The client is 32 weeks pregnant and has been referred for biophysical profile (BPP) after a nonreassuring nonstress test (NST). Which statement made by the client indicates that the nurse's explanation of the procedure was effective?a. The BPP is a screening for neural tube defects.b. The BPP is an ultrasound that measures breathing, body movement, tone, and amniotic fluid volume.c. The BPP is a blood test to detect placental problems.d. The BPP is a diagnostic procedure whereby a needle is inserted into the amniotic sac to obtain fluid.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

The BPP is an ultrasound that measures breathing, body movement, tone, and amniotic fluid volume.

Explanation:

The fetal biophysical profile, or BPP, is an exam, a type of ultrasound, that assesses the well-being of the fetus from the third trimester of pregnancy, and is able to assess the parameters and activities of the baby, from body movements. , breathing movements, proper growth, amniotic fluid volume, and heartbeat. These parameters are important because they reflect the functioning of the baby's nervous system and its oxygenation state, so that if any problem is identified, treatment can be performed as soon as possible with the baby still in the womb.

It is important that the pregnant woman undergoing this test understand what the procedure means. For this reason, we can conclude that the pregnant woman understood what BPP is when she states that "BPP is an ultrasound that measures respiration, body movement, tone and amniotic fluid volume."

Answer 2

The BPP is an ultrasound evaluation that includes fetal breathing, body movement, muscle tone, amniotic fluid volume assessments, and NST, which checks for fetal health.

The correct statement made by the client that indicates an effective explanation of a biophysical profile (BPP) given by the nurse is: "The BPP is an ultrasound that measures breathing, body movement, tone, and amniotic fluid volume." A BPP is a prenatal ultrasound evaluation of fetal well-being involving a scoring system, which includes assessments of the fetus's breathing movements, gross body movements, muscle tone, and the amount of amniotic fluid, as well as the nonstress test (NST). This procedure helps check for fetal health and is typically conducted after a nonreassuring NST to provide additional information about the fetus's condition.


Related Questions

Which of the following recommendations has been shown to improve blood lipid levels and reduce the risk for cardiovascular disease?
a) maintaining fat intake to within 20-35% of total energy
b) increasing saturated fat to at least 10% of total energy
c) decreasing intake of dietary omega-3 fatty acids from cold-water fish, nuts, and canola oil
d) consuming the UL for vitamin B6, B12, and folate from supplements

Answers

Answer:

Maintaining fat intake to within 20-35% of total energy

Explanation:

Making even small lifestyle changes can reduce the risk of cardiovascular ... Coronary artery disease (narrowing of the arteries supplying blood to the ... If you already have cardiovascular disease, you can follow these guidelines to ... increase in the risk for cardiovascular disease when total cholesterol levels

Increasing age.

Cardiovascular disease is more likely to occur as you get older. About 85 percent of people who die of coronary artery disease are age 65 or older.

Male gender.

Men have a greater risk of heart attack than women.

Menopause. After menopause, a woman’s risk of cardiovascular disease increases.

Family history.

Your risk of cardiovascular disease increases if your parents, brothers, sisters, or children have the disease, especially if male relatives were less than age 55 when diagnosed, or female relatives were less than age 65 when diagnosed.

Race.

The risk of cardiovascular disease is higher in African Americans, Mexican Americans, American Indians, native Hawaiians, and some Asian Americans. This increased risk is partly due to higher rates of high blood pressure, obesity, and diabetes in these populations.

From the list below, select all of the diseases that are strongly related to bad eating habits. anorexia nervosa bulimia cancer diabetes emphysema cardiovascular disease

Answers

Answer:

The Last Three Options

Explanation:

The diseases that are strongly related to bad eating habits are anorexia nervosa.

What is anorexia nervosa?

Anorexia nervosa, also known as just "anorexia," would be an eating condition that makes sufferers obsessive about food as well as weight.

What is eating habits?

A balanced diet that limits salt, sugar, saturated fats, as well as trans fats from industrial production is crucial for good health.

Therefore, the diseases that are strongly related to bad eating habits are anorexia nervosa.

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A client is considering starting an exercise program in the next 6 months. Which of the following is the best strategy a personal trainer can use to help her progress into the preparation section of the stages of change model?a. insist the client begin an exercise program for her own goodb. compare the client's body to a fitness model to help provide motivation to beginc. describe personal fitness-related triumphs to encourage the client to exercised. provide the client with easy-to-read education materials about the benefits of exercise

Answers

Answer:

Provide the client with easy-to-read education materials about the benefits of exercise.

Explanation:

Whenever we are going to start something we should be informed about all the benefits and risks we may take with the new activity. This is no different when we decide to start an exercise program. We must consume all sorts of information to understand the advantages of exercise, the duration, the risks, the intensity, and everything about what we start. For this reason, we can conclude that the best strategy a personal trainer can use to help a client progress in the staging preparation section of the exercise change model is to provide the client with easy-to-read educational materials about the benefits of exercise.

Recently, Kevin has been spending a lot of time playing online poker. Last weekend, he decided on a whim to fly to Las Vegas to try his hand at "the real thing." He lost over $5,000. This behavior indicates that Kevin may have
A) bipolar disorder.
B) borderline personality disorder.
C) schizophrenia.
D) generalized anxiety disorder

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is: B. Borderline Personality Disorder

Explanation:

Borderline Personality Disorder is a chronic mental disorder characterized by impulsiveness, disturbed sense of self, unstable emotions and relationships.

Symptoms of borderline personality disorder can be easily triggered by normal actions, events, social and environmental factors.

Other common symptoms of this disorder include insecurity, depersonalization, detachment from reality, feelings of emptiness and worthlessness, self-harm and anxiety.

Therefore, Kevin's behavior in the given example indicates that he may have borderline personality disorder.

Gabe's roommate fell asleep about 25 minutes ago. Now, he needs to awaken him so that they both can get to a party on time. He is sleep talking about his girlfriend's cat. When Gabe begins laughing, his roommate wakes up. He was in what stage of sleep?
A) NREM-1 sleep
B) NREM-2 sleep
C) NREM-3 sleep
D) REM sleep

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is D.

Explanation:

The stages of sleep are divided in REM and NREM, also the NREM stages are divided in 1, 2, 3 and 4.

In stages NREM 3 and 4 occurs the deeper sleep and the person is less likely to be awaken during these stages.

In stages 1 and 2 occur the lighter sleep.

In REM stage the person is in a state very similar to the awake state and therefore is more likely to be awaken in this stage. Also, in the REM stage occur dreams.

A nurse is teaching a class on X-linked recessive disorders. Which of the following statements would the nurse most likely include?A) Males are typically carriers of the disorders.B) No male-to-male transmission occurs.C) Daughters are more commonly affected withthe disorder.D) Both sons and daughters have a 50% risk ofthe disorder.

Answers

Answer:

B) No male-to-male transmission occurs

Explanation:

X-linked recessive disorder are passed via X chromosomes. A female with two recessive alleles will have the disorder while a female with one recessive allele will be a carrier. Since a male has only one X chromosome, having a single copy of the recessive allele is enough to make him affected. Hence, males can not be carrier of these disorders, they will either be affected or unaffected.

Sons are also more commonly affected by this disorder since they require only one recessive allele to express it. Since males pass on Y chromosome to sons and not X chromosome, male to male transmission of the disorder is not possible.

Final answer:

A nurse teaching about X-linked recessive disorders would indicate that no male-to-male transmission occurs, as males cannot be carriers. While sons have a 50% chance of being affected, daughters have a 50% chance of being carriers, not of being affected.

Explanation:

When teaching a class on X-linked recessive disorders, a nurse would most likely include the statement that no male-to-male transmission of the disorder occurs. This is due to the fact that males have only one X chromosome and any gene mutation on it will express the disorder rather than the individual becoming a carrier. Specific characteristics of X-linked recessive disorders include:

Females can be carriers of the disease and have a 50% chance of passing the gene to their offspring. However, they will typically not display symptoms of the disorder since they have two X chromosomes and the normal one will compensate for the defect.Males who inherit the mutated gene will be affected by the disorder because they have only one X chromosome and no backup copy to offset the mutation.Daughters of a carrier mother and an unaffected father have a 50% chance of being carriers themselves. They will not be affected unless they receive a recessive gene from both parents.Sons of a carrier mother have a 50% chance of being affected as they receive only one X chromosome from their mother.

Therefore, the accurate statement among the options given would be 'B) No male-to-male transmission occurs.' Since males cannot be carriers, they cannot pass on a carrier status. Similarly, as the daughters can be carriers, the risk of them being affected is not the same as for sons.

A 78-year-old client is in the emergency department following a motor-vehicle collision. Radiographs indicate a fractured humerus; the client is awaiting the casting of her upper extremity and admission to the orthopedic unit. Other than her bone, what other physical structures could be affected by this injury?a) All options are correctb) Nervesc) Blood vesselsd) Muscles

Answers

Answer:

a

Explanation:

We aren't told how bad the fracture is so it could be affecting nerves, blood vessels or muscles

You are completing an assessment of a client with end stage liver disease. Which of the following findings is most important to notify to the physician?

A. Expanding ecchymosis
B. Ascites and a serum albumin of 3.2g/dl
C. HCT of 37% and a HGB of 12g/dl
D. Occasional disorientation and forgetfulness

Answers

Answer:

A. Expanding ecchymosis

Explanation:

Terminal liver disease occurs when the liver cannot effectively participate in the body's detoxification process and all other metabolism functions and can cause signs and symptoms such as jaundice, swelling or even brain damage. This disease is the most serious consequence of chronic liver disease and can lead to death if a transplant is not performed.

Some situations may aggravate the patient's condition and therefore should be notified to the attending physician promptly. One such situation is the expansion of bruise. Bruise is a subcutaneous bleeding that can cause a major problem in patients with end-stage liver disease.

Mrs. Worden has an unusual fear of buttons. Every time she spots a loose button on the floor of her laundry room, she becomes extremely anxious and feels sick. In order to minimize her discomfort, Mrs. Worden only wears clothes that are button-free. If she sought help for her problem, what would Mrs. Worden's diagnosis probably be?

Answers

Answer:

Specific phobia

Explanation:

Formerly called simple phobia, specific phobia is persistent and recurrent fear of a particular object or circumstance that triggers a strong anxiety reaction whenever presented to the phobic patient, Similar to what Mrs Worden feels about buttons.

Phobias, in general, are characterized by the absence of reason to arouse the verified fear, or for being the exaggerated fear before the phobic object. People with specific phobia do not have a history of trauma, injury or threat from exposure to the most common objects of specific phobia. If this happened, it would be necessary to differentiate specific phobia from post-traumatic stress. Most of the time people with a specific phobia are not affected in their routine because the phobic object is not part of it. When it is part, treatment is indicated.

To determine her blood pressureblood pressure​, KeriKeri divides up her day into three​ parts: morning,​ afternoon, and evening. She then measures her blood pressureblood pressure at 22 randomly selected times during each part of the day.
What type of sampling is​ used?
A. Systematic
B. Simple random
C. Convenience
D. Stratified
E. Cluster

Answers

Answer: D. Stratified

Explanation:

In the case of stratified sampling the samples are divided into parts or groups and then samples for study are randomly chosen from these groups or parts. Here Kerikeri has divided up her day into three parts and she selects the blood pressure randomly from these parts. This is the example of stratified sampling.

Behavioral science includes anthropology, microbiology, and psychology. True False

Answers

Answer:

True it includes those because they check how u behave and act

the answer would be true i had a test with the same question.

During a well child exam on a 4-year old child, the primary care pediatric nurse practitioner notes that the clinic nurse recorded "20/50" for the child’s vision and noted that the child had difficulty cooperating with the exam. What will the nurse practitioner recommend? a) Follow up with a visual acuity screen in 6 months. b) Refer to a pediatric ophthalmologist. c) Retest the child in 1 year. d) Test the child’s vision in 1 month.

Answers

Answer:

Test the child's vision in 1 month.

Explanation:

Eyes is one of the most important sense organ of the body that helps the organism to visualize the things. The vision of the organism may change due to the weakening of ciliary muscle or any other medical conditions.

The nurse has noticed that child has 20/50" for the child’s vision and feels difficulty in exam. The nurse should provide treatment to the child. Proper spectacles and diet should be accessed to child to improve his vision. She again attend the child after one month and must check the child's vision in one month.

Thus, the correct answer is option (d).

"The correct option is b) Refer to a pediatric ophthalmologist.

When a child's vision is recorded as ""20/50,"" it indicates that the child can see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 50 feet. This suggests that the child has reduced visual acuity compared to the norm for their age. The fact that the child had difficulty cooperating with the exam could have contributed to the less accurate measurement, but it does not negate the need for further evaluation.  Given the child's age and the concerning finding of reduced visual acuity, it is important to address this issue promptly. Early detection and treatment of vision problems in children are crucial for preventing long-term visual impairment and ensuring normal visual development. Here's the rationale for the recommended action: a) Follow up with a visual acuity screen in 6 months: This option may not be appropriate because a delay of 6 months could be detrimental if the child has a vision problem that requires intervention.  b) Refer to a pediatric ophthalmologist: This is the most appropriate action because a pediatric ophthalmologist specializes in diagnosing and treating visual disorders in children. They have the expertise to perform a comprehensive eye exam, which is necessary to accurately assess the child's vision and identify any potential issues that could be affecting their visual development. c) Retest the child in 1 year: This option allows too much time to pass before addressing a potential vision problem. Delaying the evaluation could miss a critical period for effective treatment.

Question 1 (3 points): Mike wants to improve his endurance because he wants to try out for the cross country running team in the fall. He works out at the local gym a few days each week and does a variety of activities, but he still feels like his cardiovascular fitness needs improvement. What would be the best thing for Mike to do next?

Answers

Answer:

He should reevaluate his workout to see if he needs to add more aerobic exercise or adjust the frequency of his workouts.

Explanation:

Physical exercise is very important for health, we all know that, however, exercise can bring some beneficial modifications to our body such as improving our endurance. Mike, for example, wants to improve his endurance and improve his cardiovascular fitness, so Mike needs to know which exercise is most appropriate for him to achieve these goals. What Mike should do then is reevaluate his workout to see if he needs to add more aerobic exercise or adjust the frequency of his exercise.

Jonathan is disappointed when he enters his doctor's office and sees how crowded it is. He has to stand and is dreading the wait until he is called in for the appointment but he needs to see the doctor so he cannot leave. Which perceptual characteristic of the environment is Jonathan experience?
a. formality
b. warmth
c. privacy
d. distance
e. constraint

Answers

The answer is E. Constraint

The perceptual characteristic of the environment that Jonathan is experiencing is: E. constraint.

What is a perceptual characteristic?

A perceptual characteristic is also referred to as perceptual feature and it can be defined as the properties of an object or environment as they are being represented by a visual system. Also, perceptual characteristic are typically a central construct of an individual's perception.

Some examples of the perceptual characteristic of an environment include the following:

WarmthPrivacyDistanceConstraint

In this scenario, the perceptual characteristic of the environment that is being experienced by Jonathan is constraint because he had to stand until he is called in for the appointment.

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"A client suspected of having systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is being scheduled for testing. The client asks which of the tests ordered will determine if the client is positive for the disorder. Which statement by the nurse is most accurate?"

Answers

Answer:

the blood test

Explanation:

The systemic lupus erythematosus, is a sickness that is quite difficult to detect, is a mixture of the observations by the doctor, the inconvenience mention by the client and the blood analysis because there need to be a depletion in leukocytes, lymphocytes and platelets. Also the client need to present purple color in feet and hands, some fever, muscular pain, among other symptoms.

78 Y/O female was admitted with heart failure to the ICU from home. By day 3 of hospitalization, she had improved and was transferred to the medical cardiac unit. The pressure injury survey was conducted on day 4 of hospitalization and the survey team saw a Stage 1 area of persistent, nonblanchable redness on her right heel. Review of her hospital admission assessment record revealed that she had 4+ lower right leg edema and brown discoloration of the lower calf and ankle skin. A 2 cm by 4 cm wound with serous drainage also was also documented over her medial lower leg midpoint between her calf and ankle. The skin assessment documented on arrival to the medical cardiac unit noted a Stage 1 pressure injury at this site in addition to the wound, edema, and brown discoloration on her left lower leg as noted on the admission assessment. For the pressure injury survey, this would be reported as:

Answers

Answer:

A Hospital Acquired Pressure Injury Only

Emily has brittle fingernails that crack and split easily. Emily's mother advises her daughter to take gelatin pills 3 times/day, because she has heard the practice strengthens fingernails. The mother's nutrition-related advice about the benefit of taking gelatin pills is an example of a(n)

Answers

Answer: The mother's nutrition-related advice about the benefit of taking the gelatin pills is an example of an anecdote.

Explanation:

In medicine, an anecdote is when a person uses something that may of worked for them previously. In this case, it was gelatin pills 3 times a day. There is no scientific research that shows that this will really help fingernails, but people will use it because of others success with it.

Final answer:

Emily's mother advises her to take gelatin pills to strengthen her brittle fingernails, based on the belief that gelatin can improve nail health due to its collagen content. Fingernails are made of keratin, which makes them tough but flexible. However, the effectiveness of gelatin supplements for this purpose has mixed scientific support.

Explanation:

Emily has brittle fingernails that frequently crack and split. Her mother's advice to take gelatin pills three times a day is based on the belief that gelatin can strengthen fingernails. This advice is an example of a dietary recommendation based on the component keratin, which is crucial for the strength and health of nails. Nails consist of dead keratinocytes filled with keratin, making them tough yet flexible.

Keratin is a structural protein that plays a key role in the health of nails, skin, and hair. While some believe that consuming gelatin (which is a form of collagen and a source of amino acids) can help improve nail strength, scientific evidence on the efficacy of gelatin supplements for nail health is mixed.

Fingernails serve important functions, such as protecting the fingertips and enhancing sensation, by acting as a counterforce when objects are handled. They are made up of a nail plate, nail matrix, and nail bed below it. The advice given by Emily's mother is rooted in the nutritional approach to improving nail health, although it's important for individuals to also consider other factors that could influence nail health, including overall diet, health conditions, and external factors that may cause damage to the nails.

A nurse working for a home health agency is scheduled to evaluate a client with worsening heart failure to determine whether the client is a candidate for the new "Hospital at Home" program. Which statement accurately reflects an outcome for this program?

Answers

Answer:

The best answer to the question: Which statement accurately reflects an outcome for this program, when talking about a nurse who is visiting a patient with worsening heart failure, and who might be a candidate for the "Hospital at Home" program, would be: "Patients who are treated and cared for at home, and who are exposed to the influence of their loved ones, and friends, recover faster, and have a better outcome, are happier, than those who remain in the hospital. Therefore, the "Hospital at Home" program, is a great opportunity for patients like the one in this case."

Explanation:

It has been constantly proven that the best environment for patients, especially certain types like this one, is their own, and that is their own home, where their family and friends are. The impact of familiar surroundings, and the influence of family members, loved ones, and friends, on the health conditions of patients, has proven that programs like this one will improve quality of life, and health outcomes.

When should clients, who don’t require PPIs or H2 inhibitors, take their antacids?

a) Routinely before meals
b) Routinely after meals
c) Whenever heartburn occurs (prn) Q.I.D.
d)At bedtime only

Answers

Answer:

c) Whenever heartburn occurs (prn) Q.I.D.

Explanation:

Antacids are OTC drugs (no prescription needed) used to treat heartburn. They are usually salts (aluminium, calcium or magnesium) that neutralize the excess of acid in the stomach.

Examples of antacids are: Pepto Bismol (P&G), Maalox (SANOFI) and Tums (GSK)

There are other types of medications that control heartburn, but they do it through a different mechanism: instead of neutralizing the excess of acid, they inhibit the production of acid in the stomach. These are: PPIs (Proton Pump Inhibitors) and H2 inhibitors/blockers. These medications have important side effects and interactions, which is why they shouldn't be taken instead of an antacid to relief sporadic heartburn symptoms.

Ranitidine (Zantac, by SANOFI) is an example of an H2 inhibitor, and Pantoprazole (Protonix, by Pfizer) is an example of a PPI.

People who present heartburn only from time to time and have no underlying reflux disease are not prescribed PPIs or H2 inhibitors. It is advised that they take antacids after meals when heartburn occurs, but not in a routinely manner and not for more than 2 weeks. If symptoms persist or worsen, clients should see a doctor.

Diet and lifestyle changes are also recommended for people who present heartburn; these include: avoiding foods that trigger it such as fried and spicy food & carbonated beverages, eating smaller meals, maintaining a healthy weight, avoiding smoking, and avoiding lying down after eating.

A patient was climbing a ladder, slipped on a rung, and fell on the right side of the chest. X-ray studies reveal three rib fractures, and the patient is complaining of pain with inspiration. What is the anticipated treatment for this patient?a. Chest strappingb. Mechanical ventilationc. Coughing and deep breathing with pillow splintingd. Thoracentesis

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer for the question: What is the anticipated treatment for this patient, when talking about a patient who fell from a ladder, fell on the right side of the chest, was shown to have three ribs fractured and is now having pain at inspiration, would be: Coughing and deep breathing with pillow splinting.

Explanation:

This type of procedure can be done by healthcare professionals and it can also be done by the patient, and it will help with the pain as it will protect the injured area when using the pillow, retain the excessive expansion of the chest while inspiring, and the coughing will help with relaxation of the muscles, while deep breathing will allow the chest cavity to function but without much mechanical injury, caused by rapid breathing, or excessive expansion. The point is to use a pillow as a splint, and ask the patient to hold it against the chest, while inspiring. The coughing will help the muscles relax, and increase oxygenation, the deep breathing will further enhance oxygenation, without overexerting the chest cavity, and thus the ribs, and the pillow splint will further protect the injury site by becoming almost a limit to the expansion of the chest. In the case of this patient, given his injury, it is the most effective treatment to use.

A pharmaceutical company conducts an experiment in which a subject takes 100 mg of a substance orally. The researchers measure how many hours it takes for one quarter of the substance to exit the bloodstream. What kind of variable is the company​ studying?

Answers

Final answer:

The pharmaceutical company is studying the response time of the substance exiting the bloodstream, which is a dependent variable. It depends on the amount of substance ingested.

Explanation:

In the context of the pharmaceutical company's experiment, the variable being studied is the response time for a quarter of the substance to exit the bloodstream after being ingested. This response time is a dependent variable, as its value depends on the amount of substance ingested (the independent variable). These types of variables are relevant in experimental studies, where researchers actively manipulate one variable (independent) to observe its effects on another (dependent).

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which of these should always be included in a personal health plan for fitness? select the two correct answers
A. Goals
B. measurements
C. weight loss
D.pain

Answers

Answer:

A, B

Explanation:

Dr. Leung gives all of her clients a short questionnaire that asks questions about sleeping and eating habits, daily activities, and emotional states. Based on this information, Dr. Leung is able to assess whether depressive symptoms are present in each client. Dr. Leung is making use of __________ to assess psychopathology.

Answers

Answer:

Psychology testing.

Explanation:

Psychology testing was used to determine the behavior of an individual. This test is used to construct and determines the ability of an individual to cope up with the given tasks.

The psychological testing asks the individual questions related to eating, emotional activity and sleeping habits. The doctors can diagnose the psychological condition of the patient and its depression state by the psychology testing. Hence, Dr. Leung is doing psychological testing with his patient.

Thus, the correct answer is psychology testing.

Corey was in an automobile accident that resulted in an injury to her brain. She now has difficulty with her hearing and her memory. The part of her brain most likely injured was her ________.
a. parietal lobe
b. occipital lobe
c. frontal lobe
d. auditory lobe
e. temporal lobe.

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is: e. temporal lobe

Explanation:

The temporal lobe of the human brain is responsible for processing auditory and visual sensory information and retention of the visual memory, emotional associations and language recognition.

It is responsible for explicit long-term memory of an individual which can be divided into episodic memory, related to events and the semantic memory, related to facts.

Final answer:

Corey's difficulties with hearing and memory suggest that her temporal lobe is the part of the brain that was injured in the automobile accident.

Explanation:

The part of Corey's brain that was most likely injured in the accident is the temporal lobe. This region of the cerebral cortex is associated with hearing, memory, emotion, and some aspects of language. It contains the primary auditory cortex, which is responsible for processing auditory information. Since Corey is experiencing difficulty with hearing and memory, it is the temporal lobe that is implicated because it plays a crucial role in auditory processing as well as housing structures like the hippocampus, which is vital for memory formation.

In children with infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS), the walls of the alveoli cling to each other and make them difficult to inflate. It is common in babies born prematurely. What cells in these infants are NOT fully developed and are NOT doing their job?

Answers

Answer:

Type II alveolar cells.

Explanation:

Infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS) may be defined as the medical condition in which the amount of lung surfactant is reduced. This disease is also known as hyaline membrane disease.

The main function of the type II alveolar cells is the secretion of the surfactant. The deficiency of surfactant causes the alveoli membrane cling to each other and causes difficulty in inflation. Hence, type II alveolar cells are not fully developed and doing their job.

Thus, the correct answer is Type II alveolar cells.

Dr. Baker designed an experimental study to assess potential differences between science students and art students on a math reasoning abilities test. Dr. Baker found a mean difference in math performance between science and art students. On average, art students performed higher on the math reasoning test compared to the science students. Dr. Baker's findings support which hypothesis?

Answers

Answer:

The best answer to the question: Dr. Baker´s findings support which hypothesis, would be: a research hypothesis.

Explanation:

Dr. Baker sets out an experiment in which he wants to measure the differences between art students and math students regarding their reasoning abilities when taking a math reasoning abilities test. Most likely Dr. Baker hypothesizes that math students would rank higher than art students given that creative minds tend to be less stringent in logical thinking patterns, than scientific, or mathematical minds. However, the results he finds are totally different to his expectations and he finds out that his probable hypothesis is not correct. Due to the fact that the study type included experimentation, the selection of sample groups to test, and the implementation of an actual experimenting tool (the test), this study done by Dr. Baker is an experimental research study and it requires a research hypothesis.

A nurse working in the intensive care unit (ICU) refers to the Institute for Healthcare Improvement (IHI) Ventilator Bundle prior to planning patient care. The nurse realizes nursing interventions outlined in the bundle will improve patients’ outcomes. Which of the following statement best describes how IHI-established nursing interventions should be included in each bundle?

a) Nursing interventions found within the IHI bundles were selected based on the ability to provide optimal time management for the nurse
b) Best practice derived from valid and reliable research studies guided nursing interventions being added to the IHI bundles
c) Nurse case managers serving as patient advocates recommended nursing interventions to be included in the IHI bundles based on patient preference
d) Hospitals, physicians, and nurses worked collaboratively to design patient care activities included in IHI bundles

Answers

Answer: b) Best practice derived from valid and reliable research studies guided nursing interventions being added to the IHI bundles.

Explanation:

A bundle is a orderly way used for improving the process of care and obtaining the patient response. It is a small, straightforward based on evidence are the practices generally 3 to 5 that, if performed reliable and collectively, can improve patient health outcomes. Hospitals, nurses and physicians work collaboratively by bundles.

Final answer:

IHI-established nursing interventions in the bundles are based on best practices from research, aimed at improving patient outcomes by reducing infections and enhancing patient care.

Explanation:

The best description of how IHI-established nursing interventions should be included in each bundle is that best practice derived from valid and reliable research studies guide the inclusion of nursing interventions in the IHI bundles. The Institute for Healthcare Improvement's (IHI) Ventilator Bundle is a set of evidence-based practices that, when implemented together, significantly improve patient outcomes. Interventions included in the bundles are chosen based on research evidence showing that they reduce infections, improve patient care, and ultimately, patients' health outcomes.

While collaborative work between hospitals, physicians, and nurses is essential in designing patient care activities, and while nurse case managers do serve as patient advocates, the core criteria for the inclusion of interventions in IHI bundles revolve around evidence-based practice rather than time management or stakeholder preference alone.

Recognizing individual differences is especially important to psychologists interested in variations in an individual's characteristic way of thinking, feeling, and behaving. This is referred to as ____.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - personality.

Explanation:

Personality is set of various characteristic or trait of feelings, behavior, and cognitions that developed from genetic and environmental components of an individual.

There is no proper definition for the personality due to difference in personalities of individual to individual which interests the psychologists.

Thus, the correct answer is - personality.

Final answer:

The question is asking about 'personality', which is a term used in psychology to define an individual's characteristic way of thinking, feeling, and behaving. Personality psychology, a branch of psychology, specifically focuses on these individual differences and patterns which are essential in understanding the social relationships and interactions of individuals.

Explanation:

Recognizing individual differences is significant for psychologists who are particularly interested in the variations in someone's characteristic way of thinking, feeling, and behaving. This is known as one's personality. Personality psychology is an area of psychology that focuses on these patterns of thoughts and behaviors that make each person unique.

This area of study includes examining different aspects such as inborn, genetically based differences, characteristic ways of behaviour, and personality traits like extroversion or introversion. The understanding of personality and its development has evolved from a variety of perspectives, such as Freud's psychosexual theory, to David Buss's studies considering the evolutionary viewpoint of these characteristics.

A component to be understood in personality psychology is the individual personality traits that are consistent and enduring, which makes each individual truly unique. Bearing this in mind, it is also important to remember that appreciating these individual differences and variations is crucial in understanding the social relationships and interactions of individuals.

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When the preoperative client tells the nurse that he cannot sleep because he keeps thinking about the surgery, an appropriate reflection of the statement by the nurse is:A. "Sounds as if your surgery is a pretty scary procedure." B. "You have a great surgeon. You have nothing to worry about."C. "The thought of having surgery is keeping you awake."D. "You shouldn't be nervous. We perform this procedure every day."

Answers

Answer: An appropriate reflection of the nurse to the patient is "The thought of having surgery is keeping you awake."

Explanation:

The nurse will validate what the patient is thinking and not cross any boundaries. The nurse should never tell a patient that the surgery sounds scary, as this will cause more stress to the patient. The nurse should never say that the patient should not be nervous since he has every right to be nervous and this can make the patient feel inferior or silly. Lastly, the nurse should not make statements about how the great the surgeon is and there is nothing to worry about. The patient should have the nurse there to listen to them and validate that she understands he is not sleeping because of the thought of surgery.

Angela can't sleep at night before making several trips through the house to repeatedly check all the door and window locks. This behavior is causing her to lose sleep and feel stressed. This example best describes __________.

Answers

Answer:

The best answer to fill in the blank here would be an anxiety disorder, best known as obsessive compulsive disorder.

Explanation:

Anxiety disorders, especially as acute and serious as obsessive compulsive disorder, can cause a person to lose any hopes of sleeping well. In turn the lack of sleep will also increase anxiety and can cause the appearance of compulsive actions, like the ones Angela is displaying. Due to anxiety, Angela cannot rest until she has taken several trips to check on all the locks. This action is typical of the obsessive compulsive disorder, and they display that Angela has a severe case of anxiety that triggers her obsession with the locks, and motivates the compulsive action of going back and forth to check, to the detriment of her resting and sleeping hours. All of this is characteristic of OCD.

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