Answer:
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
During the follicular phase of female cycle, estrogen produced by the dominant follicle stimulates LH secretion and LH concentration will keep raising until approximately day 13 of the cycle.
After approximately 24-36 hours from when LH reaches its peak level, ovulation occurs (it means that the dominant follicle has released an ovocyte).
Explain how the epithelium in each of the following regions of the respiratory tract is adapted so its structure follows its function.
a. Nasal cavity:
b. Bronchiole:
c. Alveolus:
Explanation:
a. Nasal cavity: the epithelium in this zone is meant to provide a physical barrier to the invasion of microorganism or particles, it also secretes and remove mucus and foreign particles, these epithelial cells are also involved in the igE producing process (perpetuating allergic responses. The nose is the first barrier to the air that enters our body, that's why the epithelial cells in this zone focus in filtering foreign particles.
b. Bronchiole: epithelium is ciliated and no ciliated, it becomes cuboidal in smaller passages as it continues to branch. The no ciliated cells, also known as club cells are the ones that produce surfactant. Since bronchioles are passages to direct the air to the alveoles epithelial cells in this zone have adapted to go from larger branches to smaller ones to reach the alveoli.
c. Alveolus: it's composed of two types of cells, type one, that constitute the air-blood barrier and type two, cells that produce surfactant to reduce surface tension to keep the alveolus shape when breathing. Since alveoli's function is to allows oxygen/carbon dioxide to move between bloodstream the epithelial cells in this organ evolved to cover this job.
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The epithelial tissues in the respiratory tract's nasal cavity, bronchiole, and alveolus are structured to facilitate capturing dust, regulation of air flow, and gas exchange respectively.
Explanation:The epithelium in the respiratory tract is perfectly structured to facilitate its function. a. In the nasal cavity, the epithelium is ciliated and mucus-secreting, it traps dust particles and other foreign matter and also warms the air entering the body. b. The bronchiole epithelium contains smooth muscle. This smooth muscle allows them to constrict and dilate to regulate the amount of air flow. c. The alveolus is lined with simple squamous epithelium, which is extremely thin to allow for the efficient exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
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What is an anatomically distinct structure of the body composed of two or more tissue types with the purpose of performing one or more specific physiological functions?
A. Cell
B. Tissue
C. Chemical
D. Organ
Answer:
The correct answer is D. Organ
Explanation:
An organ is made up of two or more tissue to perform one or more specific physiological functions. Organs can be made up of four type of tissue nervous, epithelium, muscular and connective tissue.
Most of the organ contains all four tissue for example small intestine. Internal wall of small intestine is made up of epithelium tissue which is surrounded by smooth muscles and connective tissue containing neurons.
It performs different function like secretion of digestive enzymes and absorption of nutrients from digested food in the body. Muscle tissues have the function in peristalsis movement to pass the digested food further in the colon.
An organ is an anatomically distinct structure of the body composed of two or more tissue types, designed to perform specific physiological functions.
Explanation:An anatomically distinct structure of the body composed of two or more tissue types with the purpose of performing one or more specific physiological functions is known as an organ. Each tissue is a collection of similar cells that work together to carry out a specific role. Multiple tissues collaborate within an organ to perform complex functions critical to the body's health and maintenance. For instance, the human heart, comprising muscular tissue, nervous tissue, and connective tissue, pumps blood through the body.
To illustrate further, within the human body, various organs form part of organ systems which work together to perform broad physiological functions. The kidneys, which include smooth muscle tissue and various types of connective and epithelial tissues, filter waste from the blood and regulate bodily fluids, serving the larger excretory system.
The pattern of most hormone secretion is described to be _____________.
Answer:
The correct answer is: Pulsatile secretion
Explanation:
Pulsatile secretion refers to the regular pattern in which certain cell types secrete cellular products as their secretions.
Generally, the cellular secretions are the intercellular signaling molecules like neurotransmitters and hormones.
Some of the examples of pulsatile secretions are gonadotropin-releasing hormone, insulin, growth hormone, glucocorticoids, and thyrotropin.
Consumption of alcohol, particularly larger volumes, causes increased urination. This is primarily due to inhibition of the secretion of which hormone?
Select one:
a. Aldosterone
b. Cortisol
c. Adrenaline
d. Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
e. Renin
Answer:
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
ADH, also called arginine vasopressin is a hypothalamic hormone (storaged in the posterior pituitary) that regulates body’s osmotic balance.
ADH increases the amount of solute-free water reabsorbed from the one filtrated in the kidneys.
Also, increases peripheral vascular resistance due to the constriction of arterioles, and therefore raises blood pressure.
Ethanol (alcohol) reduces secretion of ADH by blocking voltage-gated calcium channels. As a result, urine volume increases and this may cause dehydration.
Which of the following not only flexes the hip but also extends the knee joint?
a. satorius
b. psoas major
c. tenor fasciae latae
d. gracilis
Answer:
a. satorius
Explanation:
The sartorius muscle is a two-joint muscle that moves both the hip and knee joints. Although anatomically considered a thigh extensor, its contraction actually causes a flexion of the hip joint. This is due to its location in the anterior (extensor) compartment of the thigh. Additionally, it is involved in abduction and external rotation of the hip joint.
In the knee joint, it forces an internal flexion and rotation. Flexion movement is the result of tendon insertion into the knee joint behind the flexor-extensor axis. When all five movements are performed simultaneously the legs cross in meditation position. Thus, the muscle is most easily palpable in this position.
What are important guidelines to understand when choosing an
antibacterial agent for Acute Otitis Media?
Answer:
Acute otitis media (AOM) is an ear infection which occurs due to inflammation or infection of the area behind the eardrum known as middle ear.
There are few important guidelines to understand when choosing an
antibacterial agent for Acute Otitis Media stated as below:
1) To identify any history of acute onset, evaluation of signs and symptoms of middle ear inflammation, and signs of middle ear effusion.
2 ) Assessment of pain to recommend any antibacterial agent.
3) Prescription of amoxicillin (antibacterial agent) for most children whose dose should be 80 to 90 mg/kg per day.
4) Selection of different initial antibiotic a temperature greater than or equal to 39 degree Celsius other than amoxicillin .
Answer:
The important guidelines are:
Observe if the organism has fought the disease. Age of the patient. Presence of severe pain or fever. Signs of secretion.Explanation:
Every ear infection is called otitis. It is called otitis media when it reaches the middle ear region, where the eardrum, the tympanic chamber, the small bones of the ear and the ear tube (or Eustachian tube) are located, and it connects with the nose.
Most of the time, the body can fight otitis media. Observation is recommended only in cases of (1) children aged 6 to 23 months with moderate ear pain for less than 48 hours and fever below 39 ℃ and (2) children aged 24 months with moderate pain in one or more both ears for less than 48 hours and fever below 39 ℃.
Symptoms may be eased with painkillers, but consult your pediatrician for children and adolescents, as some medications should not be given under certain conditions.
Antibiotics should be judicious to avoid bacterial resistance, but a specialist may recommend when severe pain or fever exceeds 39 ℃. Children under 6 months of age are often applying for antibiotics before the observation time, but only the specialist may indicate. Normally, in 2 or 3 days the fever subsides, but hearing may require more time to return to normal.
Although there are cases of observation, it is important to be aware of the evolution of the condition, because if the infection is not treated there may be a total loss of hearing.
When hearing loss does not regress, it is recommended to investigate for signs of retained secretion behind the middle ear. If present, it needs to be surgically removed through a small incision in the eardrum, as it may become the focus of other episodes of infection or impair hearing.
Tonsils
a. increase in size in adults
b. are located in both the oral and abdominal cavities
c. provide protection against bacteria
d. contain red pulp and white pulp
e. are not functional in children
Answer: Option C.
Explanation:
The tonsils are defined as a pair of soft tissue masses which are present at pharynx.
Tonsils are made up of tissue lymph nodes having a covering of mucosa.
The tonsils being a part lymphatic system plays very important role to fight infections and provide protection against any bacteria.
Tonsils reacts in a very different manner when comes in contact of infection or bacteria that is by changing its size and get swell.
Infection of tonsils is called tonsillitis and are the first line of defense by the body in response to external pathogens. Symptoms of tonsillitis involves sore throat , red and swollen tonsils, and high temperature. Diagnosis include prescription by doctor with a general examination.
Hence, the correct option option is C.
Compare and describe briefly the healthcare system of United States
and China?
Answer:
In the United States there is no National Health Service. If someone gets ill, it's likely they will have to pay for their treatment.
The US government does fund two kinds of health plans though: Medicare and Medicaid while in China it consists of both public and private medical institutions and insurance programs. About 95% of the population has at least basic health insurance coverage.
The neonate is stimulated to take its first breath by....
SELECT ALL CORRECT OPTIONS
OPTION A the buildup of CO2 Ãn the blood and csf
OPTION B the demand for oxygen
OPTION C a reflex arc triggered by the emergence of the head
OPTION D none of these
Answer: OPTION A the buildup of CO2 in the blood and csf
OPTION B the demand for oxygen
Explanation:
The high concentration of carbon dioxide levels in the blood and in the cerebrospinal fluid. Also the low oxygen levels stimulates the respiratory center of the brain to trigger the newborn to take the breath. The first birth initiate within the 10 seconds of the birth after the event when mucus is aspirated out from the child nose and mouth.
What are the cells in the epidermis that are part of the immune system?
Answer:
The answer to the question: What are the cells in the epidermis that are part of the immune system? would be: Langerhan cells, which are the resident immune skin cells, but studies have also shown the presence of other immune cells on the stratum basale and the stratum spinosum, mainly T lymphocytes, especially CD8+.
Explanation:
Given the huge importance of the skin as the most important barrier between the human vunerable body, and the outer environment, especially as the barrier against invading microorganisms that could destroy the body, it is almost expected that this huge organ should count with its own resident system of immunity. And this has been found in several studies. At first, it was believed that the cells responsible for immunity on the skin, were the cells of Langerhans, but now, it is known that although these are the resident immune cells par excellence, there are also T lymphocytes, mainly CD8+ that also patrol between the stratum basale and stratum spinosum of the skin.
A hematocrit of 30 would indicate
a) anemia
b) increased number of RBC
c) polycythemia
d) decreased number of WBC
e) increased number of Platetets
Answer:
a) anemia
Explanation:
The hematocrit is a measure of the volume of erythrocytes compared to the total blood volume.
The normal hematocrit levels are:
Men: 40 - 54 %
Women: 36 - 48 %
Children: 37 - 45 %
In all cases, a hematocrit of 30 is a low level. That means that the person has fewer Red Blood Cells in their blood than normal, which is characteristic of anemia.
The structure in the neck known as the "Adam's apple" is the
a. epiglottis.
b. cricoid cartilage.
c. glottis.
d. thyroid cartilage.
Answer:
d. thyroid cartilage.
Explanation:
The Adam's apple , also called the laryngeal prominence .
It is present in the neck of the human's body and it is a lump or which is made up of the thyroid cartilage , surrounding the larynx area .
Adam's apple is prominently visible in the neck of most of the males .
The shape of Adam's apple is like a bump present under the layer of the skin . In males , it is clearly visible and is palpable .
The area where two teeth are touching is known as the _________ surface.
A. Abutment
B. Proximal
C. Central
D. Lingual
Answer:
The correct answer is B. Proximal
Explanation:
Tooth have five surfaces distal, facial, Incisal, Lingual and mesial. Mesial surface is the tooth surface which is present towards the front portion and lingual surface towards back portion of mouth.
So the area where mesial surface of one tooth touches the lingual surface of another tooth is called proximal surface. There is a point where the two teeth that are adjacent touches each other called contact point of proximal surface. It becomes wider due to chewing and grinding with time.
The term for the area where two teeth touch each other is the 'Proximal' surface. This refers to the sides of the teeth that are nearest to each other in the dental arch.
Explanation:The Proximal surface is the place where two teeth come together. The term 'proximal' is used in dental terminology to refer to the surfaces of the teeth that are closest to each other in the arch (the curved structure of the upper or lower set of teeth). Specifically, these are the surfaces that you can't see when you look directly at the teeth in a mirror - they're between the teeth. So, to simplify, the proximal surface of a tooth is the side that touches the next tooth.
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Which hormone is produced by the cell type indicated in the figure of a thyroid follicle, below?
Select one:
a. Calcitriol
b. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
c. Antidiuretic hormone
d. Calcitonin
e. Triiodothyronine (T3)
Answer:
The correct answer is e. Triiodothyronine
Explanation:
The thyroid follicles are located in the thyroides, is composed by follicular cells that secrete thyroid hormones.
The hormone produced by the follicular cells is T3 (Triiodothyronine) and T4 (Thyroxine). These hormones are later released into the bloodstream. The hormones are produced in response to TSH, the hormone secreted by the hypophysis which signals the thyroid to produce hormones.
Next to the follicles, there are parafollicular cells which are responsible for synthesizing and releasing calcitonina.
The antidiuretic hormone is released by the hypophysis.
Calcitriol is the active form of vitamin D. It reaches the active state within the kidney, therefore, is completely separated of the thyroid.
What is the mechanism of aldosterone?
a. It causes sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion.
b. It activates angiotensin.
c. It stimulates the secretion of renin.
d. It stimulates the secretion of water
Answer:
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Aldosterone is a steroid hormone, produced by the adrenal cortex, in the adrenal gland.
Aldosterone is part of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system which helps to maintain blood pressure.
When renal blood flow drops, juxtaglomerular cells in the kidney convert prorenin into renin. Renin then converts angiotensinogen (released by the liver) into angiotensin I, that then is converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin converting enzyme in the lung.
Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictive peptide that helps to narrow vessels and also stimulates aldosterone secretion.
At this point, aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion (to maintain electrolyte balance).
The final result is an increase in extracellular fluid volume and therefore in blood pressure.
A treatment for early nephropathy is ____________. It may even slow progression.
Answer:
The answer to the question: A treatment for early nephropathy is:____. It may even slow progression, would be: the use of pharmacotherapy with ACE´s (angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors) and also with ARBs (angiotensin II receptor blockers).
Explanation:
Nephropathy is a condition most commonly found in patients with diabetes and it is characterized by a damage of the kidneys and their filtering function, due to constant exposure to high blood pressure, and high osmolarity due to presence of high levels of glucose in the filter. In order to reduce the damage caused by diabetes, and especially high blood pressure, a condition to which the kidneys are very susceptible, treatment today still goes straight to the use of angiotensin inhibitors, and blockers, to reduce the production of this enzyme that generates further increases in blood pressure. These are ACEs and ARBs.
All of the following are involved in male sexual differentiation during early development except
a) Mullerian inhibiting hormone
b) Testosterone
c) Dihydrotestosterone
d) Sex-Determining Region of the Y (SRY)
e) Progesterone
Answer:
The correct answer is E.
Explanation:
During fetal development, Müllerian inhibiting hormone produced by Sertoli cells of the testes of a XY fetus prevents Müllerian duct to keep developing into fallopian tubes and uterus.
Testosterone stimulates Wolffian duct to evolve into spermatic ducts, ejaculatory ducts and seminal vesicles.
Dihydrotestosterone production is stimulated by the testes and has a key role during internal and external genitalia maturation.
SRY gene produces a protein that binds to DNA and directs the development of the gonad into testes.
All of the options are involved in male sexual differentiation except for Progesterone, which primarily functions in maintaining pregnancy instead of sexual differentiation.
Explanation:All of the mentioned are involved in male sexual differentiation during early development except e) Progesterone. In the process of male sexual differentiation, Mullerian inhibiting hormone suppresses the development of female structures, while Testosterone and Dihydrotestosterone promote the development of male structures. The Sex-Determining Region of the Y chromosome (SRY) initiates male development by promoting the differentiation of the gonads into testes. Progesterone, however, is primarily involved in maintaining pregnancy and has no known role in sexual differentiation.
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Give one example of how nurses can affect public policy in various
appointed positions.
Answer:
Although historically nurses have been taken as the bedside caretakers of patients, and the medicine distributors, the truth is that nurses, given their level of involvement in direct care, have become enabled to do much more than that.
In public policy creation, nurses also play a vital role, and they have a lot to give in the field of politics, precisely because they not only have professional formation, but also extensive research knowledge and also practice. This experience, and the extended education that nurses undergo, allows them to be able to intervene in the arena of politics, especially when it comes to public policy formation, on the field of healthcare.
For example, a nurse is very capable of becoming a great administrator, and even a legislator. So she could find herself in the position of secretary of health, or as a senator, or representative, and she would be able to promote public policy that favors other healthcare professionals in terms of working hours, compensation, working environment, working conditions, because she has experienced all those, but also because she has studied and prepared herself to know about all this.
This, and many other reasons, is why nurses can become very active in legislation formation and public policy formation.
How does Chinese music sound different from the music you listen
to?
Answer:
In general Asian music, but most particularly Chinese, has called the attention of westerners because of the sensed differences with the music that we are accostumed to listen to in the west. This is why, when we go into a restaurant that is Asian, and we hear the tunes being played, we become aware of how different they sound from what we are accustomed to.
There are several reasons for why this happens, but the most important of all is the difference in the scale system that Chinese music composers use, versus ours. While in the west we use a 7-note scale system, most Asian music, and most particularly Chinese music, use what is known as the pentatonic, or 5-note scale.
Also, Chinese music is usually played with solo instruments, or very small ensembles, not how it is done in the west, and the emphasis tends to be on certain types of wind instruments such as zheng, and also on cymbals and gongs, which give this type of music a very peculiar characteristic.
These are only a few of the reasons why Chinese music may sound so different to what western people are used to.
What does the specific gravity of the urinalysis test?
Answer:
Explanation:
A urinalysis can be define as a specific test of the urine. It is used to detect and manage a wide range of diseases and disorders, such as urinary tract infections, function of the kidney and diabetes.
The specific gravity test is a kind of urinalysis that checks the ratio of urine density compared to that of the density of water. It gives an idea about the kidney's capacity and ability to concentrate the urine. It is the routine part of the urinalysis. The range of reference for specific gravity is 1.005-1.030.
The right side of the heart acts as a pump for the
A. pulmonary circulation.
B. systemic circulation.
C. coronary circulation.
D. hepatic portal circulation.
E. cerebral circuit.
Answer:
The correct option is: A. pulmonary circulation
Explanation:
The heart is muscular organ that is present in the central compartment of the thoracic cavity. It is responsible for pumping blood in the circulatory system through the blood vessels.
The right atrium of the heart pumps the deoxygenated blood received from the body into the right ventricle, which further pumps the received deoxygenated blood into pulmonary artery that carries the deoxygenated blood to the lungs.
The pulmonary veins then carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left heart. This is known as the Pulmonary circulation.
Therefore, the right heart acts as a pump for the pulmonary circulation.
The right side of the heart is involved in pulmonary circulation, meaning it pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs. Option A. pulmonary circulation is the correct role of the right side of the heart.
Explanation:The right side of the heart is crucial for pulmonary circulation, which pertains to the process of moving deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs. In contrast, the left side of the heart is responsible for systemic circulation, pumping oxygenated blood from the lungs to the rest of the body. This distinction is essential to understand how blood travels through the heart's chambers and the overall circulatory system.
When considering the options provided in the question, A. pulmonary circulation correctly defines the role of the right side of the heart. The blood pumped from here goes through the pulmonary arteries to the lungs where it becomes oxygenated. The rest of the options, including systemic circulation, coronary circulation, hepatic portal circulation, and the cerebral circuit, are not directly facilitated by the right side of the heart.
Furthermore, the thickness difference in the muscle walls between the heart's right and left sides is due to the required pressure to pump blood through the respective circuits. The left side has a thicker wall as it needs to pump blood throughout the body, whereas the right side, pumping to the closer lungs, has a thinner wall.
Antigens are molecules that react with components of the adaptive immune system. Antigens that can initiate the adaptive immune response are called:
a. Haptens
b. Immunogens
c. Cytokines
d. Lymphocytes
Answer:
The correct answer is b. Immunogens
Explanation:
Immunogens are the antigens that can trigger the immune response in the body once gets inside the body. Any antigen having capacity to excite a immune response against them is called immunogens but not every antigen is immunogen.
An antigen is called immunogen when it has some characteristic features like foreignness, high molecular weight and chemical complexity. An immunogen can initiate both innate and adaptive immune response. Adaptive immune response is memory based and very specific for any particular immunogen.
Some common immunogens are: bacteria, virus, drugs, chemicals, dust, toxins.
Part E Which of the following is generally true within the human body? Which of the following is generally true within the human body? A person having a heat stroke has constant blood flow through the heart, but decreased blood flow near the skin and in the extremities. When a person is warm, blood flow near the skin and in the extremities increases. When a person is cold, blood flow near the skin and in the extremities increases. Blood flow near the skin and in the extremities only increases when a person is in a state of heat stroke. g
Answer:
The correct answer is option - 2.
Explanation:
When the body gets warmer of an individual, the homeostasis process starts working to regulate to maintain it the normal range of the body temperature.
When temperature rises in individual body react by increasing the flow of the blood at extremities which means to the end of the body or limbs particularly palms of hand and feet. It also increases the blood flow near the skin at the time of warm conditions. The blood flow takes the heat from within the body to surface to sweat evaporates and cools down the body.
Thus, the correct answer is- 2.
In hypertension, it is the __________ pressure that causes the injuries to the cardiovascular system.
a. systolic
b. diastolic
c. afterload
d. preload
e. Both A and B
f. Both A and C
g. Both C and D
Answer:
A. systolic
Explanation:
It is the systolic pressure that causes the injuries to the cardiovascular system.
Having a high systolic pressure for a long period of time can increase your risk of having significant cardiovascular problems, such as a heart attack or stroke.
Cardiac output is determined by multiplying stroke volume and heart rate.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The amount of blood that the heart pumps per minute through the circulatory system is called the cardiac output.
Stroke volume is the amount of blood that pushed out of the ventricle in one contraction or one beat.
The cardiac output is calculated by multiplying the number of heartbeats per minute (heart rate) and the stroke volume.
Thus, cardiac output = Heart rate × Stroke volume. The value of cardiac output is expressed as litre/minute.
Tachycardia refers to a heart rate of more than 100 beats per minute.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The answer to the question: Tachycardia refers to a heart rate of more than 100 beats per minute, would be, A: True.
Explanation:
When the body is at rest, usually, the heart should be beating between 60 to 70 beats per minute. Variations in these numbers will depend on the activity the person is doing, and other circumstances that may affect it. However, the heart has its own regulatory system, and its beats should never, under normal circumstances, reach over a 100 bpm. If this happens, if the heart, for no reason (excesive exercise, use of certain medication to produce tachycardia, drugs) starts going up the speed measurement to over 100, it is really dangerous, and the condition is known as tachycardia. This is why the answer is true.
Capillaries with a perforated lining are called
A) perforated capillaries.
B) sinuses.
C) discontinuous capillaries.
D) vasa vasorum.
E) fenestrated capillaries.
Answer:
The correct answer is E) fenestrated capillaries
Explanation:
Capillaries with perforated linings are called fenestrated capillaries. These capillaries are found in those tissues where molecules are require to be exchanged continuously between the tissue and the blood like in kidney, endocrine gland and small intestine.
These capillaries plays important role in secretion and absorption because they are more permeable than continuous capillaries and helps in the movement of large molecules across it. These capillaries have diameter between 70-80 nm.
Fenestrated capillaries which are present in glomerulus of kidney helps in filtration of waste product from the blood. In intestine these capillaries helps in absorbing the nutrient in the body.
Discontinuous capillaries are capillaries with a perforated lining that have gaps between the cells lining the blood vessels. This allows for the passage of larger molecules like proteins and cells.
Explanation:Discontinuous capillaries are capillaries with a perforated lining, which means they have gaps between the cells that line the blood vessels. These gaps allow for the passage of larger molecules like proteins and cells. Fenestrated capillaries, on the other hand, have small pores or openings in their lining, but no significant gaps. Sinuses are large, open spaces within tissues or organs. Perforated capillaries and vasa vasorum are not recognized terms in the context of blood vessels.
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Hard mineral deposit that accumulates around the teeth is called ___________.
Answer:
The correct term to use to fill in the blank fort he question: Hard mineral deposit that accumulates around the teeth is called:___, would be, tartar.
Explanation:
Because of bad mouth hyginie, and also due to other factors, some people tend to get a really tough mineralized plaque that can only be treated, once it forms, by dental professionals. These hardened plaques, which are now mineral deposits are known as tartar, and the problem with it is that tartar covers the tooth and becomes a binding site for further plaque and for bacteria that can cause other problems. This tartar can also be known as dental calculus and it is much tougher than plaque alone. Once tartar is formed, the teeth begin to stain and those stains cannot be removed because they are literally adhered to them. Only professional processes will remove tartar.
The hard mineral deposit that forms around the teeth is called dental calculus or tartar. It is the result of calcified plaque, which forms due to bacterial activity. Proper oral hygiene and professional cleaning are necessary to manage it. Option c is correct.
Dental calculus forms when plaque, a biofilm of bacteria, proteins, and carbohydrates, becomes hardened through calcification. This typically occurs due to the metabolic activity of bacteria such as Streptococcus mutans, which produce acids that facilitate the mineralization of plaque.
Over time, if plaque is not removed through regular oral hygiene practices like brushing and flossing, it can calcify into a tough, crusty deposit. Once formed, dental calculus cannot be removed by brushing alone and requires professional dental cleaning.
Complete question as follows:
Hard mineral deposit that accumulates around the teeth is called ___________.
a. Calcium
b. Plaque
c. Tartar
Changes in the immune system that accompany aging include
A) decreased numbers of T helper cells.
B) fewer cytotoxic T cells responding to infections.
C) B cells less responsive.
D) T cells becoming less responsive to antigens.
E) all of the above
Answer:
The best answer to the question: Changes in the immune system that accompany aging include:__, would be, D: T cells become less responsive to antigens.
Explanation:
The immune system is vital for keeping us alive, as it is the one that will confront foreign organisms by attacking them when they try to invade our bodies. However, just like the human body ages, and its functions start to ebb with time, so does the systems; and the immune system is no different to this. Although it has been proven that the number of B and T lymphocytic cells does not decrease as a person ages, it has been shown that especially T cells become less responsive towards antigens, and if they do respond, then it is at a much slower pace than when a person is in their young-adult stage of life. This is why seniors can become sick much more often, and much more easily, than other adults, or even children.
Final answer:
Changes in the immune system that accompany aging, also known as immunosenescence, include decreased numbers of T helper and cytotoxic T cells, B cells becoming less responsive, and T cells becoming less responsive to antigens. The correct answer is E) all of the above.
Explanation:
The question pertains to changes within the immune system due to the aging process, a phenomenon known as immunosenescence. As we age, our immune system's efficacy naturally declines, starting around the age of 50. This leads to several changes, including:
Decreased numbers of T helper cells, which are integral for orchestrating the immune response.
A reduction in the number of cytotoxic T cells that respond to infections.
B cells becoming less responsive to pathogens, compromising the humoral immune response.
T cells that become less responsive to antigens, affecting cell-mediated immunity.
Therefore, the correct answer that encapsulates all the changes mentioned in the immune system with aging is E) all of the above.
Some hormones act through cell membrane receptors that stimulate adenylate cyclase activity and production of _____________.
Answer:
The answer to fill in the blank in this question: Some hormones act through cell membrane receptors that stimulate adenylate cyclase activity and production of:____, would be: cAMP.
Explanation:
In the process of hormonal regulation of cells there are two ways in which this can happen: direct activation of DNA inside a cell through steroid hormones, who do not need any kind of mediators to enter the cytoplasm of a cell and activate its genetic material, or indirect activation, which is the common way for non-steroidal hormones, such as epinephrine. In this second scenario a hormone will reach the cell and lock onto a receptor on the plasma membrane. The effect is that a G-protein, which is adjacent to the receptor, activates the second-messenger system, meaning that the activity the hormone came to initiate, will depend on these mediators. the G-protein will then activate adenylate cyclase, which in turn will activate ATP and transform it into cAMP. It is cyclic AMP (cAMP) which will finally relay the original message sent through the hormone, to the genetic material of the cell.