Answer:
True
Explanation:
Rotational and linear motions are analogous to each other.
The inertia of a body in a linear motion is its mass. This can be seen from Newton's second law of thermodynamics:
F = ma
The larger the value of the force, the larger the inertia is (m) and the slower it accelerates.
The inertia of a body in a rotational body is it moment of inertia (I). Both I and m are same but I depends on both the shape and mass of the rotating body.
For example, The inertia of a solid disk with mass M and radius R is:
[tex]I=\frac {1}{2}\times MR^2[/tex]
Hence, the statement is true.
Final answer:
The moment of inertia is indeed analogous to mass in linear motion, as it measures an object's resistance to change in angular velocity. It is calculated based on the mass distribution and distance to the axis of rotation, with the shape and center of mass being crucial determinants.
Explanation:
The statement that the moment of inertia in angular kinematics or kinetics corresponds to mass in linear kinematics or kinetics is true. The moment of inertia is a measure of an object’s resistance to change in its angular velocity about a fixed axis of rotation. Just as a more massive object will have greater resistance to changes in linear velocity, an object with a larger moment of inertia will resist changes in angular velocity. The moment of inertia depends on the distribution of mass and the distance of mass from the axis of rotation. Hence, similar to the linear momentum equation p = mv, the angular momentum L is defined as the product of moment of inertia I and angular velocity ω, where L = Iω. It is also important to note that the shape of the object and the location of the center of mass greatly influence the moment of inertia.
The moment of inertia has units of mass multiplied by distance squared (kg · m²), further emphasizing its role as the rotational counterpart to mass in linear motion. In considering the dynamics of rotational motion, the kinetic energy is distributed between linear and rotational components based on the moment of inertia. For example, a hollow cylinder with mass distributed farther from the axis will have a larger moment of inertia compared to a solid cylinder of the same mass, influencing its rotational kinetic energy and subsequent angular momentum during motion.
The last equation, summarizing the relationship between torque, moment of inertia, and angular acceleration (net τ = Iα), is analogous to Newton's law in linear motion (F = ma), further highlighting the correspondence between moment of inertia and mass in their respective domains of motion.
Select the correct statement concerning the trachea, it:
A) conducts air from the larynx into the bronchi.
B) is lined with pseudostratified cillated columnar epithelum
C) is usually located posterior to the esophagus.
D) A and B are correct
E) A, B and C are correct.
Answer:
The answer is A conducts air from the larynx into the bronchi.
Explanation:
The trachea, component of the respiratory system is formed by cartilaginous rings and goes from the larynx in front of the esophagus to the middle of the chest, approximately where it is divided into the right bronchus and left bronchus.
Which stratum/sub layer is found in the dermis?
A) Subcutaneous
B) Papillary
C) Basale
D) granulosum
E) lucidum
Answer:
The correct option is B) Papillary
Explanation:
The thick layer of skin present between the subcutaneous tissues and the epidermis (outermost layer of skin), is known as the dermis. The dermis consists of elastic and fibrous tissues, which cushions the body from any external stress.
The dermis consists of two sub layers- the papillary region and the reticular dermis.
The papillary dermis is the uppermost layer present in the pepillary region of the dermis.
Therefore, papillary is a stratum or sub-layer of the dermis.
Mr Rogers is 2 days postoperative of a thoracotomy of removal of a malignant mass in his left chest. His pain is being managed via epidural catheter with morphine. As the nurse assumes care of Mr Rogers, he is alert and fully oriented and states that his current pain is 2 on a 1 -to-10 scale. His vital signs are 37.8-92-12, 138/82. What are benefits of epidural versus systemic administration of opioids? The nurse monitors Mr Roger’s respiratory status and vital signs every 2 hours. What is the rationale for this frequent assessments? The nurse monitors Mr Rogers for what other complications of epidural anelgesis?
Answer:
Any aggressive surgery, like this one, where there is affectation of various organs of the body, and irritation on the part of the tissues, as well as the risk of severe complications, requires both pain management and constant monitoring. In a thoracotomy, like the one Mr. Rogers underwent, most organs of the thorax, but most particularly the entire respiratory tract, suffers mostly from the intervention. As such, nurses must be aware of the care these patients need.
In answer to question 1, what are the benefits of Mr. Rogers having an epidural catheter, instead of a central line, for pain management with opioids, would be that aside from pain being managed more centrally, and more aggressively, as the opioid is delivered directly to the epidural lining, near the spinal cord, it also has been shown to reduce the risk of other complications, particularly pulmonary complications, like lung failure, or maltreatment of the airways due to intubation, that would be needed for central-line systemic pain management. It has also been shown to reduce heart risks, and a shorter time of stay of patients inside intensive care units. Finally, but not least of all the benefits, patients with this form of pain management show lesser chances of presenting stomach and intestinal bleeding,
In answer to question 2, why the nurse checks Mr. Rogers´ respiratory status and vital signs every 2 hours, that because aside from being protocol, when there is a chest surgery, like this one, where the respiratory tract has been manipulated, there is always the huge chance of respiratory failure and complications. In fact, the mortality and morbidity in cases like this, due to respiratory complications and adverse events, is pretty high, and therefore, requires that the nurse be aware of the vital signs that will show if any of the organs is presenting unusual activity.
In answer to the 3rd question, one severe problem of the epidural line for pain management is always the risk of infection, especially since the line connects directly to the epidural lining of the spinal cord. There should also be monitoring of possible oedema of the lower limbs, numbness in any portion of the lower body, bleeding, or if there is presence of cerebrospinal fluid anywhere where the catheter has been inserted. There also shouldn´t be the presence of drowsiness, or sleepiness in the patient. These are only a few things. It has been proven that epidural pain management presents less risks than the use of central lines for systemic pain relief.
Epidural administration of opioids allows for more specific and efficient delivery of pain relief with fewer systemic side effects. Frequent assessments help monitor for potential respiratory depression—a side effect of opioids—as well as complications such as infection, hematoma, or nerve damage associated with epidural analgesia.
Explanation:The administration of opioids via an epidural catheter directly into the epidural space delivers medication directly around the spinal nerves. This provides benefits over systemic administration, particularly in terms of specificity and efficiency. Epidural administration generally results in fewer side effects such as nausea, drowsiness, and respiratory depression, and it can provide better pain relief with lesser amount of medication.
As for frequent assessments, the rationale for this is that opioids, such as morphine, can suppress the respiratory system, especially in high doses or when administered quickly. Monitoring Mr. Rogers' respiratory status and vital signs every 2 hours allows the healthcare team to ensure his safety and catch any potential issues quickly. It is also important to monitor for potential complications of epidural analgesia, which can include infection, epidural hematoma, or nerve damage.
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The condition Marfan syndrome results from the production of abnormal elastin, the main protein component of classic fibers. Predict the potential consequences of defective elastic fibers.(Hint: Consider the organs and tissues in which elastic fibers are found. How would defective elastic fibers impair the function of those organs and tissues?)
Answer:
The potential consequences are cardiovascular problems, abnormal vision and skin problems.
Explanation:
Marfan syndrome may be defined as a type of genetic disorder that affects the various tissues of the body. The abnormal elastin is produced in the connective tissue in case of Marfan syndrome.
The consequences associated with defective elastic fibers are as follows:
Cardiovascular problems: This disease affects the connective tissue and may cause the aortic aneurysms and prolapse of mitral valve.
Abnormal vision: The eyes ciliary muscles get damage that may cause blurred vision and nearsightedness.
Skin problems: The elasticity of the skin is highly reduced in the Marfan syndrome that may leads to the development of skin loosening and various other skin related disease.
Which way would blood flow in:
·Patent ductus arteriosus?
·Transposition of the great vessels?
·Tetralogy of Fallot?
Answer:
1-) Patent ductus arteriosus: this duct normally must be closed two days after the baby is born, but if not, it will carry oxygenated blood to the pulmonary artery producing a mixture with oxygen-poor blood and producing a cardiac overload due to the large amount of blood that would reach the right heart.
2-) Transposition of the great vessels: In this defect, the oxygenated blood is collected throughout the body and taken directly to the right heart which returns to the poorly connected aorta (right ventricle) back to the body without oxygenation; on the other hand, the oxygenated blood returns to the left heart, then goes to the pulmonary artery (connected to the left ventricle) and back to the lungs.
3-) Tetralogy of fallot: It is a congenital anomaly that can present different defects at the level of the heart, such as:
intraventricular communication, in which blood would go from the left heart to the right heart. Pulmonary obstruction, there is obstruction of the blood outlet by plugging the duct, which causes a decrease in blood flow to the body. Dextraposition of the aorta: The aorta is more deviated to the right and in union with the intraventricular (IVC) communication. Increased amount of bleeding to the pulmonary artery. Bad oxygenation of the blood due to the mixture thereof.
Rolling friction is less than sliding friction.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The given statement is TRUE
Explanation:
Friction is a force experienced by a body that resists its motion.
In other words, Friction is the force experienced by the two bodies (with uneven or rough surfaces) when moving against each other.
When an object slides on a surface, the surface area of the object in contact with the surface is more as compared to an object which is rolled on the surface. Therefore, the friction force experienced by the sliding body is greater than the rolling body.
Therefore, we can say that the rolling friction is less than the sliding friction.
The adrenal medullarry hormones mimic the effects of sympathetic discharge because they increase:
A. glycogenolysis
B. lipolysis
C energy production
D. A and C
E. A, B, and C
Answer:
D. A and C
Explanation:
The adrenal medullarry hormones mimic the effects of sympathetic discharge because they increase glycogenolysis and energy production.
Bone can respond to increased/decreased applied forces by increasing/decreasing bone mass or changing the external shape or internal structure.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
a. True
Explanation:
Bone can respond to increased/decreased applied forces by increasing/decreasing bone mass or changing the external shape or internal structure.
Bone can respond to increased/decreased applied forces by increasing/decreasing bone mass or changing the external shape or internal structure.
a. True
b. False
Which branch of microscopic anatomy is the study of tissues?
A) Surgical anatomy
B) Histology
C) Cytology
D) Developmental anatomy
E) Embryology
Answer:
B) Histology
Explanation:
The histology studies the biological structures in his microscopic anatomy. The cytology also studies the structures at microscopic levels but looking only at cells. It is the histology that classfies the ephitelium and other tissues into a specialized classification. It is a great help beacause we can look at the microscopic changes in a disease in order to make a diagnosis.
The correct answer is B. Histology branch of microscopic anatomy is the study of tissues.
Histology is the branch of microscopic anatomy that deals with the study of tissues, including their structure, function, and composition. Tissues are groups of cells that perform specific functions in the body, and histology examines these tissues at a microscopic level to understand their organization and role in maintaining the body's homeostasis.
To clarify the other options:
A) Surgical anatomy is the study of anatomical structures with a focus on their relevance to surgical procedures. It is not specifically concerned with tissues at the microscopic level.
C) Cytology is the study of cells, including their structure, function, and pathology, but it does not specifically focus on tissues, which are composed of multiple cells.
D) Developmental anatomy is the study of the processes by which an organism forms and grows, including the development of tissues, organs, and systems, but it is broader than just the study of tissues.
E) Embryology is a subfield of developmental anatomy that specifically focuses on the development of an embryo from the time of fertilization until it becomes a fetus. While it involves the formation of tissues, it is not exclusively the study of tissues themselves.
Therefore, histology is the most appropriate term for the study of tissues at the microscopic level.
The universal blood donor is:
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type O
D. Type AB
Answer:
c
Explanation:
it is blood group o, it can donate to other group
Answer:
C. Type O
Explanation:
The universal blood donor is type O.
O can either be an O-Positive or an O-Negative blood type.
O-Positives typically are better for donation.
Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response icd 10
Answer
In some cases of afib, the fibrillation of the atria causes the ventricles, of lower chambers of the heart, to beat too fast. This is called a rapid ventricular rate or response. (RVR) if you have afib with RVR you'll experience symptoms, typically a rapid or fluttering heart beat.
Explanation:
Why do the different skeletal muscle fiber types vary in the speed and duration of their twitches?
a) They vary in the flow of K* across the membrane.
b) They vary in the rate of hydrolysis of ATP
c) They vary in the removal of Ca+ from the cytosol
d) a & b
e) a & c
f) b & c
g) a, b & c
Answer:
The different skeletal muscle fiber types vary in the speed and duration of their twitches due to -
b) They vary in the rate of hydrolysis of ATP
c) They vary in the removal of Ca+ from the cytosol
Explanation:
There are mainly two types of muscle fibers , i.e.
a) slow twitching, long contraction duration( type I fibers)
b) First twitching but short duration of contraction. ( type II fibers).
Now think of the physiology of muscle. Two components are important, cytosolic Ca++ concentration and Availability of ATP. K+ is related to the action potential ( none or all law, there is no relation to the duration with respect to the potassium). For long contraction muscle fibers need a more steady supply of ATP, and also consistent high concentration of cytosolic Ca++ for muscle contraction to happen. So, these two factor is important for the duration of twitching. So the answer is option f .
Symptoms of Salmonella food poisoning include?
a) Vomiting and nausea
b) Abdominal pain and Diarrhea
c) Both A and B
Answer:
C, both A and B
Explanation:
A salmonella infection is an infection in the intestinal track. Some of the sources of the infection are contaminated water and food, meat, fertilizer and pets.
Symptoms of salmonella include abdominal pain with cramps, diarrhea, vomiting with accompanying nausea. Some people also experience chills and fever.
The illness usually goes away on its own but some patients may need hospital treatment.
Prevention of salmonella include hand washing, cooking well of all foods and avoiding contact with unknown animals.
Answer:
c)Both A and B
Explanation:
hope this help you answer your question
Heritability describes the:
a. genetic composition for a trait in a particular population.
b. phenotypic variation of a trait in a particular population.
c. variation in a phenotype caused by the environment.
d. proportion of genetic contribution to a trait in a particular population.
Heritability describes the proportion of variation in a trait in a particular population that is due to genetic influences. It does not account for the direct influence of the environment on a phenotype, but rather the genetic contribution to a trait.
Explanation:Heritability describes the proportion of variation in a trait in a particular population that is due to genetic influences. Thus, the correct answer is (d) the proportion of genetic contribution to a trait in a particular population.
The variation in a phenotype could be influenced by both genetic and environmental factors. However, heritability specifically refers to the degree to which genetic differences contribute to differences in the trait among people.
For instance, if we say the heritability of height is 0.6, it means that approximately 60% of the variance in height within a population can be attributed to genetic influences.
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Heritability describes the genetic contribution to a trait's variability within a population. It's a estimation of how much variability is due to genes or environment.
Explanation:Heritability describes the proportion of genetic contribution to a trait in a particular population. It gives us an estimate of how much of the variation of a trait in a population is due to genes versus the environment. For example, if heritability of a trait like height is 0.6, it means that 60% of the variation in height in the population is due to genetic factors.
The alternative options a, b and c are different from heritability.
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Whole blood for testing in clinical labs is usually collected from?
Answer:
Superficial vein
Explanation:
Whole blood for testing in clinical labs is usually collected from superficial vein.
Have a great day!
Why do you think people write one way and speak to people a different way?
Answer:
written and spoken language are different
Explanation:
Written and spoken language differ widely. Only some forms of writing are closer to speech. .During writing, the punctuation and layout of written texts often have no spoken equivalence. Technology is chaning this as, some forms of written language, like SMS instant messages and email, are getting closer to spoken language. (Think of the use of emoticons)
Still, written language will be more formal and follow the rules of the Grammar & Structures of any language. Spoken language will happen to be casual. While written words appeals more to a contemplative, deliberative style. Speeches can also be precise and indeed practice makes perfect.
People trained in speech or writing will communicate much more effectively.
Describe the effects of aging on joints.
Answer:
With the aging of the joints, wear on them occurs. The most affected joints are those with greater mobility and weight support, such as the knee, shoulders and elbows. The changes that occur most are:
- decrease in synovial fluid.
- reduction of intra articular space.
- joint stiffness.
The joint becomes arthrosic, that is to say a worn joint, which will manifest itself with pain, functional limitation and inflammation.
Body Cavities:
For each organ below, identify the body cavities using the following: cranial, vertebral, thoracic, pleural, pericardial, peritoneal, abdominal and pelvic.
*Note: more than one term may be necessary to correctly answer the following below.
Stomach ________________
Ovaries _________________
Small intestine ___________________
Brain __________________
Kidneys _____________________
Lungs ____________________
Spinal cord _________________
Heart ________________
Urinary bladder _____________________
Liver _____________________
Answer:
The answer are:
- Stomach: abdominal and peritoneal cavity
- Ovaries: pelvis and peritoneal cavity
- Small intestine: abdominal and peritoneal cavity
- Brain: cranial cavity
- Kidneys: abdominal and peritoneal cavity
- Lungs: thorax and pleural cavity
- Spinal cord: spine
- Heart: pericardic and thorax
- Urinary bladder: Pelvis and peritoneal cavity
- Liver: abdominal and peritoneal cavity
Final answer:
The stomach, small intestine, kidneys, and liver are located in the abdominal cavity and peritoneal cavity, the ovaries and urinary bladder are in the pelvic cavity, the brain in the cranial cavity, the lungs in the thoracic and pleural cavities, the spinal cord in the vertebral cavity, and the heart in the thoracic and pericardial cavities.
Explanation:
Body Cavities and Organ Locations
For each organ listed, the body cavity or cavities in which it is located are specified
Stomach: abdominal cavity, peritoneal cavity
Ovaries: pelvic cavity, peritoneal cavity
Small intestine: abdominal cavity, peritoneal cavity
Brain: cranial cavity
Kidneys: abdominal cavity, peritoneal cavity (technically, they are posterior to the peritoneum, in the retroperitoneal space)
Lungs: thoracic cavity, pleural cavity
Spinal cord: vertebral (spinal) cavity
Heart: thoracic cavity, pericardial cavity
Urinary bladder: pelvic cavity
Liver: abdominal cavity, peritoneal cavity
The body is divided into two main cavities: dorsal and ventral. The dorsal cavity contains the cranial cavity and the spinal (vertebral) cavity. The ventral cavity includes the thoracic body cavity (further divided into the pleural and pericardial cavities) and the abdominopelvic cavity (which further divides into the abdominal and pelvic cavities). The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominopelvic cavity by the diaphragm.
Which disease is usually spread from infected animal to humans via a bite?
a) Polio
b) Small pox
c) Measles
d) Rabies
e) Amoebic dysentery
Answer:
D, rabies
Explanation:
Rabies is a very dangerous virus that is spread by a bite or scratch of an animal. It remains a problem in many countries in the world and people still die from its causes.
If a person is bitten by an animal in a rabies infected area, he should seek medical treatment immediately, as treatment must be given before the symptoms appear. The symptoms include fear of light and water, neurological problems and the most visible one, foam coming out of the mouth. The virus causes inflammation of the brain which leads to death.
Without early treatment, rabies is fatal.
Being overweight can contribute to high blood pressure primarily by increasing blood vessel length.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Being overweight contributes to high blood pressure but the internal blood vessel length is smaller. The high blood pressure result is due to the obstruction of the vessels caused by the cholesterol accumulated in those vessels. If the cholesterol keeps obstructing the vessels, the heart must beat faster getting hypertrophyed, by the time the vessels should become bigger because of the hypertrophy os the muscle but the lumen will be always smaller.
Answer:
b. False
Explanation:
We should be concerned about obesity because it is associated with a number of serious health problems. Obesity is known to be related to various types of cancer, orthopedic problems, varicose veins of the lower limbs, and especially the development of adult diabetes (type 2) and high blood pressure or high blood pressure. In relation to hypertension, obesity reduces the length of blood vessels, due to the excess fat that accumulates in these vessels.
An abnormal sound (murmur) due to narrowing or stenosis of the mitral valve might be heard during:
a. diastole
b. systole
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: An abnormal sound (murmur) due to narrowing or stenosis of the mitral valve might be heard during:____, would be, A: Diastole.
Explanation:
It is first important to know that a murmur comes from the sound the blood makes as it passes either through a hardened tissue, like is the case of stenosis of a valve, or because it leaks back from where it came, due to regurgitation, because the valve is defective and cannot close properly. During the cardiac cycle, there is a process of systole, and of diastole, that ensure the filling and expulsion of the blood inside the heart towards the body, and from the body into the heart, so that a constant flow is ensured. In the process of filling and emptying, two sets of valves, the mitral and tricuspid, and the aortic and pulmonary, open and close to allow blood flow towards the different chambers of the heart, and out into the blood vessels of the body, and prevent the blood from returning towards where it came. In the case of mitral stenosis, which is the toughening of the mitral valve of the heart, the blood flowing through it makes a murmuring sound that can be caught up through a stethoscope. This sound is prominent during diastole, and that is why medically this murmur is known as a diastolic murmur.
Renal failure may lead to:
a. nevous system problems
b. high blood pressure
c. azotemia or an increase in nitrogenous wastes
d. all of the above
Answer: Option D.
Explanation:
Renal failure can be defined as the condition of kidneys in which the functional ability of kidneys to remove waste and balance fluids is loss.
Renal failure can lead to azotemia, high blood pressure, and nervous system problems.
In renal failure, blood vessels of kidneys get narrower that increases the amount of force through the blood vessels and results in hypertension (high blood pressure), Uraemic toxins produced during chronic renal failure contribute to central nervous system (CNS) injury, and Azotemia is severe cause of renal failure that allows elevation of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels.
Hence, the correct option D.
Name the 2 thyroid hormones with metabolic function.
Answer: Calcitonin and Thyroxine T4
Explanation:
Thyroid gland is found at the front of the neck, which makes the hormone whose main function is to control the metabolism of the body.
The hormone calcitonin is one of the hormone secreted from thyroid which functions by controlling the level of calcium and phosphate in the body. This hormone is secreted by the C-cells that is present in very small amount in the body.
Another hormone is T4 which is converted into T3 in organ and tissues of the body. This functions by controlling the metabolism of the body, such as digestion, body temperature, breathing, burning calories.
Which word means elevated blood pressure?
a. hypercholesterolemia
b. hypolipidemia
c. hypertension
d. hypotension
The correct answer is C. Hypertension
Explanation:
In medicine, the tension or pressure blood generates on the walls of blood vessels is commonly known as blood pressure. Additionally, concerning blood pressure in medicine a low blood pressure is known as hypotension, considering "hypo" means under; while a high or elevated blood pressure is known as hypertension as "hyper" means over or in excess. Indeed, hypertension occurs because there is excessive pressure on the wall of blood vessels which is a medical condition that can lead to diseases such as vision loss, artery disease, heart failures, among others. On the other hand, hypercholesteremia refers to high levels of cholesterol and hypolipidemia refers to low levels of lipids. Therefore, the word that means elevated pressure is Hypertension.
Most E. coll strains encountered in a lifetime are harmless and simply contribute to natural flora.
a) True
b) False
Answer:
a) True
Explanation:
It's true, most strains of E. coli with which we have contact are harmless. They are found in the intestines of healthy animals and humans forming part of our flora. However, there are strains that can make us sick if we ingest them. We can found them in contaminated water, poorly washed vegetables and raw meats.
Icd 10 code for lumbar stenosis with radiculopathy
Answer:
Radiculopathy which was a nonspecific code of 724.4 now is covered with the following ICD-10-CM codes: M54.15 Radiculopathy, thoracolumbar region. M54.16 Radiculopathy, lumbar region.
Explanation:
Which is the most numerous type of blood cell?
a. erythrocyte
b. plasma cell
c. leukocyte
d. macrophage
Answer:
A. erythrocytes
Explanation:
Erythrocytes are red blood cells. There are about 600x as many RBCs as there are white blood cells (leukocytes) in the blood. Plasma cells and macrophages are both types of leukocytes. If there's more RBCs than WBCs, there's definitely more RBCs than plasma cells or macrophages.
The most numerous type of blood cell is the erythrocyte, which is responsible for transporting oxygen to the body's tissues.
Explanation:The most numerous type of blood cell is the erythrocyte, which is also known as a red blood cell. These cells are responsible for transporting oxygen to the body's tissues. In a healthy individual, there are about 4-6 million erythrocytes per microliter of blood.
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Sterilization of surgical instruments is a process that renders the items free of:
A. spores.
B. blood.
C. oil
D. dirt
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: Sterilization of surgical instruments is a process that renders items free of:___, would be, A: Spores.
Explanation:
Spores are a particularly difficult topic when talking about complete sterility, and an environment that is pathogen free, because spores, which are the inactive form that some bacteria take when they are attacked to be eliminated, are resistant to a lot of cleaning procedures, and once the circumstances are right, the spore will re-activate itself and infect. This is the reason why sterilization techniques have been developed, and improved; to be able to not just eliminate all living microorganisms on surgical equipment, but also spores. Without this, sterilization is incomplete, and infection to patients is possible.
What are the signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia? How would each be treated?
Answer:
Explanation:
Hyperglycemia
When the blood glucose level is more than 130 mg/ dL after not eating anything for 8 hours then this condition can be defined as Hyperglycemia.
After eating, if the level of blood sugar in blood is more than 180 mg/ dL
Symptoms: Trouble concentrating,Weight loss, increased thirst, fatigue, et cetera.
Treatment: Insulin, medication and regular exercise.
Hypoglycemia
When the blood glucose level is less than 70mg/dL then this condition is known as hypoglycemia. This condition can be defined less than normal blood glucose level.
Symptoms: Dizziness, hunger, pale skin, fatigue.
Treatment: Food with high sugar content must be eaten( candy, chicken, tofu) to make the level normal and then proper medication should be continued as advised by the doctor.
Answer:
In relation to diabetes, hyperglycemia refers to chronically high blood glucose levels. Most medical professionals define hyperglycemia by using the blood glucose goals that you and your physician have established and combining those goals with the blood glucose target ranges set by the American Diabetes Association. It’s important to understand that you’ll probably experience high blood glucose levels from time to time, despite your best efforts at control. To treat hyperglycemia, you must:
Exercise: Physical activity can use excess glucose in the blood. However, if a person with severe hyperglycemia finds ketones in their urine, they should avoid exercise, as this breaks down more fats and might speed up ketoacidosis. Moderating the diet: Eating less during mealtimes and snacking less, as well as focusing on low-sugar foods, helps keep the amount of glucose at a level that the body can handle. A dietitian can help a person adapt their diet in gradual and healthful ways. Alter medications: A doctor may recommend changing the timings or types of medication and insulin a person is taking if they are not reducing blood sugar as they should.Hypoglycemia refers to dangerously low blood glucose levels that drop below 70 mg/dL. Significant hypoglycemia is considered below 54 mg/dL. It is an acute complication of diabetes and occurs in individuals who use insulin or specific kinds of oral diabetes medication. If you use oral diabetes medications, ask your physician or diabetes educator whether hypoglycemia should be a concern. To treat hypoglycemia, you must immediately:
Check your blood glucose level to determine the amount of carbohydrate that is needed to raise your blood glucose to a safe level. Use the 15/15 Rule: Consume 15 grams of carbohydrate (4 ounces of regular juice or soda, 1 tablespoon honey, 2 tablespoons raisins, 7 Life Savers®, 9 Sweet Tarts®, or 3-4 glucose tablets) and retest your blood glucose in 15 minutes. If it is still below 70 mg/dL, you should consume an additional 15 grams of carbohydrate. Following the 15/15 Rule can help avoid over treatment and resulting hyperglycemia. If you are not planning to have a meal within one to two hours after treating a hypoglycemic reaction, eat a snack containing 15-30 grams of carbohydrate to prevent another episode of hypoglycemia.Complications from Hypoglycemia
If hypoglycemia is not treated immediately, it can result in:
Severe confusion and disorientation Unconsciousness Seizures Coma DeathExplanation:
There are different levels of low blood sugar: mild, moderate, or severe. If your blood sugar drops low enough that you need help to recover, it is considered to be a low blood sugar emergency, or severe hypoglycemia.
Mild or moderate low blood sugar is common for people with type 1 diabetes, and can occur in people with type 2 diabetes who are using insulin. If not treated, mild or moderate low blood sugar can progress and become severe, requiring the help of someone else to recover. Let those close to you know what the possible signs are so they can be more prepared for an emergency.
Which medical word is used to refer to cancer of the white blood cells?
a. leukemia
b. anemia
c. multiple myeloma
d. adenocarcinoma
Answer:
A, leukemia
Explanation:
Cancer of white blood cells is called leukemia. White blood cells are very important in the body as they fight infections. When a person has leukemia, his bone marrow produces abnormal white blood cells which don't function properly.
It is a form of blood cancer that starts in the bone marrow. Symptoms of this disease may include bleeding and bruising, feeling tired and being at higher risk for infections. The diagnosis is made during a blood test or a bone marrow biopsy.