi network. The trans-Golgi network (TGN) is the part of the Golgi apparatus involved in sorting proteins to their correct destinations. It effectively acts as a crossroads for protein traffic, sending proteins to the right places based on specific sorting signals contained within the proteins themselves.
For example, proteins that will end up in the lysosome (which serves as the cell's waste disposal and recycling center) have a specific marker that the TGN recognizes. The TGN then sends these proteins to the lysosome. Likewise, proteins destined for the plasma membrane (which controls what enters and leaves the cell) and those destined for secretion (sent out of the cell to perform various functions) are recognized by the TGN and sent to their respective locations.
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Sexual dysfunction is a phenomenon that
a. could result in a lack of sexual satisfaction.
b. is rare for partners in long-term relationships.
c. could occur to low sexual desire.
d. does not relate to sexual performance.
Answer:
a. could result in a lack of sexual satisfaction is the correct answer.
Explanation:
Sexual dysfunction is a phenomenon that could result in a lack of sexual satisfaction.
Normally sexual response cycle includes excitation, plateau, satisfaction, and resolution.
sexual dysfunction is more common at the of forty although it can also affect at any age.
Sexual dysfunction commonly is divided into four kinds:
Desire disorders — occur due to a reduction in sexual desire.Arousal disorders —in this case, a person does not get excited while doing sex.Orgasm disorders —is the inability of the woman to reach an orgasm. Pain disorders — while doing the intercourse pain occur.sexual dysfunction causes because of the following reason
heart diseaseif blood pressure is highdue to obesityDiabetesneurological disordersA horticulturist wants to produce geraniums with specific characteristics she knows that the trait of red flowers is governed bye the allele R and the trait of the white flowers is governed bye the allied r
The horticulturist crosses two geraniums from the F1 generation look at the punter square to see this cross what ration of red to white flowering plants would you expect to see in the phenotypes of the F2 generation
Answer:
Ration of red to white flowering plants in the phenotypes of the F2 generation is 3:1
Explanation:
Let us suppose that in the F1 generation, true breeding species were crossed with each other.
True breeding red flower geraniums will have genotype "RR"
And true breeding white flower geraniums will have genotype "rr"
Also, let us say that "R" is dominant over "r"
Then the offspring produced in F1 generation are -
RR * rr
Rr, Rr, Rr, Rr
All offspring are heterozygous red
F2 generation cross
Rr * Rr
RR, Rr, Rr, rr
Out of four , 3 offspring are red in color and one is white in color.
Thus, ration of red to white flowering plants is 3:1
Answer:
3 red : 1 white
Explanation:
Dr. Cho wants to know if differences in the growth rate of fish are based on genetics or the environment. He buys two fish. Fish 1 is fed everyday, while fish 2 is fed every other day. At the end of a month, fish 1 is nearly 15 percent larger than fish 2. Considering the fish have a nearly identical genetic makeup, what can Dr. Cho conclude?A) Environmental changes can account for all the differences in growth rate.B) Genetic influences must account for a majority of the differences in growth rate.C) Environmental conditions were more favorable for fish 2.D) Differences in growth rate cannot be determined by his simple experiment.
Answer:
Option A
Explanation:
The difference in amount of food consumed is considered an environmental factor and it has an effect on the growth rate as seen in the question.
Yesterday you asked your friend Ray for a couple of aspirin tablets to relieve your headache. Ray has been taking a psychology course and informs you that, in behavioral terms, aspirin is a ________ reinforcer.
Answer:
The correct answer is a negative reinforcer.
Explanation:
In psychology there is a type of procedure called reinforcements. This means that there are situations in which certain behavior is established or eliminated, waiting for a response because of doing it.
There are two types of reinforcements: positive reinforcements and negative reinforcements.
The positive reinforcement establishes that by means of a certain type of behavior, a positive response will be expected, therefore the behavior will be repeated again to have that response again.
An example of this would be when you teach your dog to sit, and in return you give him a croquette. The first time he did it, the dog saw that he received a delicious croquette in exchange for his action, so he is likely to do it again in order to win a croquette again.
A negative reinforcement, on the other hand, is one that eliminates a certain type of negative condition, waiting for the response to this to continue. As is the example of taking an aspirin. If a person takes an aspirin to relieve his headache, it is likely that every time his head hurts he will take one too. And this is not a positive or recommended behavior, unless a doctor prescribes it.
Which of the following lies between the cerebrum and the brain stem?A) medulla oblongataB) ponsC) mesencephalonD) diencephalonE) cerebellum
Answer:
Diencephalon
Explanation:
Brain stem and cerebrum are connected through diencephalon. It is a part of forebrain and carries sensory information and autonomic functions of the peripheral nervous system are also controlled by it. The brain stem is present beneath the cerebrum and cerebellum lies in front of it. It progresses from above the cerebrum and is connected to the spinal cord below. Medulla oblongata, one and midbrain are part of the brain stem
Which division detects stimuli of the general senses and special senses?
Answer:
Somatic Sensory division
Explanation:
Somatic Sensory division detects stimuli of the general senses and special senses.
Somatic Sensory division is part of peripheral nervous system, it runs from sensory organs to Central nervous system. This sensory division collects information from touch, pressure, feel, pain ,vision, teste and crries them to Central nervous System.
The sensory division of the nervous system detects stimuli for both general and special senses. General senses like touch are distributed throughout the body and do not have specialized organs, whereas special senses such as sight and hearing involve specific organs like the eyes and ears.
Explanation:The Sensory Division and Stimuli Detection:
The division that detects stimuli of the general senses and special senses is known as the sensory division. This division of the nervous system is tasked with carrying messages from sense organs, such as the eyes and ears, and internal organs to the central nervous system (CNS). The general senses, which include sensations like touch, temperature, pain, proprioception (body movement), and kinesthesia (body movement), do not have specialized sense organs and are distributed throughout the body. The special senses, which include sight, hearing, balance, taste, and smell, have specific organs associated with them: the eyes for vision, the ears for hearing and balance, the tongue for taste, and the nasal passages for smell.
The eyes are the specialized sense organs for sight, gathering visual information and converting it into nerve impulses that the brain can understand. Likewise, the ears are the sensory organs for hearing, with the inner ear also playing a critical role in maintaining balance. Tactile stimuli related to touch are detected by mechanoreceptors found in the skin and tissues, which provide feedback about our environment.
Antidiuretic hormone causes the kidneys to
a. produce a larger volume of very dilute urine.
b. increases the permeability of the collecting ducts to water.
c. release is insensitive to the osmolarity of interstitial fluid.
d. is secreted in response to low potassium ion in the blood.
e. is secreted by the anterior pituitary.
Answer:
Anti-diuretic hormone causes the kidneys to increases the permeability of the collecting ducts to water .
Explanation:
The anti-diuretic hormones stimulates the process of water re-absorption by enhancing the water channels or aquaporins in the membranes of the kidney tubules. The solute free water are transferred through the channels in the tubular cells and back in the blood which then leads to decrease in the osmolarity of plasma with the increase in osmolarity of urine. The hormone is prepared in the hypothalamus of brain and stored in the pituitary glands. It reminds the kidney about the absorption of water, through which it maintains the balance of water in blood.
If the extracellular fluid has an excess of sodium ions, a. sodium ions move into cells b. intracellular fluid moves to the outside of cells c. phosphate and calcium ions are eliminated in feces d. blood levels of arsenic and oxalate increase
Answer:
b. intracellular fluid moves to the outside of cells
Explanation:
The presence of an excess of sodium ions in the extracellular fluid would make it hypertonic with respect to the intracellular fluid. The concentration gradient would drive the intracellular fluid towards the outside of the cell to balance the concentration of the fluids on either side. The passive movement of fluids occurs across the cells and is driven by the concentration gradient only. The biological membranes are permeable for fluid movement such as the movement of water across it.
How would genetic variation be affected if, during meiosis I, maternal chromosomes always lined up together on one side of the metaphase plate and paternal chromosomes always lined up on the other side?
Answer: There will be no genetic variability in the gametes produced.
Explanation:
Meiosis is a type of cell division to form gametes, which are haploid cells and genetically distinct from the cell that gave them their origin.
During the interphases of meiosis I, each chromosome is duplicated. And after that, during prophase I, the phenomenon of crossing over occurs which is the exchange of genetic material between male and female chromosomes.
In metaphase I, the homologous pairs of chromosomes align on the equatorial plate; and during anaphase I the spindle fibers pull them away and toward each pole of the cell. At the end, in telophase I, the chromosomes are enclosed in nuclei and the nuclear membrane is formed.
If the maternal chromosomes are aligned on one side and the paternal ones on the other, without crossing over having occurred, then the new formed gametes will have the same maternal or paternal genetic material according to which chromosomes they receive. This means that there will be no genetic variability in the gametes produced.
In pea plants, the peas produced may be green or yellow, with yellow being the dominant form of the allele. What would be the phenotype of a pea plant that is heterozygous for the alleles?
Answer:
yellow
Explanation:
mendel's law of dominance
What is the main structural difference between the somatic and autonomic nervous systems?
Answer:
The number of neurons needed to transmit signals
Explanation:
Somatic Nervous System: it regulates the voluntary movement of skeletal muscles, its major components are cranial and spinal nervesAutonomic Nervous System: its involuntarily managed, its major components are the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems and it acts on glans and smooth and cardiac muscles.Their main structural difference between both systems is that the somatic nervous system needs only one efferent neuron to transmit a signal while on the other hand, the autonomic nervous system needs two efferent neurons and ganglia to transmit a signal.
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Of the answer choices, what is the most likely reason that paracrine signaling does not activate the cell that is producing the signaling molecule? The cell's receptors have a mutation. The neighboring cells are too far away. The concentration of the signaling molecule is not high enough. The cell does not have the proper receptor.
Answer:
The correct answer is The cells do not have proper receptor.
Explanation:
During paracrine signaling a signaling molecules are generated from one cell.The generated signaling molecule then binds to the receptor of neighboring cell to carry specific signal from donor cell to the acceptor cell.
But the signaling molecules will not bind to the cell that is producing it because that producing cell do not contain proper receptor to bind that signaling molecule.
The binding of signaling molecule to the receptor of its producing cell occur during autocrine signaling.
Final answer:
The most likely reason paracrine signaling does not activate the signaling cell is that the cell lacks suitable receptors for that signal, ensuring signals are directed to and activate neighboring cells instead.
Explanation:
The most likely reason that paracrine signaling does not activate the cell producing the signaling molecule is that the cell does not have the proper receptor for that signal. Paracrine signals are those that are released by cells and act on adjacent nearby cells. For the signaling to be effective, the receiving cells must have appropriate receptors specific to the signaling molecules. Since the cell producing the signal is releasing it for neighbouring cells, it typically lacks receptors to respond to that specific signal or the receptors that are present don't bind to the cell's own signaling molecules as effectively. This specialization of cells ensures that signals are directed and that cells can coordinate behaviors in a localized manner without being activated by the signals they produce themselves.
In contrast, autocrine signaling involves cells that have receptors for the signals they produce, and thus, they can indeed activate themselves. However, in paracrine signaling, the signals move through the extracellular matrix and elicit quick responses. To ensure the response is localized, these signaling molecules are quickly degraded or removed, thereby preventing their activation of the producing cell and establishing a concentration gradient for efficient diffusion when released again.