Answer:
1/2 of the cells.
Explanation:
DNA replication is a semiconservative process which means that one strand of each of the two DNA double helices formed after one round of DNA replication is the parental strand and the other one is the newly formed strand.
Given that a population of the cells was infected with 32P-labeled viruses which would insert its DNA into the host cell's DNA, after one generation of cell division, the 32-P labeled DNA would be present in one strand of all the DNA molecules present in all the cells.
After the second generation of cell division, the 32-P labeled parental strand would be present in 1/2 of the total cells while the rest half of the cells would have only the normal DNA.
Final answer:
After infecting cells with 32P-labeled viruses and allowing two generations of cell division, 32P-labeled DNA should be found in half of the cells due to semi-conservative DNA replication.
Explanation:
When you infect a population of cells with 32P-labeled viruses and then let the infected cells go through two generations of cell divisions, we must consider how DNA replicates and is passed on to daughter cells. As DNA replication is semi-conservative, each new cell will receive one original (labeled) and one new (unlabeled) strand of DNA after the first division. After two divisions, assuming no errors or mutations, each cell will have either one strand of 32P-labeled DNA (from the first generation cells that had one labeled and one unlabeled strand) or no labeled DNA (from the first generation cells that had two unlabeled strands).
Therefore, after two rounds of cell division, the 32P label will be distributed among all four possible combinations of daughter cells. Specifically, after the first division, all cells will have 32P-labeled DNA, but after the second division, only half of the resulting cells will contain 32P-labeled DNA because each cell divides into two, with only one inheriting the labeled DNA template. As a result, you should find 32P-labeled DNA in half of the cells after two generations of cell division.
The lungs are perfused by two circulations: the pulmonary and the bronchial. The pulmonary circulation is for oxygenation of blood. The bronchial circulation supplies blood to the lung structures (tissue).True / False.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Pulmonary circulation transports blood through the alveoli for gas exchange. In this circulation the blood that comes from the veins initially has low oxygenation, and then leaves the right ventricle of the heart through the pulmonary artery, enters the lungs and returns to the heart with arterial and oxygenated blood
The bronchial circulation is well oxygenated and provides oxygen to the lungs. The structures to which this oxygen contributes in lungs are those that do not participate in a gas exchange.
In a repeated-measures experiment, each individual participates in one treatment condition and then moves on to a second treatment condition. One of the major concerns in this type of study is that participation in the first treatment may influence the participant's score in the second treatment. This problem is referred to as _________.
a. individual differences
b. homogeneity of variance
c. bi-treatment effect
d. order effects
Answer:
Explanation:
a
The primary purpose of the basic economic order quantity model is
a. to calculate the reorder point, so that replenishments take place at the proper time
b. to minimize the sum of carrying cost and holding cost
c. to maximize the customer service level
d. to minimize the sum of setup cost and holding cost e. to calculate the optimum safety stock
Answer:
D. to minimize the sum of setup cost and holding cost e. to calculate the optimum safety stock
Explanation:
Economic order quantity ( EOQ ) is formulated as :
[tex]EOQ= \sqrt[]{\frac{2C_O D}{C_h} }[/tex]
Co = Ordering cost
D = annual demand
Ch = Annual unit holding cost
Economic quantity is the order quantity which minimizes sum of annual cost of ordering and annual inventory holding cost so to minimize the overall cost of the inventory.
ANSWER : d) to minimize the sum of setup cost and holding cost that is to calculate the optimum safety stock.
Eddie has been feeling very lethargic lately and the doctors think he may have a thyroid problem. They told him the problem could be originating in his brain or at the gland. If it is beginning in his brain, it is coming from his _____ nervous system, and if it is beginning in his gland, it is coming from his _____ nervous system.
The answers are central and peripheral
Final answer:
Eddie's lethargy may be related to a problem with the central nervous system (brain-based) or the endocrine system (thyroid gland issue). Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) deficiency can cause weight gain and fatigue because it leads to insufficient thyroid hormone production, which slows metabolism.
Explanation:
If the issue with Eddie's energy levels is originating in his brain, it would be related to the central nervous system (CNS), which includes the brain and spinal cord and is responsible for integrating sensory information and responding accordingly. The CNS regulates the activity of all parts of the body and is where the production of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is controlled, specifically by the pituitary gland in response to signals from the hypothalamus. If the problem originates in his gland, it is related to the endocrine system, which is composed of glands that produce and secrete hormones. The thyroid gland is a part of this system and would be where the hormonal issue would be present if it's not a problem with CNS signaling.
Terry's recent weight gain and fatigue might be due to a deficiency of TSH because this hormone stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate the body's metabolism. If his body does not produce enough TSH, the thyroid may not release sufficient levels of thyroid hormones, leading to a slower metabolism, which can result in weight gain and feelings of lethargy.
Hamid et al. (2010) had participants navigate a maze while recording their eye movements. The maze contained landmarks on the walls at corners and at other positions that would not aid maze navigation. After participants learned the maze, the researchers removed half of the landmarks. The results of this study revealed that _____.
a. performance decreased when landmarks were removed that had been viewed longer.
b. participants did not notice that the landmarks were missing and their performance was uneffected.
c. participants had been relying on all landmarks to navigate.
d. performance increased when non-informative landmarks were removed.
Answer:
The correct answer is option a. "performance decreased when landmarks were removed that had been viewed longer".
Explanation:
Hamid and collaborators while recording eye movement in a group of participants that were trying to figure out how to navigate a maze. Part of the study was to put landmarks that would not aid maze navigation and then remove them. Even tough the landmarks would not aid maze navigation they helped the participants in other means, probably the ones located at corners were most helpful and the ones that were there since the study started. This is explained by the fact that performance decreased when landmarks were removed that had been viewed longer.
All living things are made up of carbon. This is because
A: carbon has the ability to form single bonds, double bonds, triple bonds, and rings and form large macromolecules.
B: carbon forms very unstable bonds with all elements except for itself.
C: carbon can only form small chains of macromolecules.
D :carbon likes to make 6 bonds with many other kinds of elements and form large macromolecules.
All living things are made up of carbon primarily because carbon atoms can form diverse stable covalent bonds, including single, double, and triple bonds, as well as rings, which enables the formation of complex and large macromolecules necessary for life.
Explanation:All living things are made up of carbon because it has unique properties that are crucial for forming the complex molecules of life. The correct answer to why carbon is so basic to life is A: carbon has the ability to form single bonds, double bonds, triple bonds, and rings and form large macromolecules. Carbon atoms can form covalent bonds with up to four different atoms. This versatility allows carbon to form the backbone of macromolecules such as proteins, nucleic acids (DNA and RNA), carbohydrates, and lipids. Carbon's bonding capabilities enable it to form stable and diverse molecular structures, including straight chains, branched chains, and rings, which in turn are responsible for the variety of functions of biological macromolecules.
Final answer:
Carbon is fundamental to life because it can form single, double, triple bonds, and rings to create large macromolecules. It's the bonding versatility of carbon that enables it to serve as the backbone for crucial biological compounds. Carbon's unique capacity to bond in multiple ways underpins the structural diversity and complexity of life’s molecules.
Explanation:
All living things are made up of carbon because of option A: carbon has the ability to form single bonds, double bonds, triple bonds, and rings and form large macromolecules. Carbon is a unique element with the capacity to form stable covalent bonds with up to four different atoms, enabling the construction of complex molecules essential for life. These can range from simple organic molecules to the polymers that make up life's crucial macromolecules like proteins and carbohydrates.
Carbon's versatility is due to its four valence electrons, allowing for a variety of stable bonding patterns, including chains, branching chains, and rings—structures foundational to biological macromolecules. This bond diversity is the reason why carbon can form a vast array of organic compounds, making it indispensable to life's chemical processes.
The carbon atoms may form large macromolecular structures by bonding with other carbon atoms or with other elements like nitrogen, oxygen, and phosphorus. These formations underlie the structural and functional diversity of organic molecules in living systems. Unlike other elements, carbon's ability to form an extensive range of varying sized and shaped molecules contributes to its fundamental role in biology.
Why isn’t the Gram stain used on Acid fast bacteria? If you did Gram stain acid-fast bacteria, what would their Gram reaction be? What is the Gram reaction of non-acid-fast bacteria?
Answer:
Acid fast bacteria are stain by the gram process but it retains the red color like the gram negative. The result will show a false positive to a negative gram bacteria.
Explanation:
The acid fast bacteria are 4 groups of bacteria ( Mycobacterium, Nocardia, Corynebacterium, Clostridium) that have the characteristic that they posses a high concentration of micolic acid. This characteristic is sensible to be dye by the gramm process, because the chemicals are not attract among them. To be dye, this kind of bacteria, is necessary used heat and the presence of phenol.
The Gram stain is not used on acid-fast bacteria due to their unique cell wall structure with a layer of waxy mycolic acids, making them retain the acid-fast stain instead. Non-acid-fast bacteria can be identified by Gram stain procedure, showing up as either gram-positive or gram-negative.
Explanation:The Gram stain isn't used on acid-fast bacteria because it wouldn't accurately identify them due to their unique cell wall structure. Acid-fast bacteria, such as members of the Mycobacteriaceae family, have an extra layer of waxy mycolic acids in their cell walls, which resists the decolorizing process of the Gram stain procedure.
If you attempted to Gram stain acid-fast bacteria, the result would be inconclusive as they may not properly retain the stain due to their special cell wall structure. Therefore, the acid-fast staining protocol, which uses carbolfuchsin as the primary stain, is necessary. In this process, acid-fast cells retain the carbolfuchsin dye even after a decolorizing agent is applied.
Normal (non-acid-fast) bacteria do not have the waxy mycolic acid layer. They can be correctly identified by the Gram stain procedure. These could show gram-positive or gram-negative reaction based on their cell wall structure. Gram-positive bacteria have a thicker peptidoglycan layer which retains the purple crystal-violet stain, while Gram-negative bacteria have a thinner peptidoglycan layer and do not retain the crystal-violet stain but take up the red counterstain, safranin.
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MARK AS BRAINLIEST!!! ANSWER CORRECTLY
Question 1
_____ is the plant pigment that absorbs most wavelengths of visible light, except green.
a. Chlorophyll
b. Chloroplast
c. Chromatin
d. Codacrome
Question 2
Both the wine industry and the bread industry use the process of alcoholic fermentation. In what way does their use of alcoholic fermentation differ?
a. The wine industry uses the alcohol to make the wine; the bread industry uses the carbon dioxide to make the bread dough rise.
b. The wine industry uses the carbon dioxide to make the wine; the bread industry uses the alcohol to make the bread dough rise.
c. The wine and bread industry uses the alcohol; but the carbon dioxide is a waste product only fond in lactic acid fermentation.
d. They do not differ- both products are used equally by these two industries.
Question 3
Mrs. Wright (who is always right, just ask her), is caring for her son's prize tomato plants while he attends a Tomatologist Conference.
She brings them into the house due to a pending ice storm and places them in a dark room. She provides plenty of water and soil nutrients, but does not turn on the lights to conserve energy.
Which of the following is most likely to occur first?
a. Light dependent cycle will continue at the same rate with adequate water and nutrients.
b. Fermentation will begin in the chloroplasts of the leaf cells.
c. Photosynthesis will end abruptly as Mrs. Wright is a plant murderer.
d. Calvin cycle will continue fast long as the products from the light dependent cycle and CO2 are available.
Question 4
The process by which plants capture energy from the sun and uses it to make food for themselves is called _.
a. alcoholic fermentation
b. photosynthesis
c. lactic acid fermentation
d. cellular respiration
Question 5
If you run as fast as you can, your muscles may begin to feel weak and have a burning sensation. Explain what is occurring in your muscle cells that accounts for this muscle fatigue.
a. inadequate supply of oxygen to muscle cells leads to lactic acid fermentation
b. excessive supply of ATP to muscle cells leads to hypertonic conditions
c. excessive supply of oxygen to muscle cells leads to mitochondrial autolysis
d. inadequate supply of glucose to muscle cells leads to alcohol fermentation
Question 6
Cells store energy when:
a. the third phosphate group breaks off from an ATP molecule.
b. a third phosphate group is bonded to an ADP molecule
c. they break down sucrose to glucose and fructose.
d. ions are released into the bloodstream.
Question 1: A.)
Question 2: i would say A.)
Question 3: C.)
Question 4: B.)
Question 5: A.)
Question 6: B.)
Hope this heslp
Chlorophyll is the green pigment found on the plants that absorbs light energy used by plants for the production of plant food. but due to the green coloration it does not absorb visible green light .
photosynthesis occurs in the presence of light therefore when the room is dark the process of photosynthesis will stop in the plants.
when our muscle cells lacks the required amount of oxygen supply we start to feel some form of fatigue due the lactic acid fermentation.
Hence we can conclude that the correct answers to the questions are as listed above. ( A , A , C, B, A, B )
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A biologist hypothesizes that a squirrels body size is affected by the inclusion of a particular type of food in its diet. Which is the best method the scientist could use to prove this hypothesis?
Answer take one piece of the squirrels diet away and see if anything has changed, if not give it that part back and take something else. repeat till change happens if nothing happens then change hypothesis
[HELP ASAP]
Which line shows the reaction using an enzyme?
a. reaction 2
b. reaction 3
c. reaction 1
d. none of the reactions
Answer: b. reaction 3
Explanation: When an enzyme is present in a reaction acts as a catalyst, increasing velocity of reaction and decreasing the activation energy, when not present an enzyme the reaction velocity is very low and implies high activation energy, being unfavorable to the system
Consider a culture medium on which only gram-positive organisms such as Staphylococcus aureus colonies can grow due to an elevated NaCl level. A yellow halo surrounds the growth, indicating the bacterium fermented a sugar in the medium, decreasing the pH as a result and changing the color of a pH indicator chemical. This type of medium would be referred to as a(n) _________.
Answer:
selective and differential medium .
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it seems that this type of medium would be referred to as a selective and differential medium . This is because such high NaCL levels are designed to stimulate and allow selective bacteria to grow, while also differential media because the fermented sugar is giving off a yellow halo which allows for the differentiate between the bacteria.
I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.
The medium discussed is called Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA), which is both selective for halotolerant bacteria and differential due to the presence of mannitol and a pH indicator, phenol red.
Explanation:The medium described in your question is known as Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA). This medium is a selective and differential medium - selective because it contains a high NaCl concentration that inhibits the growth of many bacteria but allows halotolerant bacteria like Staphylococcus aureus to grow, and differential because it contains mannitol and a pH indicator, phenol red. When Staphylococcus aureus ferments mannitol, it produces acid, causing the pH to drop and the phenol red to change color from red to yellow, indicating a positive fermentation reaction.
A nursing instructor is explaining the stages of fetal development to a group of nursing students. The instructor determines the session is successful after the students correctly choose which time period as representing the pre-embyonic stage?
a. From fertilization and to the end of the second week .
b. Approximately 2 weeks after fertilization and to the end of the eighth week.
c. Approximately 9 weeks after fertilization and to birth.
d. Approximately 6 weeks after fertilization and to the end of 8 weeks.
The correct answer is A. From fertilization and to the end of the second week
Explanation:
Fetal or embryonic development includes different stages from fertilization to birth. The first stage is the pre-embryonic stage, this occurs after fertilization and lasts the two first weeks of pregnancy, it is called pre-embryonic stage because during this there is no an embryo but the zygote implants and later different processes of cell division occur. Additionally, the pre-embryonic stage is followed by the embryonic stage (week 3 to 8) and finally the fetus stage (week 9 to birth). According to this, if students have correctly learned about fetal development they should choose "from fertilization and to the end of the second week" as the period for the pre-embryonic stage.
The female I-1 and her mate, male I-2, had four children, one of whom has albinism. What is the probability that they could have had a total of four children with any other outcome except one child with albinism and three with normal pigmentation?
Answer:
75% chance of having four normal phenotype children without albinism.
50% chance of having four children who are carriers of the gene with normal phenotype.
Explanation:
Albinism results from an autosomal recessive gene. In order to solve this problem we have to draw a punnet square and figure out the genotypes of the parents. So with the genotype of the parents both parents have to be carriers of the trait since it is an autosomal recessive trait.
Genotype of female I-1 = Aa
Genotype of male I-1 = Aa
PARENTS A a
A AA Aa
a Aa aa
75% chance of having four normal phenotype children without albinism.
50% chance of having four children who are carriers of the gene with normal phenotype.
25% chance of having children with albinism.
The probability of the parents having any other outcome except for one child with albinism and three with normal pigmentation is approximately 32%, based on the principals of Mendelian genetics.
Explanation:The probability of I-1 and I-2 having an outcome of four children without at least one child being albino is based on Mendelian genetics principles. Albinism is a recessive genetic disorder, meaning that both parents must contribute an albino allele for a child to exhibit albinism. Assuming both parents are heterozygous for albinism (each carries one albino allele and one normal allele), the probability of them having a child with albinism is 25%, or 1 in 4. However, probability applies independently to each child they have, and is not influenced by the outcomes of previous offspring.
In this scenario, the possible genetic combinations for the children are: two normal pigmentation alleles (NN), one normal and one albino allele resulting in normal pigmentation (Nn or nN), or two albino alleles (nn). The probability for each child to be NN or Nn/nN (normal pigmentation) is 75%, while the probability for a child to be nn (albino) is 25%. Therefore, the probability of having four consecutive children without albinism (NN or Nn/nN) is (0.75)^4 = 0.3164 or approximately 32%. So, there is a 32% chance of them having an outcome of four children all with normal pigmentation.
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Chitin is a long-chain polymer derived from glucose. It strengthens cell walls of fungi and the outer covering (exoskeleton) of arthropods (including crabs, shrimps, and insects). The presence of chitin in these groups is likely due to ________.
Answer:
The correct answer is: convergent evolution
Explanation:
Convergent evolution is a type of evolution, in which analogous traits or analogous structures are formed in organisms that are not closely related, due to their exposure to similar environmental conditions.
It is a type of independent evolution in which the species of different ancestry evolve analogous traits or structures in order to adapt to similar environmental conditions.
Therefore, the presence of chitin in the cell walls of fungi and the exoskeletons of arthropods is most likely due to convergent evolution.
Wind is considered to be an abiotic becomes it
A client is cutting vegetable for dinner and accidently cuts his finger. What response is desirable to destroy foreign agents such as microorganisms to prevent infection from developing in the finger?
Answer: out of curiosity is this question short response and if so are there any parameters to stay in because if we are being very technical the "client" could kill himself and not have to worry about any form of infection.
Final answer:
To prevent infection from developing in a cut finger, the wound should be cleaned with soap and water, followed by an antiseptic, and kept covered with a sterile bandage. This approach helps to degerm the area and assists the body's second line of immune defense in destroying any microorganisms that may have entered the wound.
Explanation:
When a client cuts their finger while cutting vegetables, it's important to promptly address the wound to prevent infection. The first step would be to clean the cut thoroughly to remove any foreign agents such as microorganisms. This is an example of degerming, which significantly reduces microbial numbers on living tissues using a mild chemical, like soap and water, followed by an antiseptic like hydrogen peroxide or alcohol to disinfect the area. If bacteria do enter the wound, they would face the body's innate immune system, specifically the second line of defense, which includes various immune cells and responses that would work to destroy the foreign agents and prevent infection from developing.
Additionally, it's important to keep the wound clean and covered with a sterile bandage to protect it from further exposure to pathogens. In the event of a serious cut or signs of infection, seeking medical attention is imperative to receive proper wound care, which could involve debridement, the removal of dead or infected tissue, to prevent an infection from spreading.
Sally and Sam wanted to collect worms so they could go fishing. Sally dug a hole in the garden but did not find many. Sam went to the woods and dug a hole under some dead leaves. He found more than Sally.
Which of the following is NOT an example of bioremediation?
using bacteria to make antibiotics and vitamins
using bacteria to break down the organic matter in sewage sludge
using bacteria to clean up oil spills
using bacteria to remove toxic substances from old mining sites
Answer:
Using bacteria to make antibiotics and vitamins is not an example of bioremediation.
Explanation:
Bioremediation branches from biotechnology where either genetically engineered or naturally existing microbes are used to clean up pollutants and contaminating materials from the environment.
These microorganisms digest contaminants by secreting enzymes that breaks them down into smaller pieces, which they use as their energy or food source for growth, further cleaning the environment, groundwater and oil spills.
Bioremediation involves the use of microorganisms to break down environmental pollutants. Among the given examples, the use of bacteria to make antibiotics and vitamins does not fall under bioremediation as it doesn't involve degradation of pollutants.
Explanation:Bioremediation is the use of living organisms, particularly microorganisms, to degrade the environmental contaminants into less toxic forms. It is mainly used to target hazardous wastes and pollutants such as oil spills and heavy metals. Among the given list, using bacteria to make antibiotics and vitamins is NOT an example of bioremediation. While it is a useful application of bacteria, it doesn't involve degradation or clean-up of pollutants in an environment, hence it does not exemplify bioremediation.
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If a cell culture contains 400 cells/ml at time = 0 and it has a generation time of 30 minutes, how many cells (cells/ml) will be present after 2 hours of incubation?
2400 cells/ml
1600 cells/ml
1200 cells/ml
6400 cells/ml
3200 cells/ml
Answer:
The answer to your question is: after two hours there will be 6400 cell/ ml
Explanation:
Data
Bacteria t = 0; 400 cells/ml
generation time = 30 minutes
# cells after two hours = ?
# of bacteria time
400 0
800 30 min
1600 60 min
3200 90 min
6400 120 min
While discussing the various chemical properties of nutrients in the body, the class discusses that differences between anions and cations. What mineral is the major anion in the extracellular fluid?
Answer:
Within the extracellular fluid, the major cation is sodium and the major anion is chloride.
Chloride is a major contributor to the osmotic pressure gradient between the ICF and ECF, and plays an important role in maintaining proper hydration. It functions to balance cations in the ECF, maintaining the electrical neutrality of this fluid.
Chloride is by large the major anion in the extracellular fluid.
Its concentration in blood plasma is around 98.00–107.00 (mM), in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) around 118.00–132.00 (mM) and in urine around 110.00–250.00 (mM); while the concentrations of bicarbonate (HCO3-), the second most abundant anion in blood is 22.00–29.00 (mM).
Chloride is the predominant extracellular anion. Chloride is a major contributor to the osmotic pressure gradient between the ICF and ECF, and plays an important role in maintaining proper hydration. Chloride functions to balance cations in the ECF, maintaining the electrical neutrality of this fluid.
*ICF = intracellular fluid
ECF = extracellular fluid
Final answer:
Chloride (Cl⁻) is the major anion present in the extracellular fluid (ECF), which helps in maintaining the balance and neutrality of the body fluids.
Explanation:
The major anion found in the extracellular fluid of the body is chloride (Cl). In the extracellular fluid (ECF), the balance of electrolytes is essential to maintain a neutral charge, with various cations such as sodium (Na⁺), potassium (K⁺), calcium (Ca²⁺), and magnesium (Mg²⁺) being neutralized by anions like chloride.
Chloride ions serve to balance the charge of the cations, playing a critical role in maintaining fluid balance, pH, and electrical neutrality.
Which of the following best describes the process of meiosis?
A) It is the first stage of mitosis.
B) It occurs in all tissues that require growth or replacement.
C) It happens in all cells except in the brain and nervous system.
D) It is carried out in cells that are involved in sexual reproduction.
Answer:
D. It is carried out in cells that are involved in sexual reproduction.
Explanation:
Answer:
D) It is carried out in cells that are involved in sexual reproduction.
Explanation:
The option that best describes the process of meiosis is it is carried out in cells that are involved in sexual reproduction.
Some bacterial pathogens only cause disease when injected into tissue and are not able to grow or cause disease on skin or other surface-exposed regions. One example is Clostridium tetani (tetanus). Which type of metabolism would you expect these pathogens to use?
Answer:
Anaerobic chemoorganotrophy.
Explanation:
Anaerobic chemoorganotrophs may be defined as the organisms that has the ability to prepare their food with the help of organic chemicals in the basence of oxygen. The microorganism uses this metabolism to cause disease in other organism.
The pathogens like Clostridium tetani use the anaerobic chemoorganotrophs bacteria as they injected into the tissue and do metabolism without the presence of oxygen. They can not cause disease on skin surface as abundant oxygen is present on the body surface.
Thus, the answer is anaerobic chemoorganotrophy.
Match each neural component with its role in synaptic transmission. Drag each item on the left to its matching item on the right. a. neurotransmitters presynaptic b. neuron postsynaptic c. neuron dendrites postsynaptic d. neuron cell body 1. receiving information 2. chemicals that are released into the synapse 3. integrating information 4. sending information
Following are the functions of neural components in synaptic transmission pathway -
a. neurotransmitter pre-synaptic – 2. Chemicals that are released into the synapse.
b. neuron post-synaptic – 4. Sending information.
c. neuron dendrites post-synaptic – 1. Receiving information.
d. neuron cell body – 3. Integrating information.
The neurons release the neurotransmitter, which act as a messenger and carry the signal from one neuron to another.
The synaptic transmission pathway is as follows -
The synaptic vesicles release their neurotransmitter content when the electrical impulse (action potential) reaches them.The signal is subsequently transferred across the synaptic gap by neurotransmitters. They complete synaptic transmission by attaching to receptor sites on the post-synaptic cell.Therefore, the synaptic transmission pathway starts with the neurotransmitters, which are chemical messengers. They give information to dendrites, which further receives and transmit the information to cell body, where it's processed and transmitted to another neuron.
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Neurotransmitters in the presynaptic neuron are chemicals that are released into the synapse. The presynaptic neuron sends the information while the postsynaptic neuron dendrites receive this information. The neuron cell body integrates the received information.
Explanation:In the process of synaptic transmission, several neural components play specific roles. These include:
Neurotransmitters (presynaptic): These are chemicals that are released from the presynaptic neuron, specifically from the axon terminals, into the synapse. This process is also known as exocytosis. Neuron (presynaptic): This neuron is responsible for sending information. It gives off an electric potential which triggers the release of neurotransmitters from its axon terminal.Neuron dendrites (postsynaptic): These structures are found on the postsynaptic neuron and are responsible for receiving information. They capture the neurotransmitters from the synaptic cleft and transmit the signal further into the neuron.Neuron cell body: The main role of the cell body involves integrating information received from the dendrites and deciding whether the neuron will fire an action potential or not. It is here that synaptic signals may be summed and modulated.Learn more about Synaptic Transmission here:https://brainly.com/question/37834648
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Mature red blood cells do not contain all of the usual organelles. Red blood cells lack a nucleus and do not contain mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, or centrioles. Based on this information, which of the following is true?
Mature red blood cells produce all the ATP for cellular functions because they carry the oxygen on hemoglobin.
Mature red blood cells produce large amounts of protein (hemoglobin) during their short life span.
Mature red blood cells do not divide and therefore have a short life span.
Mature red blood cells divide quickly and produce the ATP using aerobic respiration
Answer:
The correct answer is statement 3rd.
Explanation:
The RBCs are the most general kind of blood cell and the primary means of transporting oxygen to the body tissues through blood flow via the circulatory system. In humans, the developed red blood cells are devoid of the nucleus, and the majority of the cell organelles, in order to make most of the space for hemoglobin, can be witnessed as the sacks of hemoglobin.
Due to this characteristic of RBCs of not possessing a nucleus and other major organelles at the stage of maturation the cells are not allowed to differentiate and thus exhibit a short life span.
Mature red blood cells do not divide due to their lack of essential cellular components, leading to their short lifespan. They also don't produce ATP through typical aerobic respiration but do produce some through glycolysis.
Explanation:The correct statement based on the given information is: Mature red blood cells do not divide and therefore have a short lifespan. This is because without a nucleus and other organelles such as centrioles, mature red blood cells lack the essential components required for cellular division. Moreover, lacking mitochondria means that red blood cells cannot produce ATP through the typical process of aerobic respiration, but they do produce a limited amount of ATP through glycolysis, a form of anaerobic respiration.
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The plants take carbon dioxide and water in the presence of sunlight to make oxygen and carbohydrate. This process is called ______. chemical reaction cell division photosynthesis
Answer:
This process is called photosynthesis. The plants take carbon dioxide and water in the presence of sunlight to make oxygen and carbohydrate.
Answer: photosynthesis
Explanation: Photosynthesis takes in the carbon dioxide produced by all breathing organisms and reintroduces oxygen into the atmosphere. It takes in sunlight for food as plants make there own food.
A biologist hypothesizes that keeping mice on a restricted diet with minimal calories will increase their aggression. The
biologist designs an experiment in which 100 mice are to be housed in individual cages under similar conditions and diets. He
then plans to place pairs of mice together in the same cage to observe their interactions. What is true about this study design?
A) The study is well designed since it uses a large sample of mice.
B) The study is not controlled.
C) The study includes too many variables.
D) The study is flawed because the hypothesis is not testable.
E) The study is unnecessary because the results are obvious.
Answer:
The correct answer is option B. the study is not controlled.
Explanation:
The controlled experiment is an experiment where all the factors are held constant except the one factor that is meant to be tested. In the controlled experiment or study that includes a comparison of the experimental group with the control group in which all the factors or variables except the one factor being tested.
In these experiments there are not all the factors that are constant and also there is no control group to compare with the experimental group.
Thus, the correct answer is option B. the study is not controlled.
The liver is involved in detoxification of many poisons and drugs. Which of the following structures is primarily involved in this process and therefore abundant in liver cells? A. rough ER B. smooth ER C. Golgi apparatus D. transport vesicles E nuclear envelope
Answer: B. smooth ER
Explanation:
The smooth endoplasmic reticulum or smooth ER is an organelle which is found in both plants and animals. In animals it is present in different body parts. In humans the liver cells contains many smooth ER. The function of these organelles is to detoxify the body by drugs and poisons by converting them into water soluble products which can be easily excreted out of the body.
which of the following are not used to classify prokarynotes
a. cell shape
b. cell wall structure
c. type of nucleus
d. motility
Answer:
c. type of nucleus
Explanation:
Prokaryotes are called so because they do have genetic material but its not membrane bound and so an organelle defined as nucleus is not present.
[HELP ASAP]
Proteins are made up of long chains of which of these building blocks?
a. saccharides
b. nucleotides
c. fatty acids
d. amino acids
Answer:
amino acids
Explanation:
Saccharides are for polysaccharides
Nucleotides are for DNA
Fatty acids are for lipids
Amino acids line up in a chain during translation into a protein.
Proteins are made up of long chains of building blocks called amino acids. There are 20 different amino acids that can be combined to create a protein. The sequence of these amino acids determines the protein's structure and function.
Explanation:Proteins, which are integral to bodily processes, are composed of long chains of building blocks known as amino acids. There are 20 different types of amino acids that can be combined to make a protein. The sequence of the amino acids determines the structure and function of each protein. Unlike saccharides, which make up carbohydrates, nucleotides that build up nucleic acids, and fatty acids which are the building blocks of lipids; amino acids are unique in their role as the building blocks of proteins.
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When a cell is in equilibrium with its environment, which of the following processes occurs for substances that can diffuse through the plasma membrane?
A) There is random movement of substances into and out of the cell.
B) All movement of molecules across the plasma membrane occurs by active transport.
C) There is directed movement of substances into and out of the cell.
D) There is no movement of substances into or out of the cell.
Answer:
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Diffusion is the net movement of a substance from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration. The difference in concentration between two environments creates a concentration gradient which is what drives diffusion. Therefore, this movement does not require aid such as extra energy molecules for active transport or integral membrane proteins for directed movement, hence the answer is not B nor C. If the cell is in equilibrium with its environment, it means that the concentration of substances inside the cell is equal to the concentration outside the cell, and any movement that takes place will be random movement of substances across the plasma memberane. Movement in the cell will not cease as the cell is still active. Therefore, the answer cannot be D either.
The correct option is A. There is the random movement of substances into and out of the cell.
What is diffusion?
A substance diffuses when there is a net migration from one area of higher concentration to another area of lower concentration.
A concentration gradient is produced by the difference in concentration between two environments, and this gradient is what causes diffusion.
The answer is neither B nor C since this movement does not require assistance such as additional energy molecules for active transport or integral membrane proteins for directed movement.
If a cell and its environment are in equilibrium, then the concentration of substances inside and outside the cell are equal, and any movement that occurs is due to the random movement of substances across the plasma membrane.
Therefore, The correct option is A. There is the random movement of substances into and out of the cell.
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