The following sentences describe some glycolysis reactions. Fill in the blanks. Note that a single red X will appear if you answer any of the blanks incorrectly. Feedback will be placed next to a blank that is incorrectly filled. Not all the terms will be placed. Some terms will be used more than once.In the first reaction of glycolysis, glucose is converted to ________. The phosphate from __________. A _______ is an enzyme that transfers the terminal phosphate of __________ to a substrate. The product of this reaction is then to __________ fructose-6-phosphate. Fructose-6-phosphate is then phosphorylated by a second ________ reaction, giving _________.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

The correct answer will be

1. Glucose is converted to glucose-6-phosphate.

2. A hexose kinase is an enzyme.

3. Terminal phosphate of ATP to a substrate.

4. The product of this reaction is then to form isomer fructose-6-phosphate.

5. Fructose-6-phosphate is then phosphorylated by a second phosphate ester synthesis reaction,

6. giving fructose-1,6 bisphosphate.

Explanation:

Glycolysis is a sequential breakdown of glucose into product pyruvate releasing energy in the form of ATP and NADPH. This reaction takes place in ten steps in which the first three steps are ATP consuming reactions while last steps yield ATP molecules.

Step 1: includes the breakdown of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in the presence of enzyme hexose kinase which helps in the transfer of phosphate group from ATP to intermediate formed. This reaction is known as Phosphate ester synthesis.

Step 2: includes isomerization of glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate which is again broken down to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate by phosphofructokinase which again transfers a phosphate group from ATP. This is also a Phosphate ester synthesis reaction.

Thus, filled options are the correct answer.


Related Questions

3. Suppose I need to transport a solution containing a nucleic acid polymer from Washington DC to Chicago. Explain why I can carry a DNA sample in my shirt-pocket, whereas I would need to keep a comparable RNA sample under dry ice. Be chemically specific.

Answers

Answer:

Just incase. they need to identify you acid can burn its a very dangerous solution to move state to state.It can kill you

Which of the following are primary lymphoid organs?

a.bone marrow and thymus
b.appendix and spleen
c.lymph nodes and tonsils
d.spleen and thymus

Answers

Answer:

a.bone marrow and thymus

Final answer:

The primary lymphoid organs are the bone marrow and thymus, where lymphocytes mature and are selected. The secondary lymphoid organs, such as tonsils, spleen, and lymph nodes, store lymphocytes and filter lymph for pathogen encounters and immune responses.

Explanation:

The primary lymphoid organs are the bone marrow and thymus. B cells mature in the bone marrow, while T cells mature in the thymus. These organs are where lymphocytes go through maturation and selection processes to enable them to attack pathogens without harming the body's own cells.

The secondary lymphoid organs include the tonsils, spleen, and lymph nodes. Tonsils, spleen, and lymph nodes store lymphocytes and filter lymph, allowing for pathogen encounters and initiation of adaptive immune responses.

The correct option is a. bone marrow and thymus.

Removal of which of the following organ would least affect the body?
a. liver
b. colon
c. gall bladder
d. pancreas
e. stomach

Answers

Answer:

Gall bladder

Explanation:

Gall bladder lies on the right side of abdomen and just below the liver. This is a pear shaped organ and releases its stored product through the common bile duct.

Gall bladder removal surgery generally occurs in case of gall stone, and inflammation. Gall bladder mainly stores the bile juice produced from the liver and its removal will least affect the body.

Thus, the correct answer is option (c).

List the 5 basic elements of a reflex arc.

Answers

Answer:

Five basic element of reflex arc are receptor, sensory neuron, integration center, effector and motor neuron.

Explanation:

Reflex arc may be defined as the neural pathway of reflex action. Reflex may be defined as a response against a particular stimulus that returns the body to homeostasis.

Five basic elements of reflex arc are as follows:

Receptor: Receptor is present at the end of a sensory neuron and they respond against a stimuli.

Sensory neuron: The neuron carries nerve impulse from the receptor to the  brain or spinal cord.

Integration center: This center consists of more than one synapse in brain or spinal cord.

Motor neuron: This neuron conducts nerve impulse from the central nervous system to the effector organ.

Effector: Effector respond against a nerve impulse and may contract or secrete a product depending upon the effect.

What is Grave's disease?

Answers

Answer:

Graves´ disease is an autoinmmune disease that is caused when the immune system attacks the cells of the thyroid gland, which leads to an overproduction of the hormones secreted by the thyroid gland. This constant attack and destruction on the part of the immune cells causes the thyroid to increase in size, a condition that is commonly known as hyperthyroidism.

Hyperthyroidism can become a really serious issue because the excessive production of the hormones of the thyroid gland will increase the metabolic activity of all parts of the body and can, if left untreated, cause such serious conditions as blood clotting problems, type 1 diabetes, among others.

2. Why is differential media typically inoculated with isolated colonies that have been previously cultured on general growth media?

Answers

General growth media serves the purpose of generating more bacteria colonies to create enough samples to identify to perform other tests. Differential media is used to differentiate species or subspecies of bacteria by how they differentially react to the dyes of chemicals in the media due to differences in metabolic properties of the different bacteria species.  An example of differential media is MacConkey agar.

Final answer:

Differential media enable the differentiation of bacteria based on their metabolic activities. Isolated colonies are used to avoid mixing different types, with initial growth on general media enhancing bacterial cultivation. Subsequent inoculation onto differential media allows for identification through unique characteristics exhibited.

Explanation:

Differential media are typically inoculated with isolated colonies that have been previously cultured on general growth media to ensure the accuracy of the identification process. This is done primarily because some media, particularly differential media, are designed to differentiate between different types of bacteria based on their metabolic activities. The appearance of the bacterial colonies on differential media, such as change in color, can provide crucial insights into the identity of the bacteria.

It's important that only isolated colonies are used to prevent a mix-up of different types of bacteria, which could make interpretation of results challenging. Initially cultivating these bacteria on general growth media also helps enhance the growth of the bacteria, as it provides all the necessary nutrients required for bacterial growth. Their subsequent transfer to the differential media then allows for easy identification based on the unique characteristics they exhibit on these media.

For example, on MacConkey agar, a type of differential medium, bacteria that ferment lactose will cause the medium to turn pink due to acid production. This acid production causes a pH change, which is demonstrated by a color change because of a pH indicator in the medium. Such visible changes make it easier to identify specific types of bacteria.

Learn more about Use of Differential Media here:

https://brainly.com/question/35875903

#SPJ3

The growth of skeletal bones is controlled by a hormone from the:

Answers

Answer:

a hormone from the pituitary gland, or part of the brain.

Explanation:

the pituitary gland in the brain and the thyroid gland contribute 2 growth between the age of 13-25...

3)

If a population lacks variation (fixed), no individual has any advantageous trait, and the environment changes for the worse. What will most likely happen to the population in terms of natural selection?

The entire population will still survive and adapt to the new environment.

A portion of the population will still survive and adapt to the new environment.

The entire population will go extinct.

Artificial selection will occur since natural selection cannot.

Some individuals in the population will automatically mutate in response to the environmental change so that variation will exist.

Answers

Explanation:

the entire population will go extinct

In evolutionary biology, the importance of genetic variation and natural selection in populations facing environmental changes is crucial for survival.

Natural selection is a process where organisms best adapted to their environment survive and reproduce, passing on advantageous traits. In a population lacking variation, if the environment changes negatively, the entire population may go extinct as they lack the genetic diversity to adapt. Genetic variation is crucial for species to survive changing environments through natural selection.

You are told that the cells on a microscope slide are plant, animal, or bacterial. You look at them through a microscope and see cell walls and membrane-bound organelles. You conclude that the cells A) are plant cells. B) could be either plant or bacterial. C) are animal cells. D) could be plant, animal, or bacterial. E) are bacteria.

Answers

Answer:

A

Explanation:

I think it is A because of there being cell walls

Walking alone late one night, you are startled by a moving shadow that you glimpse out of the corner of your eye. The _______ division of the autonomic nervous system is activated. When you realize it is just the neighbor’s pet, the _______ division lessens your physiological arousal.

Answers

Answer:

Walking alone late one night, you are startled by a moving shadow that you glimpse out of the corner of your eye. The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is activated. When you realize it is just the neighbor’s pet, the parasympathetic division lessens your physiological arousal.

Final answer:

The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system activates when you're startled, initiating the 'fight or flight' response. Once the danger has passed, the parasympathetic division lessens physiological arousal, returning the body to a restful state.

Explanation:

The autonomic nervous system (ANS) is a part of the peripheral nervous system that acts primarily unconsciously and regulates bodily functions. When you were startled by a moving shadow, the sympathetic division of the ANS was activated, stimulating your 'fight or flight' response and increasing your heart rate, dilating the pupils, and halting digestion. Then, after realizing it was just the neighbor's pet, the parasympathetic division stepped in, reducing your physiological arousal by slowing your heart rate, constricting your pupils, and resuming digestion, thus restabalizing your body conditions.

Learn more about Autonomic Nervous System here:

https://brainly.com/question/33504393

#SPJ2

9. GenBank is a a. monophyletic group of organisms. b. replacement for the principle of parsimony. c. proposed universal system to classify organisms. d. type of molecular clock. e. large database of genetic information.

Answers

Answer:

Option (e).

Explanation:

Genbank may be defined as a sequence database that can be used to identify the evolutionary relationship between an organisms. Genbank contains the nucleotide sequences and information for the translation of protein.

Original sequences can directly be submitted to the genbank. Genbank stores the large database that contains the genetic information of an organism.

Thus, the correct answer is option (e).

The neuromuscular junction is a well-studied example of a chemical synapse. Which of the following statements describes a critical event that occurs at the neuromuscular junction?a) Acetylcholine is released by axon terminals of the motor neuron.b) When the action potential reaches the end of the axon terminal, voltage-gated sodium channels open and sodium ions diffuse into the terminal.c) Acetylcholine binds to its receptor in the junctional folds of the sarcolemma. Its receptor is linked to a G protein.d) Acetylcholine is released and moves across the synaptic cleft bound to a transport protein.

Answers

Answer:

Option (A).

Explanation:

Neuromuscular junction is formed by the connection between a muscle fiber and motor neuron. This is the site at which motor neuron transmit signal to the muscle fiber and causes muscle contraction.

Neuromuscular junction involves various critical events. The most important process that occur during muscular junction is the release of acetylcholine by the axon terminals of the motor neuron. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter and causes the stimulation of muscle tissue.

Thus, the correct answer is option (A).

The vital event at the neuromuscular junction involves acetylcholine being released by the motor neuron's axon terminals, diffusing across the synaptic cleft, and binding to receptors on the muscle fiber, triggering muscle contraction. Hence, the correct option is A.

The critical event that occurs at the neuromuscular junction is described by option a) Acetylcholine is released by axon terminals of the motor neuron. When the action potential reaches the axon terminal of a motor neuron, it triggers the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft. This neurotransmitter then diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (nAChRs) on the sarcolemma of the muscle fiber. The binding of acetylcholine to the receptors causes the ion channels to open, allowing Na+ ions to flow into the muscle cell, leading to depolarization. This depolarization, known as the end-plate potential, initiates an action potential in the muscle fiber which eventually results in muscle contraction.

The mitotic spindle consists of two types of microtubules: kinetochore microtubules and nonkinetochore microtubules. In animal cells, these two types of microtubules function differently in the stages of mitosis.

Complete the sentences by dragging the labels to the appropriate locations. Labels may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

OPTIONS: Shorten, Lengthen, Disassemble
1) During prophase, the microtubules of the mitotic spindle________.

2) During anaphase, the nonkinetochore microtubules _______ and move past each other, and the kinetochore microtubules________.

3) During telophase, the nonkinetochore microtubules______.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer will be

1. Lengthen

2. Lengthen, shortens

3. Disassemble

Explanation:

There are three types of microtubules present during cell division: kinetochore, aster and polar microtubules.  

1. During prophase: all types of microtubules grow out at their positive(+) ends which functions to pull and push the sister chromatids apart towards opposite poles so they lengthen.

2. During anaphase : non-kinetochore microtubules- polar microtubules polymerization takes place at their (+) ends which causes the spindle fibres to move apart  while kinetochore microtubules which have been attached to the kinetochores of chromosomes shorten at their (+) ends and  motor proteins travel to (-) end because of which sister chromatids move towards the spindle poles.

3. During telophase: non-kinetochore microtubules depolymerize or disassembles.

Thus, 1. Lengthen, 2. Lengthen, shortens and 3. Disassemble are the correct options.

Final answer:

In mitosis, the microtubules of the mitotic spindle lengthen during prophase. In anaphase, nonkinetochore microtubules lengthen while kinetochore microtubules shorten. During telophase, nonkinetochore microtubules disassemble.

Explanation:

The mitotic spindle plays crucial roles during the process of cell division called mitosis in animal cells. The spindle consists of two types of microtubules, namely, kinetochore and nonkinetochore microtubules, each having unique functions during different stages of mitosis. Let's understand these functions to complete your sentences:

During prophase, the microtubules of the mitotic spindle lengthen.During anaphase, the nonkinetochore microtubules lengthen and move past each other, and the kinetochore microtubules shorten.During telophase, the nonkinetochore microtubules disassemble.

Learn more about Microtubules Functions in Mitosis here:

https://brainly.com/question/22044734

#SPJ6

While ____ hormones can travel freely in the blood,_____ hormones require a carrier protein because they are not soluble in the aqueous plasma

Answers

Answer:

While water soluble hormones can travel freely in the blood, lipid soluble hormones require a carrier protein because they are not soluble in the aqueous plasma

Explanation:

The water-soluble hormones such as insulin are dissolved in the blood and are carried along with the blood to their target cells.  

However, lipid-soluble hormones such as steroid hormones (cortisol) and thyroxine are hydrophobic in nature. These hormones are not dissolved in water-based blood plasma. So, these lipid-soluble hormones are carried through the carrier proteins.  

Peptide and amino acid-derived hormones can travel freely in blood due to their water solubility, whereas steroid and thyroid hormones require carrier proteins because they are lipid-derived and not water soluble. Steroid hormones utilize intracellular receptors, while the water-soluble hormones bind to cell surface receptors.

While peptide and amino acid-derived hormones can travel freely in the blood, steroid and thyroid hormones require a carrier protein because they are not soluble in the aqueous plasma. Peptide and amino acid-derived hormones are water soluble, which allows them to circulate in the blood without being bound to any carrier proteins. In contrast, lipid-derived hormones, specifically steroid hormones and thyroid hormones, are hydrophobic and insoluble in water, thus they need to be transported by plasma proteins to ensure that they remain soluble in the bloodstream. Lipid-derived hormones, such as steroid hormones and thyroid hormone, can permeate plasma membranes and utilize intracellular receptors, while peptide and amino acid-derived hormones, being lipid insoluble, require cell surface receptors to exert their effects.

In guinea pigs, black fur is an autosomal dominant trait, and white is the alternative recessive trait. A Hardy-Weinberg population of 400 guinea pigs was found to contain 64 white individuals. In this population, what percentage of BLACK animals is expected to be HETEROZYGOUS?

Answers

Answer:

49.14%

Explanation:

The frequency of the heterozygous individuals in the population is therefore: 64/400 = 0.32

Using the Hardy Weingburg equation of a population is equilibrium = p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1

q2 = 0.32; Therefore q = 0.5657 –> alellic frequencies

If p + q = 1; Then p  1 – q = 1 – 0.5657 = 0.4343

Heterozygous individuals are represented by 2pq = 2 * 0.4343 * 0.5657 = 0.4914

0.4914 * 100 = 49.14% of the population which translates to  0.4914 * 400 = 196.56 (197) individuals

Imagine two populations of a fish species, one in the Mediterranean Sea and one in the Caribbean Sea. Now imagine two scenarios: (1) The populations breed separately, and (2) adults of both populations migrate yearly to the North Atlantic to interbreed. Which scenario would result in a greater loss of genetic diversity if the Mediterranean population were harvested to extinction? Explain your answer.

Answers

Answer:  (1) The populations breed separately.

Explanation:

The genetic diversity can be define as the total number of different types of genes is present in a particular species. Genetic diversity makes the way suitable for the survival of the population of species in changing environment.  

According to the given situation, if the two population breed separately then then no new genes will be added to the gene pool of the species and hence, the genetic diversity will be lost.

It is not possible for an airborne pathogen to travel very far. TRUE OR FALSE

Answers

Answer: False

Explanation:

Airborne pathogenic infection usually spread when viruses, bacteria or any other pathogenic agent travel over the dust particles or respiratory droplets.

The pathogens can travel to a great distance in air being on the tiny nano particles of dust particles and respiratory droplets. The pathogens of cough or sneeze travel a long distance very quickly. These pathogens travel upwards at a speed of 320 km/h. In indoors the speed of airborne pathogens increases and their potential to cause infection also increases.

Answer:

False

Explanation:

Can someone help me on this?

Answers

Answer:

Do you have any more information other than the photo? Such as notes?

The processes of transformation and transduction are important to which kingdom and why?
Protista: Both processes are steps in the process of putting the Protista into the endospore state which provides protection from harsh conditions.
Bacteria: Both processes provide the Bacteria with new genes that might provide new ways of dealing with environmental changes.
Viruses: Both processes would help a virus strain produce flagella to move away from difficult environmental conditions.
Fungi: Both processes would allow Fungi to form physical connections to other Bacteria so they could trade genes useful for survival.


BRANLIEST ANSWER!!!!!!!!!

Answers

Answer:

Bacteria: Both processes provide the Bacteria with new genes that might provide new ways of dealing with environmental changes

Explanation:

Transformation occurs when there are dead and live bacteria in a population. If the dead bacteria bear desirable traits, the DNA will be passed onto the live bacteria via transformation. The DNA in the dead bacteria pass through the membrane of the live bacteria and provide recombinant DNA.

Transduction occurs when bacteriophages (such as viruses) introduce foreign DNA into bacteria. The foreign DNA may have desirable traits to the bacteria that could help the bacteria population survive environmental changes such as antibiotics.

Answer:

Option B

Explanation:

Bacteria: Both processes provide the Bacteria with new genes that might provide new ways of dealing with environmental changes.

7. Which of the following is true about YAC vectors?

it is highly stable
it is used in physical mapping
All of these choices are correct
it is a great choice to clone DNA fragments more than 100 kb

Answers

Answer:

All these choices are correct

Explanation:

YACs stands for Yeast artificial chromosomes. These chromosomes are derived from a fungus species Saccharomyces cerevisiae. YACs are genetically modified and a 100—1000 kb fragments of DNA are inserted into a bacterial plasmid. The inserted DNA fragment can be cloned and physically mapped. In the presence of this fragment, the chromosome will be stable during extracellular replication and easily can be differentiated from colonies without the vector.

Which of the following is a role of lymph nodes?
They return lymph to circulation.
They produce lymph.
They filter lymph.
They produce red blood cells.

Answers

Answer: They filter lymph.

Explanation: Lymph nodes filter lymph, a fluid that comes from the blood plasma and passes through the lymph nodes; small structures that consist of immune cells. Their function is to engulf foreign parcticles. They prevent these foreign matters from circulating in the blood stream, playing a very important role in the immune system.

Final answer:

The role of lymph nodes is primarily to filter lymph, wherein harmful substances such as bacteria and waste products are removed. This helps in building and maintaining the body's immunity.

Explanation:

Among the given options, the most accurate role of lymph nodes is that they filter lymph. Lymph nodes are small, bean-shaped structures that produce and store cells that fight infection and disease. The lymphatic fluid, containing white blood cells, passes through the lymph nodes where harmful substances like bacteria and waste products are filtered out. This process is essential in building immunity in the body. They do not return lymph to circulation, or produce lymph or red blood cells. The function of producing red blood cells is primarily done by the bone marrow.

Learn more about Lymph Nodes here:

https://brainly.com/question/30960549

#SPJ6

Where is the origin of the rectus femoris?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Rectus femoris can be define as a bulk of muscle that is located in the anterior and superior compartment of the thigh. These muscles originates from the anterior illiac spine and from the parts of the alar illium that is superior to the acetabulum that is the part of the hip bone.

Which of the following statements regarding genotypes and phenotypes is false? Alleles are alternate forms of a gene. The expressed physical traits of an organism are called its phenotype. The genetic makeup of an organism constitutes its genotype. An organism with two different alleles for a single trait is said to be homozygous for that trait.

Answers

Answer:

D

Explanation:

Homozygous mean a pair of alleles that are the same. Hence the root word homo- which means same. If the alleles were different, we would call this pairing a heterozygous pair, with the root word hetero- meaning different. An example of a homozygous pair would be AA, two dominant allele, or aa, two recessive alleles, while a heterozygous pair would be Aa, one dominant and one recessive allele.

Answer:

An organism with two different alleles for a single trait is said to be hom-ozygous for that trait. This is the correct answer.

Hetero means having two or more properties while hom-o means having one property.

An organism with two different alleles for a single trait is said to be heterozygous for that trait while an organism  with only one type of allele is referred to as being homzygous.

Alleles are  referred to as alternate forms of a gene. Phenotype can be defined as the expressed physical traits of an organism while Genotype is the genetic makeup of an organism which makes these options True

Read more on https://brainly.com/question/12896393

Over time, some plants growing in an area are crowded out by other plants. The new plants use up water and nutrients needed by the previous plants. The disappearance of the first plants is due to:

Answers

Answer:

Competitive exclusion

Explanation:

According to competitive exclusion principle two species cannot exist together if these species share the same habitat and resources. This principle was given by the scientist Georgy Gause.

Some plants that are growing in an area are crowded by other plants over time. The new plants use water, nutrients and the first plants are disappeared because both plant species share same resources and habitat. These two species cannot co exist and the second plant causes the disappearance of plant because of competitive exclusion.

15. In horses, three coat-color patterns are termed cremello (beige), chestnut (brown), and palomino (golden with light mane and tail). If two palomino horses are mated, they produce about 1/4 cremello, 1/4 chestnut, and 1/2 palomino offspring. In contrast, cremello horses and chestnut horses breed true. (In other words, two cremello horses will produce only cremello offspring and two chestnut horses will produce only chestnut offspring.) Explain this pattern of inheritance.

Answers

To know what happens here, we need to see how alleles work.

You have three species: cremello, chestnut, and palomino all will be homozygotes with two alleles each.  

One of these will be recessive (aa), one will be dominant (AA), and one will be a mixture (Aa).

You know the offsprin, so Cremello and Chestnut are the recessive and dominant ones. If you draw the Punnett square, you'll find out all breeding are pure.

Now, if you draw de Palomino Punnett square having one recessive allele and one dominant allele from each paren, you'll found 1/4 cremello (aa), 1/4 chestnut (AA) and 1/2 palomino (Aa).

Final answer:

The coat-color patterns in horses are a result of multiple alleles. When two palomino horses are mated, they can produce offspring with any of the three coat-color patterns, including cremello, chestnut, and palomino.

Explanation:

The coat-color patterns in horses are a result of multiple alleles. In this case, there are three alleles for the coat-color gene: cremello, chestnut, and palomino. When two palomino horses are mated, they can produce offspring with any of the three coat-color patterns.

If two palomino horses are mated:

There is a 1/4 chance of producing cremello offspring.There is a 1/4 chance of producing chestnut offspring.There is a 1/2 chance of producing palomino offspring.

However, if cremello horses or chestnut horses are mated, they will only produce offspring with the same coat-color pattern as themselves. This pattern of inheritance is due to the different combinations of alleles that can be inherited from each parent.

A student wanted to look at germination of five different seeds in vermiculite (a soil additive). He planted the seeds in identical containers and left them together in full sunlight. He gave each seed the same amount of water and charted the germination of each seed type. What is the independent variable in this experiment? (a) vermiculite (b) germination rate (c) seed type (d) light (e) amounts of water

Answers

Answer: (c) seed type

Explanation:

An independent variable is the one which can be altered or manually manipulated in an experiment. The effect of such manipulation can be examined on the dependent variable of the experiment. The dependent variable cannot be manipulated in an experiment instead it is the outcome of the experiment.

The seed type is the correct answer because the seed type can vary and the effect of which can be examined on the seed germination process and rate of seed germination.

3. Suppose you have two traits controlled by genes on separate chromosomes. If sexual reproduction occurs between two heterozygous parents, what is the genotypic ratio of all possible gametes?

Answers

Answer:

½½

Explanation:

the ratio is gonna be like this ½½

because we have 2 trait control by genes in separate chromosomes

In sexual reproduction between two heterozygous parents, each can produce four types of gametes for the two traits, which could lead to a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio among the offspring when considering a Punnett Square for visualization.

When two heterozygous parents engage in sexual reproduction, each parent is capable of producing four different types of gametes for two traits located on separate chromosomes. If we consider parents with genotypes AaBb, then the gametes produced could be AB, Ab, aB, or ab. Using Punnett Square, we can visualize this. Each combination leads to a different genotype in the offspring. However, as the question asks about gametes specifically, there aren't different 'combinations' in gametes since they're haploid, so the question might be asking for the offspring produced—which would lead to a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio in the offspring due to the independent assortment of alleles. This happens because alleles segregate during the production of gametes, ensuring that each gamete carries only one allele for each gene.

Old cultures of bacteria that have lost their ability to cause disease are said to be

Select one:

a. impotent.

b. virulent.

c. pathogenic.

Answers

Explanation:

thats all that I could find I hope it helps a little bit :)

Is Mycobacterium plei gram positive or gram negative or not either or?

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is they show weak positive gram staining reaction.

Explanation:

Mycobacterium phlei is a rod-shaped species of the genus Mycobacterium. They are acid-fast bacteria with mycolic acids rich cell wall due to which gram stain cannot penetrate easily and show light purple color while staining.

When gram staining is performed on the M.phlei , they take light purple color which indicates that it is a gram-positive bacteria and is related to Actinobacteria phylum of the gram-positive bacteria.

Thus, M. phlei is a gram-positive bacteria.

Final answer:

Mycobacterium plei cannot be accurately classified as Gram-positive or Gram-negative due to its unique cell wall composition; instead, it is categorized as acid-fast. This differentiation is important for understanding the bacterium's structural and resistance properties. The acid-fast characteristic suggests a lipid-rich cell wall, distinct from typical Gram-positive or Gram-negative bacteria.

Explanation:

The question about whether Mycobacterium plei is Gram-positive, Gram-negative, or neither is rooted in the practice of Gram staining, which is a vital technique used in microbiology to classify bacteria. Mycobacterium spp., pertaining to the question, are better classified as acid-fast rather than strictly Gram-positive or Gram-negative due to their unique cell wall composition. This classification reveals that their cell walls contain mycolic acids and are thicker than typical Gram-positive bacteria, which contributes to their resistance to the Gram stain procedure and necessitates a different staining method, known as the acid-fast stain, for proper visualization.

Understanding the distinction between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria is crucial because it involves the bacteria's cell wall structure.  Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer, which retains the crystal violet dye used in the Gram stain, turning them purple. Gram-negative bacteria, on the other hand, have a thin peptidoglycan layer and an outer membrane that does not retain the crystal violet dye but takes up the safranin counterstain, appearing pink. The unique lipid-rich cell wall of Mycobacterium spp. prevents both the uptake and the retention of these dyes, making the acid-fast staining necessary.

In summary, recognizing the staining characteristics of bacteria, such as Mycobacterium plei, aids in their identification and provides insight into their structure and potential resistance mechanisms. The acid-fast quality of Mycobacterium indicates a cell wall composition distinct from the general categories of Gram-positive or Gram-negative, demonstrating the diversity and complexity of bacterial cell wall structures.

Please answer the following question with at least 5-6 sentences.

Compare and contrast the 19th-century treatment of those living with an STI and 20th/21st-century treatment of those living with HIV/AIDS.

Are we able to interrupt this pattern in the US? If so, how?

Answers

Answer:

The battle against sexually transmitted illnesses, except for the relatively recent HIV/AIDS, has been one that has been present in humanity almost from its beginning. Infections caused by syphilis, ghonorrea, clamydia, among others, have been a part of humans since sexual activity has been around us. However, since the appearance of antibiotics, and other chemical agents to combat them, the scenario changes for mankind, as now, a diagnosis of such diseases was not basically a death sentence, or, a reason to be socially isolated. Another thing that changed, was the pattern and incidence of transmission, as now, with treatment, the pathogens could be stopped.

However, during the 19th century, with the appearance of medically more advanced technologies, better antibiotic treatments, and other public health measures, many of these STI´s, especially those that were most frequent, like syphilis, were no longer taken as certain death. However, it also became a reason for people to act more rashly and not think about transmission.

But in the 20th century, and especially since the appearance of the most deadly HIV virus, particularly in homosexual populations, things began to look bad for humans again. People died, and the only measure that could be taken as science learned about the pathogen, was isolation of those infected. Just as in the middle ages those infected with plague, were left aside, HIV-infected people became isolated. But during the 20th century, virology, the science that studies viruses and the possible treatments to it, and the adventure of DNA discoveries, led to a huge change. It was seen that there were a series of chemical components, that were able to completely detain, and in some cases eliminate, those viruses and bacteria that caused deadly STIs. But probably one of the biggest advances in the 20th century was the realization of the importance of education of people, campaigns to educate the people about contagion, ways of prevention and possible treatments.

In this question let's compare and contrast 19th century treatment for those living with an STD and 20th/21st century treatment for those living with HIV/AIDS.

STD in the 19th century and  HIV 21st century

Syphilis came and stayed, spreading, especially in times of war. With modern medicine, the bacterium that causes the disease was identified in 1905. And five years later, the first effective treatment was discovered. But it was only in 1943, with the discovery of penicillin, that a cure for the disease was found.

Treatment for HIV infection is done through antiretroviral drugs that prevent the virus from multiplying in the body, helping to fight the disease and strengthen the immune system, despite not being able to eliminate the virus from the body.

With this information, we can conclude that we are able to interrupt this pattern in the USA, with the increase in specificity in the treatment for these diseases and information, more and more these diseases ended up.

Learn more about HIV in brainly.com/question/10147245

Other Questions
If A=(-2,5) and B=(3,1), find AB Multiply. Express your answer in simplest form. 9 1/6 1 1/11 __________ Power is directed at helpingothers.a. Socializedb. Expertc. Referentd. Personalized This ecosystem is common in northern China. This is a dry climate which is home to short shrubs, sheep, goats, and Mongolian Gerbils. Which of the following ecosystems is described in the paragraph above?A.TundraB.HighlandsC.MediterraneanD.Desert Ernest Hemingway era un aficionado al . Asisti a muchas y las describi en detalle en sus obras. Question 2 with 2 blanks El es la persona que mata al toro al final. Siempre lleva un de colores brillantes. Question 3 with 1 blank Manolete fue un espaol muy famoso que fue herido por un toro y que muri al poco tiempo. Question 4 with 1 blank No se permite que el pblico baje al porque los toros pueden ser muy peligrosos A metalworker has a metal alloy that is 25% copper and another alloy that is 75% copper. How many kilograms of each alloy should the metal worker combine to create 60kg of 65% copper alloy?The metal worker should use _____ kilograms of the metal alloy that is 25% copper and _____ kilograms of the metal alloy that is 75% copper. Would you like to live in a communist country? Explain. A material point in equilibrium has 1 independent component of shear stress in the xz plane. a)True b)- False What is a connection between internal conflict and the subject matter of multicultural writing? The height of a cone is twice the radius of its base. What expression represents the volume of the cone, in cubic units? help!Drag the labels to the correct locations. Each label can be used more thanonce.Label each quadratic function with the number of solutions it hasone solutiontwo solutionsno real solutions If f(x) = x2 - 2x and g(x) = 6x + 4, for which value of x does (f+g)(x) = 0? A level of measurement describing a variable whose attributes are rank-ordered and have equal distancesbetween adjacent attributes are _____ measures. interval ratio nominal theoretical ordinal The variable z is directly proportional to r. When x is 18, z has the value 216.What is the value of z when 2 = 26? During the 1994 midterm election, the Contract with America wasa constitutional amendment.a healthcare proposal.a Democratic mandate.a Republican agenda. PLEASE HELP!!Demonstrate your understanding of how to solve exponential equations by rewriting the base. Solve the problem below fully and explain all the steps...25^3k = 625 Fill in the blanks in the following sentence with the appropriate preterite or imperfect form of the verbs in the parentheses1. Cuando mi prima rosa _______ (ser) pequea, a ella le _______ (gustar) mucho el chocolate. Explain the vertical integration options and directions for the following providers: (a) a major academic medical center such as the University of Iowa, (b) a five-person general surgery group, and (c) a manufacturer of durable medical equipment. What is the volume of 282 g of metal with a density of 11.7 g/cm32 After an experiment is complete and has been published, what process makes sure the results are reliable?A. FalsifiabilityB. Peer review C. The conclusion D. Error Bars