The home health care nurse discards outdated and leftover medications from previous prescriptions at the home of an elderly client. which quality and safety education for nurses (qsen) competency does this intervention involve?

Answers

Answer 1
**Safety**
The potential of taking outdated medications is a danger to the client
Answer 2

Answer:

There are 6 definitions that are recognized in the QSEN  project and each of them are very important for the proper care and protection of the patients.

In your question the correct answer is SAFETY.

Explanation:

In the SAFETY aspect of QSEN the nurse need to minimize or better said eliminate the potential hazards while caring for the patient. Here the nurse is affected by accountability because is his/her responsibility to make sure that nothing pose a threat to the patient. Many times the relatives are not aware of the danger that a medicine that has expired will have on his beloved one but a nurse should always be aware of such a thing and never let a patient take medicine that has expired.


Related Questions

Some fruit flies are born with curly wings which makes them unable to fly. It has been shown that curly wings are caused by a dominant gene which can be represented by the symbol W, while the recessive normal wing gene is represented by the symbol w. If a parent fly with the genotype WW is crossed with a parent of the genotype Ww, what percentage the offspring will have curly wings?

Answers

Answer:

The answer would be A) 100%

Explanation:

100% of the offspring produced by a WW x Ww cross with be curly winged. Using a Punnett square, the resultant offspring will each have a dominant form of the allele for wings (i.e. curly).

Besides lymph nodes, where would you expect to find proliferating (dividing) b cells?

Answers

We can expect to find dividing and maturing B cells, aside from the lymph nodes, is in the spleen. The spleen is one of the major lymphoid tissues (i.e. lymph nodes, thymus, mucosa associated lymphoid tissue, etc) where lymphoid cells proliferate. The major cell from the lymphoid lineage that proliferates in the spleen are the B cells.

How many synapses are crossed in a single reflex arc during a muscle stretch reflex?

Answers

One synapse. In stretch reflex muscle contraction occurs in response to the stretching within muscle. Monosynaptic reflex is the one that provide the action for the skeletal muscles. If the muscles lengthens, the activity of the nerve of muscle spindle increases. This will lead into an increase in alpha motor neuron functions. This will result into muscle fibers to contratc and counters the stretch.  Gamma neurons are the one that controls the sensitivity of the stretch reflex.
Final answer:

In a typical muscle stretch reflex, two synapses are crossed: one between the sensory neuron and the spinal cord and another between the spinal cord and the motor neuron.

Explanation:

In the case of a muscle stretch reflex, typically only two synapses are crossed. For example, when a muscle is stretched, signals are sent to the spinal cord via sensory neurons (first synapse). In the spinal cord, these sensory neurons synapse with motor neurons (second synapse) which then send signals back to the muscle causing it to contract and resist the stretch.

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If transcription occurred from left to right, which strand is the template strand? if transcription occurred from left to right, which strand is the template strand? 5' - tatgcagcacatt - 3' 5' - atacgtcgtgtaa - 3' 3' - atacgtcgtgtaa - 5' 3' - tatgcagcacatt - 5'

Answers

If transcription occurred from left to right the template strand would be
3'- ATACGTCGTGTAA- 5'.
RNA polymerase moves along the template strand in the 3' to 5' direction, synthesizing an RNA molecule from 5' to 3'. If the RNA polymerase is moving from left to right, the strand that is oriented from 3' to 5' left to right is the bottom strand. This is the template strand. The top strand is called the coding strand (or sometimes the non-template) strand. The template strand is complementary to the mRNA sequence; the coding strand is the same sequence with uracil (U) instead of thymine (T).

Final answer:

The template strand for transcription occurring from left to right is 3' - tatgcagcacatt - 5', as RNA polymerase synthesizes RNA in the 5' to 3' direction by reading this template strand in the 3' to 5' direction.

Explanation:

If transcription occurs from left to right on a DNA segment, the template strand will be the one running in the 3' to 5' direction because transcription proceeds in the 5' to 3' direction. Looking at the provided sequences, the template strand is 3' - tatgcagcacatt - 5' since transcription occurring from left to right would involve polymerase moving along this strand in the 3' to 5' direction while synthesizing RNA in the 5' to 3' direction.

During this process, adenine (A) on the DNA template strand dictates the addition of uracil (U) in RNA, thymine (T) will be transcribed as adenine (A), and cytosine (C) pairs with guanine (G) as usual.

A client scans the adult inpatient unit on arrival at the hospital. the client is neatly dressed and clutches a leather briefcase. the client refuses to let the nurse touch the briefcase to check it for valuables or contraband. which action by the nurse would be best?

Answers

The best action the nurse would do is Ask the client to open the briefcase and deliberate the contents of it. In due respect of the property and the privacy of the client. it is best to let him do the honors in opening the brief case.

Which of these features would you expect to see on a homo heidelbergensis skull?

Answers

This question is unfortunately incomplete. However, the general skull features of Homo heidelbergensis include large brow ridges, a broad, sloping forehead and a rear skull wall that is vertical rather than rounded or sloping.

Why is the karyotype for people with Turner syndrome written as 45XO

Answers

The number 45 means that the subject has 44 normal autosomal chromosomes (22 chromosomes pairs) plus one (1) good sex chromosome (out of the normal homologous pair). The X0 means that the subject, usually a female, lacks one sister chromosome of the homologous X chromosome pair, or has a partial X sister chromosome.






What is the main difference between an autotroph and a heterotroph?
A.
A heterotroph only consumes plant matter whereas an autotroph eats both plants and animals.

B.
A heterotroph is able to produce its own food whereas an autotroph must consume other organisms for energy.

C.
An autotroph is able to produce its own food whereas a heterotroph must consume other organisms for energy.

D.
An autotroph only consumes plant matter whereas a heterotroph eats both plants and animals.

Answers

I believe it would be C.

Hi:) i think the answer is C

When we encounter a stressor, the _____ nervous system accelerates the automatic processes in our body, and after the stressor is over, the _____ nervous system returns us to normal functioning?

Answers

The answer is sympathetic; parasympathetic.

The sympathetic nervous system prepares your body for an intense activity. It accelerates the body's processes in case you need to "fight" or run away in response to a stressor. This is the fight-or-flight response that you hear about.

The parasympathetic nervous system, on the other hand, is the calming and relaxing response. It conserves your energy by slowing down the bodily processes. So when you feel no threat it relaxes your body back to normal function. 

Answer: The correct answers for the blanks are-

Sympathetic nervous system and

Parasympathetic nervous system respectively.

Explanation:

The sympathetic nervous system is also referred as '' fight or flight'' system of body as it prepares body for an intense activities during any stressful situation.

It accelerates the processes of body in a way that either body needs to "fight" or run away in response to a particular stressor.

On the other hand, the parasympathetic nervous system is the ''rest and digest'' system of the body. It brings calm and relaxes the body by conserving energy through slowing down the processes taking place. So, when the stressor is gone, the body relaxes and comes back to normal function through parasympathetic branch.

Describe the role of bone morrow in the immune system. Explain why someone who has a genetic disorder that does not allow their bone marrow to do its job may be helped by a bone marrow transplant.


Answers

 Bone marrow produces red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. The white blood cells (also called leukocytes) that our bone marrow produces are used to fight off diseases, and the platelets rush to a wound to form a layer over it, similar to a plate, to clot the blood and prevent bleeding. If your bone marrow dies or fails, your red blood cell count will dramatically decrease. A low blood cell count is called cytopenia. Someone who has a genetic bone marrow disease may be helped by a bone marrow transplant from a matching relative or donor. Before a transplant you get chemotherapy with or without radiation to kill off diseased red blood cells. During a bone marrow transplant you get injected with new, healthy red blood cells that make their way to your bone marrow to further grow and develop.

Each of two parents has the genotype red divided by brown​, which consists of the pair of alleles that determine hair color​, and each parent contributes one of those alleles to a child. assume that if the child has at least one red ​allele, that color will dominate and the​ child's hair color will be red.

Answers

the questions are as follows;

Q1) List the different possible outcomes. Assume that these outcomes are equally likely.

the dominant allele - red (R)

recessive allele - brown (r)

both parents are heterozygous, meaning each of them have both alleles. one allele from each parent will be passed on to the child. therefore the child will have total of 2 alleles, one allele from each parent.

Parents              R/r     x    R/r

possible outcomes - R/R    R/r     r/R    r/r

dominant allele is when at least one allele being there in the genotype will express the corresponding phenotype. Recessive allele is when both alleles need to be recessive for it to be expressed.

outcomes:

 red - R/R , R/r, r/R and brown - r/r 


Q2) What is the probability that a child of these parents will have the brown divided by brown ​genotype?

There are 4 outcomes possible as stated in the previous question. From these 4 outcomes, we are being asked to calculate the probability of child having the genotype r/r. both alleles should be brown colour.

the 4 outcomes - R/R , R/r, r/R, r/r 

as brown is the recessive allele, both alleles need to be brown for it to be expressed. only one of these 4 outcomes have r/r

Probability of r/r - 1/4 = 0.25


Q3) What is the probability that the child will have red hair color​?

as red is the dominant allele, at least one of the alleles being present would express the red phenotype. from the 4 outcomes ;

R/R , R/r, r/R, r/r - three of these have at least one R allele -R/R, R/r, r/R

therefore in three of these outcomes, red will be expressed.

Probability of red being expressed - 3/4 = 0.75

Cells that are ________ possess a single set of chromosomes

Answers

Cells that are haploid only possess a single set of chromosomes whereas diploid cells have two sets of chromosomes. Primary example of haploid cells are gametes or reproductive cells such as the spermatozoa and the ovum; in which in the event of fertilization would produce a diploid cell. 

Examples of diploid cells are somatic cells i.e. epithelial cells, connective tissue cells, neurons, etc. 
Cell that are Haploid posses a single set of chromosomes. Haploid describes a cell that contains a single set of chromosomes. In humans, gametes (sperms and eggs) are haploid cells that contain 23 chromosomes, each of which a one of a chromosome pair that exists in diploid cells. On the other hand, Human cells like skin, lung, kidney, etc are diploid, which means they have two sets of chromosomes (23 from each parent to make 46 chromosomes).

Which of the following weather conditions would result in the greatest rate of evaporation from the Earth's surface?

Answers

what are the options to choose the answer from?
 dry and hot weather would result in a greatest rate of evaporation

To find the distance to an earthquake’s epicenter, scientists _______________________________.
analyze the arrival times of the P waves and surface waves

analyze the arrival times of the P waves and S waves

analyze the arrival times of the surface waves and S waves

analyze the arrival times of the Love waves and Rayleigh waves

Answers

The answer is B. analyze the arrival times of the P waves and S waves.

Calories are units of heat that express the energy value of food.
a. True
b. False

Answers

The definition of calories is that they are units of heat that express the energy value of food, therefore the answer is true

You have figured out how pulmonary arteriole vasoconstriction could lead to high vascular resistance and therefore high blood pressure in the pulmonary circuit. this high resistance is going to make it harder for the heart to push blood through the vessels, overworking the heart and leading to heart failure. which side of the heart is most likely to be overworked?

Answers

The answer would be the right side.

Blood to lungs is pumped by the right ventricle. When there is increased vascular resistance in the lungs, the pressure will be increased called pulmonary hypertension. This will cause the right ventricle need to exert more force than usual.
Left ventricle would be responsible for the blood flow to the body.

Which properly traces the movement of chromosomes during mitosis?

Answers

The cellular structure which traces the movement of chromosomes during mitosis is the centrioles. Centrioles are mainly constructed of microtubules and are responsible for directing the movement of chromosomes during mitosis.
Mitosis is the process of the cell cycle where one cell splits its duplicated genetic material into two identical cells. Centrioles are part of the mitotic spindle which is the structure that organizes and moves the chromosomes into these two daughter cells.
Final answer:

Mitosis consists of sequential stages starting with prophase and ending with cytokinesis, during which the chromosomes condense, attach to spindle fibers, align at the metaphase plate, are pulled apart during anaphase, and are separated into two new nuclei in telophase.

Explanation:

To properly trace the movement of chromosomes during mitosis, one must understand the sequential stages involved in this process. Mitosis is a critical aspect of cell division that ensures each daughter cell receives an exact copy of the parent cell's chromosomes.

Prophase: Chromosomes condense and become visible. The mitotic spindle begins to form, but the nuclear envelope is still intact.Prometaphase: The nuclear envelope breaks down, allowing spindle fibers to attach to kinetochores on the chromosomes.Metaphase: Chromosomes align at the metaphase plate, with sister chromatids facing opposite poles.Anaphase: Cohesion proteins dissolve, and sister chromatids are pulled apart by the spindle fibers toward opposite poles.Telophase: Nuclear membranes start to reform around separated sister chromatids, now individual chromosomes, at the poles of the cell.Cytokinesis: The cytoplasm divides, creating two daughter cells, each with a complete set of chromosomes.

32. Explain the relationship between the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system. How do
they work together to accomplish a task? (4 points)

Answers

Nerves from the peripheral nervous system that leave the brain and spinal cord travel throughout the body. The peripheral nervous system job is to send information from the body's sensory receptors to the central nervous system quickly.

The nervous system develops throughout the human body and includes very different elements in their forms and functions. It is divided into two complementary systems, the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) and the Central Nervous System (CNS).

The SNP includes all the nerve tissue that runs through the body. It has a dual function: to receive information by sensory sensors and transmit them to the CNS, and to activate motor functions controlled by the CNS. It consists of two parts, that somatic, activating the skeletal muscles and that, autonomous, attached to the viscera.

The CNS is the brain and spinal cord. It is the center of information processing.

Choose all the answers that apply. The mantle _____. is the thinnest layer is the thickest layer is the hottest layer is made of solid rock sometimes breaks through the crust

Answers

the thickest layer, the hottest layer

Answer:

the thickest layer, the hottest layer

Explanation:

If there was a large oil spill close to shore, which method would be deployed to prevent a large scale impact on the wildlife?

Answers

Answer:

Booms

Explanation:

I just took the test.

If there was a large oil spill close to the shore, the method which would be deployed to prevent a large scale impact on the wildlife are the floating barriers which are mainly booms.

What are Floating barriers?

Floating barriers are also referred to as the boom. These are the devices which are placed in the waterbody to control and also contain oil, floating debris, invasive aquatic plants, trash, silt, sediment, and enough turbidity. A floating barrier can be installed either temporarily or permanently in a shore or wildlife.

The most common type of the equipment which is used to control the spread of oil is floating barriers are called as the booms. Containment booms are also used to control the spread of the oil components to reduce the possibility of polluting the shorelines and other resources, as well as to concentrate the oil in thicker surface layers in the shore and also making recovery easier.

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You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle collision. upon arrival, you find the driver, a young female, sitting on the curb. she is confused, is in obvious respiratory distress, and has pale, moist skin. as your partner manually stabilizes her head, you perform a primary assessment. after performing any immediate livesaving treatment, you should:

Answers

you should prepare a rapid scan of her entire body and prepare for immediate transport

In the given scenario, after performing any immediate lifesaving treatment, one should perform a secondary assessment to identify any additional injuries or medical conditions.

The primary assessment is used to identify and treat any life-threatening conditions, such as airway obstruction, breathing problems, or circulation problems.

Once primary issues are resolved, a secondary assessment is performed to identify to check whether there is any other injuries or medical conditions is present that may require treatment.

During the secondary assessment, one will perform a head-to-toe exam to look for any signs of injury. You will also obtain a detailed medical history and gather information about the events leading up to the accident.

Therefore, performing secondary assessment is important after performing primary assessment.

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The effects of the sympathetic nervous system are divergent, meaning that a single stimulus can have an effect on a large number of targets. in other words, when the sns is activated, all of the organs it innervates are stimulated. this does not occur in the parasympathetic system. why?

Answers

The sympathetic ganglia spreads the stimulus to all postganglionic sympathetic neurons.

The approximate transfer of energy from one trophic level to the next higher trophic level is ________.

Answers

Oxygen is the next higher tropic level

Match each description below with the cell type it characterizes. cell types may be used more than once or not at all.
a. melanocyte
b. keratinocyte
c. fibroblast major cell type found in the dermis of the skin; its primary function is to secrete extracellular matrix.

Answers

Major cell type found in the dermis of the skin; its primary function is to secrete extracellular matrix.C. Fibroblast.
Major cell type found in the epidermis of the skin whose primary function is production of pigment.a. Melanocyte.
Major cell type found in the epidermis of the skin; its primary function is to protect underlying tissues and organs.b. keratinocyte.

what are the limitations of the Dissecting Microscope?

Answers

only shows external structure and low power

An animal experiences an injury to its head. it then starts to eat uncontrollably. what part of the brainis probably injured?

Answers

Answer::


Ventromedial Hypothalamus

The proximal end of the ulna illustrates the relationship of form and function. the rounded trochlear notch articulates with the hourglass shape of the trochlea. this forms a joint that allows for ________. the hinge like motion of the forearm the rotational motion of the forearm the curling of the fingers the hyper extension of the forearm

Answers

I believe that this forms a joint that allows for hinge like motion of the forearm. 
The ulna extends through the forearm from the elbow to the wrist, narrowing significantly towards its distal end. At the proximal ends it forms the elbow joint with the humerus of the upper arm and the radius of the forearm. The ulna then extends past the humerus to form the tip of the elbow (olecranon). The hinge like motion of the elbow joint places the point of the olecranon well under the middle of the upper arm.

Answer:

Option A, The hinge like motion of the forearm

Explanation:

A hinge joint  allows for two motions at a time

a) Flexion - The bending motion

b) Extension - The strengthening motion of arm bones

At the  proximal end , the Ulna forms a joint with the humerus  and radius of forearm. The Ulna extends to form olecranon (the tip of the elbow) Both Ulna and radius bones are attached with an interosseous membrane that causes movement just like a hinge joint.

Option A is correct

Which three human activities lead to a loss of terrestrial habitat? a.conservation b.farming c.deforestation d.construction

Answers

The answers would be b.farming c.deforestation and d.construction!

Conservation
is the act of trying to preserve nature! Quite the opposite of the question!
The appropriate answers are b. farming, c. deforestation and d. construction. Deforestation is the widespread removal of trees from forests. Deforestation destroys the habitats of thousands of species, especially regions such as the Amazon.
Large scale construction can lead to the destruction of habitats as the original shape of the land is altered. This alteration almost always disrupts habitats.
Improper farming techniques can lead to deforestation and soil erosion; both of which disrupts habitats.

If an organism has 6 haploid chromosomes, how many chromosomes are present? 6 12

Answers

the Haploid number is half (haploid cells are sex cells egg and sperm they have half as many chromosomes as the diploid cells which are normal cells ) of the chromosomes so that would be 12. To clarify that if a organism has 12 chromosomes and reproduce sexually it takes two
parents each contributing ether a egg or sperm each egg or sperm contains half of the genetic
material 


Your answer would be (6)




Hope this helps.

The number of chromosomes in a haploid cell, which includes an egg and sperm, is half that of a diploid cell, or a normal cell. Therefore, a haploid cell would have 12 chromosomes.

What is Haploid chromosomes?

A cell with a single set of chromosomes is called haploid. The number of chromosomes in sperm or egg cells, often known as gametes, is also referred to as haploid.

In humans, gametes are haploid cells with 23 chromosomes—one of each chromosomal pair found in diplod cells—and are hence haploid. The haploid number, commonly known as n, is used to indicate the number of chromosomes in a single pair. n = 23 for people.

Half of the chromosomes found in somatic cells, or the body's typical diploid cells, are found in gametes. Meiosis, a type of cell division that cuts the number of chromosomes in a parent diploid cell in half, produces haploid gametes.

Therefore, The number of chromosomes in a haploid cell, which includes an egg and sperm, is half that of a diploid cell, or a normal cell. Therefore, a haploid cell would have 12 chromosomes.

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Assessment of a term neonate at 8 hours after birth reveals tachypnea, diminished femoral pulses, and poor lower body perfusion. the nurse notifies the health care provider (hcp) based on the interpretation that these symptoms are associated with which complication?

Answers

Answer:Coarctation of the aorta.Explanation:

This is a medical condition in which the aorta, the largest blood vessel that leaves the heart, contracts. This blood vessel is tasked with carrying oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. Also known as Aortic narrowing, this medical condition can be identified by symptoms like tachypnea, diminished femoral pulses, and poor lower body perfusion.

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