Explanation:
Universal: made up of nucleotides (A T C G), forms codons of three nucleotides, each encodes an amino acid
Species or Individual: size of the genome, sequence of DNA
The nucleus is a large membrane-bound organelle that houses the genetic information, DNA, in the cell. Sequences of DNA make up genes which can have different forms called alleles and comprise the genotype. DNA is transcribed into mRNA and later translated into amino acids which are linked together by rRNA to form proteins. These proteins, when expressed, are referred to as an organism's phenotype.
Further Explanation:
All the genetic information within the eukaryotic cell is stored within the nucleus as helical DNA. This DNA is tightly wound around histones as chromosomes. Chromosomes within the nucleus is unwound, unzipped and read by enzymes in a complex series of steps known as transcription. The message on DNA, called genes is copied by RNA polymerase, to form mRNA complementary sequence to that of the DNA strand. These are then translated into proteins in ribosomes.
Large chains of monomers form biological macromolecules which carry out many essential functions in the body these can include nucleic acids, carbohydrates, proteins and lipids. These are organic molecules, meaning they're ringed or long-chain Carbons bonded to the elements oxygen (O), hydrogen (H), nitrogen (N) and phosphorus (P).
Proteins are structural support molecules comprised of long chains of amino acids joined via peptide (CONH) bonds; these are 20 specific units that are arranged into several macromolecules. Amino acids are absorbed through digestion and are incorporated into the body’s cells to make up organs muscles signal molecules and an alternative energy source.
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Which molecules can easily diffuse across a plasma membrane?
Gases like [tex]O_2[/tex] and [tex]CO_2[/tex] can easily diffuse across a plasma membrane.
Small, nonpolar compounds diffuse easily through plasma membranes. Examples of molecules are:
Oxygen : A tiny, nonpolar molecule that may pass through the lipid bilayer and diffuse from high concentrations (e.g., breathed air) to low concentrations (in cells).[tex]CO_2[/tex]: Another tiny, nonpolar molecule generated by cellular respiration. It diffuses from cells into the circulation and is exhaled from the lungs.Lipid-Soluble Molecules: Vitamins A, D, E, and K and steroid hormones like cortisol and testosterone can diffuse through the plasma membrane.These compounds can cross the plasma membrane's lipid bilayer without transport proteins. Simple diffusion happens down the concentration gradient from high to low concentrations.
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Small nonpolar molecules such as oxygen and carbon dioxide can easily diffuse through the lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane due to their size and lack of charge, while polar molecules, ions, and larger molecules require the help of transport proteins.
Explanation:The substances that can easily diffuse across a plasma membrane are typically small nonpolar molecules, such as oxygen and carbon dioxide. These molecules have no charge and can pass through the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane by simple diffusion. This is because the structure of the lipid bilayer allows these types of molecules to slip through the hydrophobic internal layer. However, polar substances, ions, and larger polar molecules like simple sugars and amino acids cannot easily cross the plasma membrane because their charge or size creates a barrier.
Transport proteins, including channel proteins and carrier proteins, provide a means for these substances to move across the membrane through a process known as facilitated diffusion. For example, glucose, which is a large and polar molecule, requires a specialized transport protein to enter the cell.
What genere of games involves gameplay that is designed to simulate real-world or fictionalized activities such as flying a plane or managing a city and often requires resource management?
Answer: The answer is Simulation Games
Explanation:
Simulation games are games that are designed to imitate or closely simulate real-world life activities. The players are able to control characters in the game, they are provided with a simulated environment in which they can play. The characters in the game copy real life activities such as flying a plane, managing a city as listed in the question, cooking, interacting with others, attending school or going to work, etc.
The genre of games that simulate real-world or fictional activities and require resource management is known as simulation games, including the likes of Second Life and Civilization.
Explanation:The genre of games that involves gameplay designed to simulate real-world or fictionalized activities, such as flying a plane or managing a city, and often incorporates elements of resource management, is typically known as simulation games. These games offer a sense of realism and challenge players to think strategically and make decisions as if they are in a real-life situation. Examples of simulation games include city-building games, flight simulators, and life simulation games like Second Life, wherein players create avatars and interact in a virtual world.
Simulation games can vary in complexity and scope. Some simulate a narrow set of activities, like running a farm in Farming Simulator, while others provide a broader canvas like managing an entire civilization in Civilization. The business models for such games can also be quite diverse, with some offering in-game purchases for virtual goods, which has turned playing into a potential source of income for some, as evidenced by the trend of buying, selling, and managing online assets for real money.
The actions of the rhomboid major on the scapula do not include __________.
Answer:
The answer is the rhomboids palpation
Explanation:
Subjects hand placed in the small of the back the rhomboids can be palpated through trapezium when the hand is moved backwards . Felt between the medial border of the scapula and vertebral column.
Collision of macromolecules in surface water produced particles that sink to the bottom, know as_______.a. Marine snowb. Macroalgaec. Nektond. Marine debris
Answer: It is called Marine snow.
Explanation:
Marine snow is the particulate matter that originate from the ocean. It is formed by collisions and combinations larger molecules(macromolecules) on surface water which later settles at the bottom. Marine snow may also be formed from decaying organic materials such a salp calony and house of a larvacean. Marine snow contains larger molecules of microorganism and protistans.
An advantage of asexual reproduction is that
a) it enhances genetic variability in the species.
b) allows the species to endure long periods of unstable environmental conditions.
c) enables the species to rapidly colonize habitats that are favorable to that species.
d) produces offspring that respond effectively to new pathogens.
e) allows a species to easily rid itself of harmful mutations.
Answer:
c) enables the species to rapidly colonize habitats that are favorable to that species is the correct answer.
Explanation:
An advantage of asexual reproduction is that enables the species to rapidly colonize habitats that are favorable to that species.
Asexual reproduction where offspring is produced from the single parent and it carries the genes of that parent.
In asexual reproduction, an organism is formed without the exchange of genetic material
In the asexual reproduction there no fusion of gametes,
Examples of asexual reproduction are fragmentation,binnary fission, spore formation, budding.
Advantage of asexual reproduction
occurs very rapidly.one parent is required for reproduction.The population increases quickly when the conditions are suitable.The skeletal system is not static in structure. Bones are constantly being broken down and rebuilt.Complete the statement about bone remodeling. _______________ is/are responsible for breaking down bone during remodeling.
Answer:
Osteoblast, osteocytes and osteoclasts are responsible for breaking down bone during remodeling.
Explanation:
The process which is responsible during bone formation in equally in initial and later stages of remodelling, they are the bigger cells which are responsible for the synthesis and mineralisation of bone. Osteocytes are the rich in cells in the bone tissue, which is helpful in detection of the mechanical loading, also manages the in bone formation and bone resorption. Osteoclast are cells that disintegrate the bone to start normal bone remodelling and also contemplate bone loss in pathologic condition by growing its resorptive capacity.
What must be true for a male individual to be a carrier of a Y-linked recessive allele?
A. The gene has no other alleles.
B. The gene is only expressed in females.
c The gene is silenced on the Y chromosome.
D. The gene is also found on the X chromosome.
Answer:
c The gene is silenced on the Y chromosome.
The genotype of chromosomes classified the humans as males and females. The females have XX chromosomes, whereas the males have XY chromosomes.
The male individual can be the carrier for a Y-linked recessive allele only when the gene on the Y chromosome is silenced.
The Y-linked recessive allele is:
Y-linked diseases such as webbed toes, porcupine man, and hypertrichosis are the diseases of the Y-linked recessive allele. The Y-chromosome does not have the same genetic makeup as an X-chromosome. The women cannot be a carrier for a Y-linked disease as the women have purebred XX chromosomes.Thus, the male can only be a carrier when the gene on Y-chromosome is silenced.Therefore, the correct answer is Option C.
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Barbara is tired all the time and feels overwhelmed by her workload. She is disengaging from her work and fellow employees. Her production is slowing down. She complains of headaches a lot. She is probably suffering from:
Barbara is likely suffering from job burnout, a condition characterized by emotional exhaustion, cynicism, and a reduced sense of personal accomplishment, often associated with symptoms like headaches, depression, anxiety, and decreased productivity.
Explanation:Barbara's symptoms of feeling tired all the time, feeling overwhelmed by her workload, disengaging from work, complaining of headaches, and a slowdown in production suggest that she could be suffering from job burnout. These symptoms fall in line with the general sense of emotional exhaustion, cynicism towards one's job, and a diminished sense of personal accomplishment that characterize job burnout. Factors such as work overload, little positive feedback, unsafe work environments, and frustration dealing with bureaucracy contribute to this condition. Moreover, symptoms like headaches, depression, anxiety, and reduced mental performance are commonly associated with job burnout.
It's also important to note that Barbara could be experiencing co-occurring health issues such as depression, as severe job burnout can lead to depressive disorders. Being exposed to chronically stressful work conditions is a significant risk factor for job burnout. In certain fields, particularly human service jobs, job burnout occurs frequently and is a serious concern.
. Which of the following statements is false? a) If two genes are to be expressed in a cell, these two genes can be transcribed with different efficiencies. b) RNA polymerase is responsible for both unwinding the DNA helix and for catalyzing the formation of the phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides. c) RNA has a uracil base and a ribose sugar. d) Some types of RNA have modified bases such as pseudouracil (Y), 5-methylcytosine, etc
Answer:
The correct answer is b RNA polymerase is responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix and for catalyzing the formation of phosphodiester bond between nucleotides.
Explanation:
DNA double helix is unwound by the catalytic activity of helicase or dna B by using the energy derived from the hydrolysis of ATP.
RNA polymerase helps in the polymerization of nucleotides b the formation of phosphodiester linkage present in RNA.
The false statement is b) RNA polymerase is responsible for both unwinding the DNA helix and for catalyzing the formation of the phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides. RNA polymerase catalyzes the bond formation but does not unwind the DNA; this task is performed by other proteins like helicases.
Explanation:The false statement among the options given is b) RNA polymerase is responsible for both unwinding the DNA helix and for catalyzing the formation of the phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides. This statement is incorrect; RNA polymerase is responsible for catalyzing the formation of phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides during the transcription process, but it is not responsible for unwinding the DNA helix. DNA unwinding is assisted by other proteins such as helicases.
During transcription, the DNA double helix partially unwinds to form a transcription bubble. The RNA polymerase reads the template strand and synthesizes a complementary strand of RNA that includes the base uracil (U) in place of thymine (T).
In eukaryotes, there are different types of RNA polymerase enzymes for transcribing various types of RNA. For example, RNA polymerase II is responsible for mRNA synthesis, while RNA polymerase I and III are involved in rRNA and tRNA synthesis, respectively.
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Which statement about operons is false?
A) The structural genes in the operon are either all on or all off at a given time.
B) They consist of a cluster of genes with a single promoter.
C) Their DNA is transcribed into a single molecule of mRNA.
D) They are the units of transcriptional regulation in prokaryotes.
E) A repressible operon is turned off unless needed.
Answer: All the statement are correct.
Explanation:
In prokaryotes, an operon are unit of transcription regulation, operon are functioning unit of DNA of which consists of cluster of related genes with a single promoter and an operator.
The structural genes in the operon are either all ON or OFF at the same time, because they are controlled by a single promoter and an operator. Represible or inducible operon are all turned of off unless needed.
The DNA of an operon are generally transcribed into a single mRNA molecule which is polycistronic that codes for more than one protein
The statement 'A repressible operon is turned off unless needed' is false. Repressible operons are normally 'on' and are turned 'off' if the pathway they control is not needed.
Explanation:The statement 'A repressible operon is turned off unless needed' is false. In reality, a repressible operon is typically in the 'on' state and is turned 'off' only if there is no need for the pathway it controls. These operons are typically involved in anabolic pathways. The remaining options are all true: The structural genes in the operon are indeed all on or all off at a given time, they consist of a cluster of genes with a single promoter, their DNA is transcribed into a single molecule of mRNA, and they are the units of transcriptional regulation in prokaryotes.
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Cells in a large multicellular organism communicate with each other by chemical signals. These signals are passed from one cell to another. To receive and respond to a chemical signal, a cell must have a _________ for that chemical.
Answer:
Receptor
Explanation:
Cells in a large multicellular organism communicate with each other by chemical signals. These signals are passed from one cell to another. To receive and respond to a chemical signal, a cell must have a
receptor for that chemical.
Cells in a large multicellular organism communicate with each other by chemical signals. These signals are passed from one cell to another. To receive and respond to a chemical signal, a cell must have a receptor for that chemical.
Receptors are specialized proteins or molecules located on the cell's surface or within the cell that bind to specific signaling molecules (ligands) released by other cells. When a ligand binds to its corresponding receptor, it triggers a series of molecular events within the cell, leading to a cellular response. This communication process is vital for coordinating various activities within a multicellular organism and ensuring proper physiological functions. Receptors are specific to particular signaling molecules, enabling cells to selectively respond to the appropriate signals and maintain homeostasis in the organism.
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All members of the plant kingdom have ________.A)oogamous sexual reproductionB)life cycle that includes both gametophyte and sporophyte generationsC)egg cells surrounded by a jacket of sterile cellsD)multicellular embryosE)All of the answer choices are correct.
Answer: Option D
All members of plants kingdom have multicellular embryos.
Explanation:
Kingdom plantae is the kingdom that includes all kind of plants, the seeds plant with and without flowers,green and brown algae, liverworts, mosses, ferns and so on. They all have multicellular embryos and they can undergo photosynthesids because of the presence of chloroplast.
This kingdom is divided into 5 divisions which are the peridophytes, bryophytes,thallophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms. The bryophytes have life cycle of both sporophyte and gametophyte. Oogamus sexual reproduction is found in many protist of the order of algae and some bryophtes like fern and mossess. Egg cells surrounded by a jacket of sterile cells is found in Antheridia and bryophytes.
Concerning proton movement in mitochondria and chloroplasts, the __________ have a __________ H+ concentration. Choose one: A. lumen in chloroplasts; low B. matrix in mitochondria; high C. stroma in chloroplasts; high D. intramembrane space in mitochondria; high
Answer: The answer is D - Intramembrane space in mitochondria; high
Explanation:
Mitochondria is an organelle in the cell, it is known as the power House of the cell because of its role in the storage and production of energy. During electron transport chain the proton pumps generate a proton gradient which is stored in form of energy.
During proton pumping and electron transfer the electrons are passed down the chain from the matrix to the inter membrane of the mitochondria. The electrons move from higher concentration of level to lower energy level. Some of these are used to pump Hydrogen ions (H+), moving them out of the matrix into the inter membrane space.
The Intramembrane space of the mitochondria therefore has a a high concentration of Hydrogen ions (H+).
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Although the law of independent assortment is generally applicable, when two loci are on the same chromosome the phenotypes of the progeny sometimes do not fit the phenotypes predicted. This is due to__________.
Answer:
Linkage
Explanation:
The existence of two loci on the same chromosome (linkage) increases the chances of the genes on these loci to assort or be inherited together.
The closer the two loci on the chromosome, the higher the chances of the two genes being inherited together and further apart they are, the lower the chances because the two genes are more likely to be separated during recombination.
Hence, if two loci on the same chromosome produce progeny that do not fit the predicted phenotypes according to the law of independent assortment, it means the two loci are linked.
The answer is linkage.
Answer:Variation in single and multiple genes.
Explanation:
This is due to changes in the sequence of nucleotides in the GENE on specific loci located on the chromosomes of the DNA molecule.
The change may be due MUTATION. Therefore the expression of phenotype may be different from Madelia laws of independent assortments of genes, because the genes may be linked together and assort jointly,(linkage), or some genes may not have full dominance over the other(incomplete dominance and codominance). Some alleles of another gene may mask or conceal the expression of other allele
Example of these exceptions to the independent assortments are Incomplete dominance, codominance, sex –linkage, epistasis, complementary genes.
A patient who reports nasal congestion is prescribed naphazoline, 2 drops in each nostril, every 6 hours, for 5 days. The patient reports increased nasal congestion after 10 days. On assessment the nurse learns that the patient had increased the drug frequency to every 3 hours for 10 days. Which statement describes what the nurse would interpret from this information?
Answer:
The patient has developed the condition called as rebound congestion
Explanation:
in rebound Condition, the situation of previous congestion becomes more severe and worse due to treatment of nasal congestion using medication .
rebound condition is caused due to overdose of the the medication used for treatment. Patient without knowing the consequences and trying to recover the condition quickly, increase the dose and frequency of nasal medication in the start of the nasal congestion which can result in severe condition and blockage of nasal breathing and can only be cured by surgery.
All but one of the following statements are true regarding the differences between early and late spermatids. Select the answer below that does not reflect a difference between early and late spermatids.
A) Early spermatids are round and have excessive cytoplasm.
B) Early spermatids have not undergone meiosis and are still diploid.
C) Early spermatids have not undergone spermiogenesis.
D) Early spermatids have not formed a flagella.
Answer:
B) Early spermatids have not undergone meiosis and are still diploid.
Explanation:
Spermatids are formed at the end of meiosis in the testes of male. Spermatids are haloid cells in which chromosome numbers are half as compared to their parent cells. An early spermatid has not undergone morphologic changes and is considered less mature than the late spermatid.
Late spermatids undergo morphological changes (spermiogenesis) and they transform into a spermatozoa which is ready to release in the lumen.
A purebred plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a purebred plant that produces green seeds. The F1 plants have yellow seeds. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of seed color of the offspring of an F1 × F1 cross?
Answer:
3 yellow : 1 green
Explanation:
Let yellow seed trait be represented by Y allele and green seed trait by y allele.
Purebred yellow seed plant = YY
Purebred green seed plant = yy
YY x yy = Yy, Yy, Yy, Yy (all yellow)
This thus means that yellow seed trait is dominant over green seed trait.
F1 x F1 = Yy x Yy, resulting in YY, Yy, Yy, yy offspring.
Since Y is dominant over y,
YY, Yy, Yy = Yellow
yy = green
Hence, the expected phenotypic ratio of seed color of the offspring of F1 x F1 cross is 3 yellow : 1 green
In a Mendelian genetics cross where yellow seed color is dominant over green, the expected phenotypic ratio of an F1 x F1 cross is 3 (yellow):1 (green).
Explanation:The question is about predicting the phenotypic ratio of seed color in the F2 generation of a cross between two F1 plants, which came from a purebred yellow seed plant and a purebred green seed plant. In the classic Mendelian genetics framework, yellow and green seed colors are controlled by a gene with two different alleles. In this case, yellow is the dominant trait and green the recessive trait.
For the F1 x F1 cross, each F1 plant is heterozygous, meaning they carry both the yellow (Y) and green (y) allele. If we use a Punnett square to determine the expected outcome from their cross, we would have:
YY, Yy, and yy.
However, because the yellow (Y) is dominant, both YY and Yy will have a yellow phenotype. Thus, the phenotypic ratio expected of seed color in the offspring from F1 x F1 would then be 3 (yellow): 1(green).
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A Morton's (plantar) neuroma is a foot condition due to swelling of the common plantar digital nerve. It can cause excruciating pain felt between the third and fourth metatarsal bones when walking. Which of the following would NOT be a factor responsible for this disorder?
a) nerve compression
b) nerve irritation
c) nerve injury
d) nerve thinning
Answer:
Nerve thinning.
Explanation:
Morton's neuroma may be defined as the painful condition that affects the ball of the foot and the area between the fourth and third toes. This might occur due to the pressure or injury.
The Morton neuroma mainly occurs due to the thickening of the nerve that may cause nerve compression, irritation and might also cause nerve in the injury. The nerve thinning is not responsible for this condition. The thinning of the nerve might causes diseases related to eyes.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
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Which of the following blood vessels would have the highest blood pressure?
A. A dilated vessel with high blood volume
B. A constricted vessel with high blood volume
C. A dilated vessel with low blood volume
D. A constricted vessel with low blood volume
B because it is constricted vessel that has the highest blood volume or pressure.
The highest blood pressure would be found in a constricted vessel with high blood volume due to increased resistance combined with a large volume of blood.
The blood vessel that would have the highest blood pressure is B. A constricted vessel with high blood volume. Blood pressure, which is the force exerted by circulating blood on the walls of blood vessels, is influenced by several factors including vessel diameter and blood volume. A constricted vessel reduces the lumen size through which the blood can flow, resulting in increased resistance. Combined with high blood volume, this resistance further elevates the blood pressure within the vessel. By contrast, dilation of a blood vessel allows for more space and therefore less pressure for the same volume of blood.
A woman who has blood type A positive has a daughter who is type O positive and a son who is type B negative. Rh positive is a trait that shows simple dominance over Rh negativeand is designated by the alleles R and r, respectively. A third gene for the MN blood group has codominant alleles M and N.
Which of the following is a possible phenotype for the father?
A) A negativeB) O negativeC) B positiveD) AB negativeE) impossible to determine
Answer:
C) B positive is the right answer
Explanation:
Codominance
ABO blood group is an example of co dominance. According to this
Two alleles are both dominant, So A and B are both co dominant, they will express and I allele which will be recessive.
Type A-------------- AA or Ai
Type B---------------BB or Bi
Type AB------------- AB
Type O--------------- ii
Rh antigen is dominant to Rh- (for positive and negative due to presence of Rh antigen
So for Rh+ = RR (homozygous dominant) and Rr (heterozygous dominant)
Rh-= rr (homozygous recessive)
Given conditions in the questions
Given type Alleles for type Allele for Rh antigen
Type A Woman A+ Ai Rr
Daughter Type O+ ii R?
Son type B- Bi rr
Father type Bi Rr or rr
• As mother is A positive, so definitely the son got his B allele from the father, so father should have allele.
• So as the daughter is ii, so it means the daughter is getting one i allele from mother and other i allele came from the father
• As the son have B allele which comes from father, so what is son getting from mother? Definitely he is getting i allele from mother because that the only way mother can donate to the son and not change his blood type.
• No we know that the son is rr for Rh antigen, which means that he is getting one r from mother because she must have a little r to donate to her son and one r from father
The father is either type B Positive BiRr or type B Negative Birr, but we have no other answer than type B positive in the multiple option. This is the possibility
Robert Sternberg distinguished among analytical, creative, and _____ intelligence.
Please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button.
spatial
musical
practical
interpersonal
The correct answer to Robert Sternberg's three types of intelligence—analytical, creative, and the missing type—is practical intelligence.
Explanation:Robert Sternberg distinguished among three types of intelligence in his triarchic theory of intelligence: analytical, creative, and practical intelligence. Analytical intelligence relates to the ability to analyze, evaluate, judge, compare, and contrast. Creative intelligence involves the ability to create, design, invent, originate, and imagine. The correct answer to the student's question is practical intelligence, which is sometimes likened to 'street smarts' and involves the ability to use knowledge and experience to handle everyday tasks and solve real-world problems effectively.
At each stage of production, sterility of the preparation is a major consideration. When considering appropriate measures to implement to control microbial growth, one must think about the susceptibility of possible microbial contaminants. Apply your knowledge of the structural features of microbes and the mechanisms of action for antimicrobial agents to rank the following microbes according to their susceptibility.
Gram-negative bacteria
prions
endospores
enveloped virus
Grampositive bacteria
Answer:
According to the susceptibility towards antimicrobial agent the ranking from most susceptible to least susceptible is as:
enveloped virus > gram-positive bacteria > gram-negative bacteria > endospores > prions
Enveloped viruses are most susceptible because their envelope is made up of lipid which is easily disrupted or degraded by antimicrobial agents like detergent.
Gram-positive bacteria are only having one layer of cells wall that is made up of peptidoglycan which is susceptible to most antibiotics but gram-negative bacterial have an extra outer layer of covering made up of lipopolysaccharide so many of them show multidrug-resistance.
Endospore are among the most resistant microbial structure which is formed outer to cell wall and do not allow most antimicrobials to enter the cell.
Prions are infectious protein so antimicrobial agent do not work on prions and it also resist its chemical degradation therefore it is least susceptible.
Final answer:
Microorganisms' susceptibility to sterilization varies, with enveloped viruses being the most sensitive and prions the most resistant. Between these, Gram-positive bacteria are more susceptible than Gram-negative, and endospores are highly resistant requiring strong sterilants.
Explanation:
Ranking Microbial Susceptibility
Control of microbial growth and ensuring sterility in medical and laboratory settings is crucial. Microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and prions, show varying degrees of susceptibility to physical and chemical control methods. The susceptibility of these microbes can be ranked based on their structural features and how they respond to sterilizing agents.
Enveloped viruses: Because of their lipid membranes, they are the most sensitive to chemical and physical agents.Gram-positive bacteria: Their thick peptidoglycan layer provides some resistance, but they are generally more susceptible than Gram-negative bacteria to chemical agents.Gram-negative bacteria: The outer membrane in Gram-negative bacteria offers additional protection, making them more resistant to chemicals than Gram-positive bacteria.Endospores: These dormant forms of bacteria are highly resistant due to their tough outer layers. Sterilants are often required to ensure their eradication.Prions: The most resistant, prions are misfolded proteins that are extremely difficult to inactivate through standard sterilization processes.Explain Pollan's assertion that both Chapman and the apple "have been sweetened beyond recognition. Figures of tart wildness, both have been thoroughly domesticated...in both cases a cheap, fake sweetness has been substituted for the real thing." Who/what else have we done this to? Why?
Answer:
The answer is apple and chapman
Explanation:
Because Pollan means that both the apple and chapman have had their histories rewritten to be more simple and less interesting. The Disney/ storybook image paints Johnny Appleseeds image of a burlap-scak wearing gallivanting do-gooder who sprinkled seeds through the countryside, and the apple is now known as this haelthy whole some fruit, when in reality its origins were in hard cider and John Chaoman had this child bride which is problematic but ignored.
Pollan's assertion refers to the domestication and modification of Johnny Appleseed's image and apples, which is illustrative of a broader phenomenon of altering organisms for human preferences, such as the transformation of wild wheat into a staple crop and the breeding of sweeter corn varieties.
Explanation:Michael Pollan's assertion that both Johnny Appleseed (Chapman) and the apple "have been sweetened beyond recognition" speaks to the broader idea of domestication and modification, which can also relate to the changes humans have enacted upon various plants and animals. This domestication often leads to a 'cheap, fake sweetness,' replacing what was originally a more complex or 'tart wildness.' Just as Johnny Appleseed's image and apples themselves have been transformed to suit cultural and consumer preferences, we have similarly altered other organisms for our benefit.
Using wheat as an example, what began as a wild plant has been transformed into a staple crop that is grown globally, largely due to human intervention. This intervention included clearing land and protecting the wheat from natural competitors and predators, essentially securing its prevalence. This relationship raises the philosophical question coined by Harari: "Did we domesticate wheat, or did it domesticate us?" indicating a reciprocal influence between humans and the crops they cultivate.
Furthermore, the development of sweet corn exemplifies our penchant for enhancing the sweetness of produce, making it more desirable to the human palate. In doing so, we've often forsaken the nutritional complexity and ecological relationship that plants originally had. This pursuit for sweetness and desirability extends beyond food to other aspects of consumption, as seen in the marketing of commodities in a supermarket, questioning the very nature of our consumer choices.
Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by an organism that enters the body through the gastrointestinal tract?
a.leprosy
b.polio
c.infant botulism
d.adult listeriosis
Answer:
The correct answer is A) Leprosy.
Explanation:
Leprosy is not caused by organisms entering the gastrointestinal tract. The polio virus is often transmitted by drinking water contaminated with the polio virus especially in regions with low hygiene standards. Infant botulism is caused by ingesting spores of the strain C. botulinum. In the small intestine, the spores start to colonize and multiply. The cause for adult listeriosis is in most cases the ingestion of food contaminated with L. monocytogenes.
An organ system consists of An organ system consists of a. a group of coordinated tissues. b. blood, lymph, and other body fluids. c. organs that collectively perform a vital body function. d. a collection of similar cells.
An organ system consists of organs that work together to carry out a vital body function. These systems include groups of organs that coordinate with various cells and tissues for the survival of the organism.
Explanation:An organ system in the context of biology refers to c. organs that collectively perform a vital body function. This organ system comprises different organs working in harmony, which, in turn, coordinate with various cells and tissues. These organs collectively perform a specific function that is crucial to the survival of the organism. For instance, the digestive system, including the stomach, small intestine, and large intestine, works together to break down food, absorb nutrients, and eliminate waste.
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In humans, the trait of freckles exhibits simple Mendelian inheritance patterns. The allele for freckles is dominant (F), and the allele for no freckles is recessive (f). An individual who is heterozygous for freckles would have which of the following phenotypes?
A) Freckles
B) No freckles
C) Ff
D) FF
E) ff
Answer:
The correct answer is A) Freckles
Explanation:
Freckles is a genetic disorder that is controlled by the MC1R gene which is signified by the overproduction of melanin pigment on body and face. Freckles is controlled by the dominant allele so it show dominant inheritance pattern.
Therefore if an individual has even one freckle allele then this disorder will be seen in the phenotype. A person will not have freckles if it has both the recessive allele i.e., ff.
Therefore an individual who is heterozygous for freckles would have freckle phenotype because it contain one dominant allele for freckles which will express in the phenotype. So the right answer is A.
Why might a species' "optimal" phenotype remain unchanged for long periods of time, resulting in apparent evolutionary stasis?a. Directional selection b. Habitat tracking c. Gradual environmental change d. Saltational evolution e. Passive trends
Answer: Habitat tracking
Explanation:
The organism change their habitat based on the type of environment they are living in. The climate change so did the habitat and according to that the biota changed.
The number of species are always changing. As the environment change the resident population move to a place where there is a better suited environment for them.
The optimal phenotype in this case does not changes and this common response is called habitat tracking.
If a neurotransmitter attaches to a ligand-gated channel and creates a potential that causes the inside of the excitable cell membrane to become less negative, and this potential travels only a short distance before dying out, it is considered to be a(n)______.
Answer:
If a neurotransmitter attaches to a ligand-gated channel and creates a potential that causes the inside of the excitable cell membrane to become less negative, and this potential travels only a short distance before dying out, it is considered to be a depolarized graded potential.
Explanation:
We talk about a graded potential when a small change in membrane potential occurs is proportional to the size of the stimulus, usually they do not travel long distances along the neuron membrane, but a short distance and decrease as they propagate to end disappearing. If a graded potential is strong enough it can lead to action potential.
The depolirization occurs when a stimulus reaches the neuron producing an electrochemical change or disturbance where ions (Na) enter the cell, and in this way the membrane potential becomes less negative (more positive). It propagates along the membrane, but when it reaches the axon, the release of neurotransmitters occurs, which when in contact with the adjacent neuronal membrane exerts on it the action of a stimulus (that is, ionic changes are made).
Which of the following statements about dominant traits is correct?a) They are observed three-fourths as frequently as heterozygous traits.b) The dominant trait is typically masked by the recessive trait.c) They are observed less frequently than recessive traits.d) They increase in frequency over evolutionary time.e) The dominant trait is the one which is expressed.
Answer:
Option E
Explanation:
A dominant trait is the characteristics associated with an allele which is expressed even if only one dominant allele is present in any allele pair.
For example - Let us say that “R” represents the allele for red colour and “r” represents the allele for white allele.
Also, red colour allele is dominant over white colour allele.
Thus in an allele pair “Rr” the colour expressed would be red as it is a dominant trait.
The white colour alleles in an allele pair would be expressed only when both the alleles are recessive.
Hence, option E is correct
The correct statement about dominant traits is that they are the traits which get expressed. This is because a dominant trait overrides the expression potential of a recessive trait and is observed in the phenotype.
Explanation:The statement that is correct about dominant traits is: e) The dominant trait is the one which is expressed. To understand this, let's first define what a dominant trait is in biology. A dominant trait is an inherited characteristic that appears in an offspring if one parent contributes it. The term dominant refers to the fact that the dominant trait overrides the potential influence of a recessive trait. The dominant trait is always expressed in an individual's physical appearance, or phenotype, while a recessive trait is only expressed if the individual has two copies of the recessive gene (is homozygous recessive).
Learn more about Dominant Trait here:https://brainly.com/question/3010932
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What type of division (meiosis or mitosis) does the diploid zygote of an animal have to go through (usually many times) in order to give rise to all of the cells in the adult body?
Answer:
Mitosis
Explanation:
A zygote is a fertilized egg. This zygote needs continuous growth in order to develop into a grown adult. The growth involves generating new somatic or body cells through cell division. A parent cell in the zygote divides to produce identical copies of itself. This way, genetic information is passed on the the new arising daughter cells. To do this, the parent cell must first replicate its DNA and the process of separating this duplicated DNA into two identical cells is known as mitosis.
Mitosis is a type of cell division that involves the production of daughter cells that are genetically identical copies of the parent cell and also the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.
As cells divide, duplication occurs. As cell multiplies, growth is occurring in the organism. The zygote keeps undergoing growth division (mitosis) till it gives rise to all the cells in an adult.
On the other hand, Meiosis is also a type of cell division but it is a division mainly involved in reproduction not growth. Reproductive cells divide to give rise to daughter cells (gametes) that have a reduced number of chromosomes.